Scoring systems Flashcards

1
Q

What is the scoring system used to assess the liklihood of a septic joint (eg septic arthritis vs transient synovitis)?

A
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2
Q

What is the scoring system used to assess stroke risk in patients with AF?

A

CHA2DS2-VASc

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3
Q

What is the scoring system to evaluate risk of haemorrhage on anticoagulation for AF?

A

HASBLED Score

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4
Q

List the elements of the PERC Score.

Who should it be used in?

A

Effectively rules out PE (<2% probability) in patients with a pre-test probability of <15%.

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5
Q

What are the elements of the Well’s Score?

What do the scores equate to?

A

<2 points: low risk = (1.3% incidence PE) -> PERC or D-dimer

Score 2-6 points: moderate risk (16.2% incidence of PE): D-dimer testing or CTA.

Score >6 points: high risk (37.5% incidence of PE): consider CTA. D-dimer testing is not recommended.

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6
Q

What is the HEART Score?

What does it predict?

A

Predicts the risk of Major Adverse Coronary Events (MACE) in the next 6/52 for patients with undifferentiated chest pain.

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7
Q

What is the TIMI Score for NSTEMI/UA?

What does it predict?

Give an estimate of the risk for various scores.

A
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8
Q

What is the GRACE Score?

What is it used for and what are its elements?

A
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9
Q

What are the inclusion criteria for stroke lysis?

A
  • Clinical diagnosis of ischemic stroke causing measurable neurologic deficit
  • Onset of symptoms <4.5 hours before beginning treatment;
  • Age ≥18 years
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10
Q

What is the dose of tPA for stroke lysis?

A

0.9mg/kg alteplase IV (maximum 90mg) over 60 minutes (10% given as a bolus)

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11
Q

What is the NNT to obtain functional independence for thrombolysis in ischaemic stroke?

A

10 - 13 depending on measure of “functional independence 0-1 vs 0-2.

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12
Q

What is the modified Rankin Score?

A
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13
Q

What is the number needed to harm (NNTH) for patients treated with thrombolysis in ischaemic stroke?

A

sICH - 42

Death - 122

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14
Q

What are the indications for GTN infusion in STEMI?

A
  • Ischaemic pain not responsive to opiates
  • Severe hypertension
  • Cardiogenic APO with HTN
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15
Q

What are the indications for thrombolysis in STEMI?

A

Indications:

  • PCI not available within 90mins of first medical contact AND
  • All patients (without contraindications) who present within 12 hours of symptom onset of STEMI.
  • Patients who present more than 12 hours after symptom onset may be considered however in selected cases when:
    • There are ongoing symptoms
    • There is ongoing electrical and /or hemodynamic (cardiogenic shock) instability.

NB: The ideal treatment for all STEMIs is acute PCI or in some cases emergency CABGs

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16
Q

What are the absolute and relative contrindications to thrombolysis (PE and STEMI)?

A
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17
Q

List ten causes of non-MI tropinaemia (cardiac and non-cardiac).

A

Cardiac:

  • CHF
  • Cardiac contusion or electrical injury (defib/electrocution)
  • Tachy/bradyarrhythmias
  • Kawasaki’s disease
  • Takotsubo’s disease (stress cardiomyopathy)

Non-cardiac:

  • PE
  • Aortic dissection
  • Sepsis
  • >30% BSA burns
  • Hypoxia
  • ICH/SAH
  • Renal failure
  • Extreme exertion
18
Q

List the STEMI criteria.

A
  • >20mins of typical ischaemic chest pain
  • Persistent (>20mins) ECG changes in >= 2 contiguous leads of:
    • >2.5mm STE in V2-V3 (males < 40y)
    • >2.0mm STE in V2-V3 (males > 40y
    • >1.5mm STE in V2-V3 (females)
    • >1mm in all other leads
  • LBBB new or which meets Sgarbossa Criteria
19
Q

What are the recommended timeframes for patients with confirmed ACS (STEMI or NSTEACS)?

  1. STEMI
  2. Very high-risk NSTEACS
  3. High risk NSTEACS
  4. Intermediate risk NSTEACS
A
  1. Emergent -> activate cath lab
  2. PCI <2h
  3. PCI < 24h
  4. PCI <72h
20
Q

What are the features of Very High Risk NSTEACS?

A
  • Haemodynamic instability:
    • Heart failure/ cardiogenic shock
    • Mechanical complications of myocardial infarction
  • Life-threatening arrhythmias or cardiac arrest
  • Recurrent or ongoing ischaemia (e.g. chest pain refractory to medical treatment) or
  • recurrent dynamic ST segment and/or T wave changes, particularly with:
    • de Winter T wave changes
    • Wellens syndrome (or LMCA syndrome)
    • posterior MI
21
Q

What targets should be aimed for when utilising an MTP?

A
  • Temp >35
  • Calcium >1.1
  • pH > 7.2
  • Lactate < 4
  • Platelets >50
  • INR < 1.5
  • APTT/PT <1.5 normal
  • Fibrinogen > 1
  • BE < -6
22
Q

What are PESI and Simplified PESI?

What do they predict?

What are the features that suggest poorer outcomes in patients w/ PE?

A

PE Severity Index (11 clinical criteria)

Simplified PE Severity Index (6 clinical criteria)

They predict the risk of death at 30days. In sPESI, any one criteria increases the risk from 1.1% to 8.9%.

sPESI:

  • Age > 80
  • History of cancer
  • History of cardiopulmonary disease
  • HR > 110
  • SBP < 100
  • SaO2 < 90%

PESI is a weighted system and also includes:

  • Gender
  • RR > 30
  • T < 36
  • ALOC
23
Q

What electrolyte imbalances are most common in re-feeding syndrome?

Give three effects of each of these imbalances.

24
Q

List ten clinical indications (hx, exam or lab) for medical admission in patients with Eating Disorders.

A
  • BMI < 12
  • Weight loss 1kg/wk over multiple weeks
  • Grossly inadequate nutritional intake <1000cal/day
  • High risk of re-feeding syndrome, eg:
    • SBP < 80mmHg
    • Postural SBP drop > 10mmHg
    • HR < 40 or > 120
    • Postural HR inc > 20bpm
    • T < 35degs
    • Any arrhythmia (QTc prolongation, non-specific ST or T-wave changes)
    • BSL < 2.5
    • Na < 125
    • K < 3.0
    • Mg < 0.7
    • PO4 < 0.8
    • eGFR < 60
    • Alb < 30
    • Neutrophils < 1.0
    • Markedly elevated ALT/AST > 500
      *
25
List three options for BP reduction in the pre-eclamptic patient and what medication should be avoided (and why)? What BP endpoints should be aimed for?
* labetalol IV 5-10mg injected slowly * hydrallazine IV 10-20mg slowly * nifedipine PO 10-20mg or IV 100-200mg over 2 min * GTN IV 0.1-0.8mcg/kg/min Avoid sodium nitroprusside due risk of cyanide toxicity to fetus Aim to aggressively reduce BP \<140/90 (10-20mmHg/20mins)
26
What is the dose of steroid to be given if premature labour is at risk?
Betamethasone 11.4mg IMI x2 q12h
27
Give eight risk factors for pre-eclampsia.
* PET during another pregnancy * advanced maternal age * multiple pregnancy * high BMI * conception before age 20 * connective tissue disorders * protein C and S deficiencies * factor V leiden mutation * hyperhomocysteinemia
28
List the priorities in managing the eclamptic patient.
1. Call for help - O+G, ICU and paeds/neonatolgy 2. Resuscitate 1. A B C D E 2. Remember cautious fluid boluses due risk of APO 3. Control seizures 1. 4g IV MgSO4 over 20mins 2. 1g/hr IV MgSO4 infusion ongoing 3. 0.1-0.2mg/kg IV/IM midazolam if seizures continue and/or while getting MgSO4 4. Control BP 1. Hydralazine 10-20mg IV slowly over 2min 2. Labetalol 5-10mg IV slowly over 2min 3. Nifedipine 100-200mg IV slowly over 2min 4. GTN infusion 0.1-0.8mcg/kg/min 5. Prepare for delivery if pre-partum 1. Continuous CTG monitoring or POCUS 2. Liaise with O+G, Paeds and OR 6. Remember 1. Betamethasone 11.4mg IM if pre-term 2. Anti-D if blood group mandates 3. Left lateral decubitus position
29
What is the method for determining the nature of a pleural exudate?
Light's Criteria: * Pleural protein : Serum protein = \> 0.5 * Pleural LDH : Serum LDH = \> 0.6 * Pleural LDH \> 0.66 (2/3) x upper limit of normal for serum LDH * Serum albumin - pleural albumin \< 1.2g/dL One criteria being met has high sensitivity for exudative pleural effusion.
30
What are the characteristics of pleural fluid that suggests a chylothorax?
* Cloudy or turbid fluid * Triglycerides \> 110 (raised)
31
What does a putrid smelling pleural fluid sample suggest?
Possible anaerobic infection
32
What are the important levels of haematocrit in pleural fluid analysis?
\<1% – non-significant 1-20% – Cancer, PTE, trauma, pneumonia \>50% – Haemothorax
33
What is suggested by a raised amylase level in pleural fluid analysis?
Pancreatitis as cause for pleural effusion
34
What are the common causes of a lymphocytosis in pleural aspirate?
\>85% leucocyte count suggests: * Malignancy -\> lymphoma * TB pneumonia * Sarcoid * Rheumatoid
35
What risk factors suggest high liklihood of stroke after TIA?
ABCD2 score: **Age** \> 60y - 1pt **BP** \>140mmHg 1pt **Clinical features**: Speech w/out weakness 1pt; unilateral weakness 2pts **Duration of symptoms**: 10-59mins - 1pt; \>=60mins 2pt **DM** 1pt Predicts risk of stroke at 2days, 7days and 90days post TIA 0-3pts - Low risk 4-5pts - Moderate risk 6-7pts - High risk
36
What are the toxic doses of salicylate toxicity and the associated expected symptoms?
* \>150mg/kg - minimal symptoms * 150-300mg/kg - mild/mod toxicity -\> tachypnoea (respiratory alkalosis), tinitus, vomiting, mild condusion/delirium * 300-500mg/kg - severe toxicity -\> Metabolic acidosis (HAGMA), altered LOC, seizures * \>500mg/kg - life threatening seizures, cerebral oedema, death
37
List three methods of gastric decontamination.
1. Gastric lavage - not for ALOC patients unless I+V 2. Single dose AC - 1g/kg (50g max) - not for uncooperative, alcohols, metals or corrosives 3. Whole bowel irrigation - 2L/h polyethylene glycol electrolyte solution - precede with AC and give via NGT
38
List three methods of enhanced elimination and the agents that the method may benefit in.
1. Multiple dose activated charcoal * Carbamazepine * Theophylline * Phenobarbitone * Quinine 2. Urinary alkalinisation * Salicylates * Phenobarbitone 3. Haemodialysis * Toxic alcohols * Theophyline * Salicylates * Lithium * Valproate * K+ overdose * Carbamazepine * Metformin lactic acidosis * Phenobarbitone
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