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Missed SCORE questions > SCORE > Flashcards

SCORE Flashcards

1
Q

Pt has a 50% TBSA 3rd degree flame injury with soot in the sputum. Serum carboxyhemoglobin is 30%. The PaO2 is 150 torr (FIO2 1.0) after intubation. the next step in management is?

A

Initiate low tidal volume ventilation. Pts with 50% TBSA are at risk of sustaining complications related to resuscitation, so a hyperbaric chamber is not appropriate. With a PaO2/FiO2 ratio <200, they have significant lung injury and are at risk for ARDS. ventilation with low tidal values allows for hypercapnia, the low volume/high frequency ventilation tolerates a respiratory acidosis to keep intrathoracic pressures below 40cm H20 and decrease barotrauma

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2
Q

what 2 bugs are associated with lymphangitis?

A

staph aureus and strep pyogenes

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3
Q

what is sepsis?

A

a life threatening organ dysfunction due to dysregulated response to infection

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4
Q

what is qSOFA?

A

a combination of 3 abnormalities: hypoTN, inc RR, AMS

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5
Q

what is septic shock?

A

HypoTN in which you need pressors to maintain a MAP <65mmHg AND elevated serum lactate >2mmol/L

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6
Q

What is Light’s Criteria?

A

Exudative Effusions will have a pleural fluid protein/serum protein>0.5. Pleural fluid LDH/Serum LD>0.6. Pleural fluid LDH > 2/3 the upper limit of serum LDH normal

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7
Q

what is the best means of diagnosis of an Empyema?

A

CT

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8
Q

Does intraoperative cholangiograms reduce the risk for biliary ductal injury?

A

No

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9
Q

Most common approach for resecting atrial myxomas

A

Median Sternotomy and L and R atriotomies

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10
Q

Most common cause of adrenal insufficiency is…

A

autoimmune disease

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11
Q

How to treat H. Pylori?

A

Clarithromycin, Amoxicillin, and a PPI (omeprazole). Metronidazole can be used in a penicillin allergy

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12
Q

Risk factors for the development of pseudoaneursym following peripheral arterial intervention

A
  1. larger sheath size 2. heavily calcified arteries 3. obesity 4. need for concurrent anticoagulation 5. combined arterial and venous puncture 6. inadequate post catheterization compression
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13
Q

what is the vicious triad in acute coagulopathy of trauma and shock?

A

hypothermia, acidosis, clotting factor consumption

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14
Q

What are the zones of the neck?

A

I-below the cricoid to the level of the clavicles
II-between the cricoid to the angle of the mandible
III- Above the angle of the mandible to the base of the skull

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15
Q

Which of the follow is not an indication for liver transplantation?

A

Colon Cancer

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16
Q

what is associated with sodium warfarin-induced skin necrosis?

A

Protein C deficiency

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17
Q

What does Gastric tonometry measure

A

lumin PCO2

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18
Q

where does lymphatic drainage of the testes follow?

A

R: paracaval and interaortocaval lymph nodes
L: para-aortic lymph nodes

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19
Q

what injury is common in L nephrectomy?

A

Pancreas

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20
Q

what is the cutoff function for nephrectomy?

A

15-20%

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21
Q

Pt is undergoing a laparotomy for hysterectomy. She is having massive pelvic hemorrage, which has not been controlled. How do you control the bleeding?

A

ligation of the hypogastric artery, anterior branch (internal iliac) - will reduce pulse pressure to the pelvis. Collaterals will provide flow to prevent necrosis. AVOID the posterior branch, decreased collaterals.

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22
Q

how do you improve patient survival rate in ovarian cancer?

A

operative debulking: disease, TAH, bl salpingooophorectomy, omentectomy

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23
Q

Gastrinomas are most often found where?

A

In the gastrinoma triangle: R of the superior mesenteric vessels (cystic and common bile ducts), head of the pancreas, duodenal wall (2nd and 3rd portions)

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24
Q

MEN 1 syndrome

A

Parathyroid, Pancreatic tumor, Pituitary tumor

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25
Q

MEN IIa

A

Medullary thyroid cancer, pheochromocytoma and parathyroid tumors

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26
Q

MEN IIb

A

Medullary thyroid cancers, pheochromocytomas, marfinoid habitus and mucosal neuromas

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27
Q

in asymptomatic relatives of patients with MEN IIa, risk of medullary carcinoma can be assessed how?

A

Identification of a RET proto-oncogene mutation- MEN 2 is a gain of function autosomal dominant gene.

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28
Q

what is a risk of doing an interscalene block?

A

hemidiaphragmatic paralysis due to accidental phrenic nerve block

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29
Q

what are the sx of a myxedema coma?

A

hypothyroidism, hypocortisolemia, hypoventilation, hypothermia, hyponatremia, hypotension, hypoglycemia, and infection

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30
Q

what do you use each biostats test for?

  1. wilcoxon test
  2. paired t-test
  3. Kruskal-Wallis test
  4. Linear regression
A
  1. wilcoxon test- relationship between orindal variables (satisfactions scores in before/after treatment), or comparing baseline age participants
  2. paired t-test - continuous data
  3. Kruskal-Wallis test - ordinal data from three or more groups
  4. linear regression studies are for the association between 2continuous variables
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31
Q

Genes are associated with which thyroid cancer?

  1. RET mutation
  2. PAX8/PPARgamma
  3. p53
  4. BRAF-V600
A
  1. familial medullary thyroid carcinoma
  2. follicular thyroid cancer
  3. anaplastic thyroid cancer
  4. papillary thyroid carcinoma
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32
Q

what are ordinal variables?

A

have 2+ categories that are ranked - ex. pt asked to express pain level from 1-10

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33
Q

what is the other name for the Wilcoxon rank-sum test?

A

Mann-Whitney U Test

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34
Q

what do you administer to help reverse local anesthetic toxicity?

A

IV Intralipid

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35
Q

which is correctly paired?

  1. Cohort study - odds ratio
  2. Case control study - odd ratio
  3. Case control study - relative risk
  4. Randomized controlled trial - odds ratio
A
  1. Case control study - odds ratio
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36
Q

when disease incidence increases, what happens to positive predictive value and negative predictive value?

A

PPV will increase and NPV will decrease

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37
Q

An investigator is finding an associationg between exposure to a toxin and gastric cancer. She sends a survey to 1000 pts with the disease and 1000 pts without the disease. what sort of study is this and what statistical measure should be reported to summarize the findings?

A

case-control study - cases are selected on whether someone has the disease or not. Odds ratio

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38
Q

which non-depolarizing relaxants is preferred in intubation of patients with hepatic or renal dysfunction?

A

atracurium

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39
Q

what does secondary analysis mean?

A

analyzing existing data that has been collected to answer a different research question

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40
Q

Renal Injury Scale in Trauma

I-V

A

I-Contusion with microscopic or gross hematuria, hematoma that is subcapsular and nonexpanding
II- Hematoma that is perirenal but confined to renal retoperitoneum. Laceration <1cm parenchymal depth without extravasation.
III- laceration >1cm without extravasation
IV- Parenchymal laceration extending through the renal cortex, medulla, and collecting system. Main renal arter or vein injury
V-Avulsion of the renal hilum and completely shattered kidney

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41
Q

which classification of renal injuries do NOT need to be operated on?

A

I-III

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42
Q

what is the maximum safe dose of Lidocaine with Epi? Without Epi?

A

Lido with Epi = 6-7mg/kg

Lido WITHOUT Epi = 4-5mg/kg

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43
Q

what is the reversal agent for rocuronium?

A

a chelating agent, sugammadex. Or in general, a cholineesterase inhibitor (eg. neostigmine) can be given to inc the amount of AcH

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44
Q

What happens to the HR, SV, MAP, and SVR during pregnancy?

A

HR inc, SV inc, MAP dec, SVR dec

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45
Q

what is an absolute contraindication to methotrexate

A

breastfeeding

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46
Q

which anticoagulant should be started for a pt that has a DVT on POD5?

A

LMWH

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47
Q

what is the maximum exposure that a pregnant woman can have?

A

5 rad (0.05 Gy)

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48
Q

what is the apology law and which state doesn’t have one?

A

Where “Im sorry” statements or expressions are not admissible in court. New York

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49
Q

how do you reverse dabigatran?

A

Idarucizumab - a monoclonal antibody to dabigatran

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50
Q

what is the average amount of radiation that a fetus receives during a CT scan?

A

2.5 rads

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51
Q

which pain medication has a “black box warning” for post tonsillectomy/adenoidectomy?

A

codeine

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52
Q

Cardiac Ejection Fraction is falsely increased in which two heart conditions?

A

mitral insufficiency and ventricular septal defects

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53
Q

name 6 proserotenergic opoids?

A

fentanyl, methadone, meperidine, tramadol, dextromethorphan, and propoxyphene

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54
Q

what is the best reversal for warfarin?

A

four factor prothrombin concentrate - includes factors II, VII, IX, X

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55
Q

what occurs during refeeding syndrome?

A

insulin secretion, hypoK, hypoCa, hypoPhos

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56
Q

What is the operation of choice for an injury of the proximal biliary tree?

A

Roux-en-Y hepaticojejunostomy

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57
Q

what is cholesterolosis in the gallbladder?

A

multiple cholesterol polyps (cholesterolosis) typically are pedunculated, hyperechoic, and do not have posterior shadowing

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58
Q

when do you perform an ERCP with stone extraction and sphincterotomy?

A

when the patient is in septic shock (probably in the ICU) and cannont tolerate any procedure that would require a laperotomy (CBD exploration, choledocoenterostomy, biliary T tube placement).

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59
Q

Why do you see Prolong PT in pts with CBD obstruction?

A

The biliary obstruction deprives the SI of the bile necessary to break down fats and absorption of fat soluable vitamins, specifically vitamin K which is a cofactor for factors VII, IX, X

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60
Q

Which test would be a good reproduction of biliary colic as well as identify if a patient would benefit from transduodenal sphincteroplasty?

A

Morphine - neostigmine (Nardi) test. Used to identify sphincter of Oddi dysfunction by Morphine contracts the sphincter and neostigmine contracts the biliary system

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61
Q

what chemotherapy is recommended for patients with hepatobiliary cancers?

A

gemcitabine and cisplatin

62
Q

Pts with deterioration of renal function and angiographic evidence of severe disease and renovascular HTN most likely benefit from:
Endovascular intervention OR Open revascularization?

A

Open revascularization (except those with fibrodysplasia)

63
Q

Claudication is a strong predictor of what?

A

Non fatal MIs

64
Q

Why do we bridge warfarin initiation with heparin?

A

Warfarin blocks vitamin K epoxied reductase (that deactivates vitamin). Then K dependent factors (factors II, VII, IX, X, protein S and protein C) are unable to work. Protein C and S (anticoagulants) have shorter half lives than Factors II, VII, IX, and X (pro coagulants), there is a brief time of hypercoaguability.

65
Q

2 incisions made for a LE fasciotomy

A

Anteriolateral and Posteriomedial

66
Q

Which is NOT associated with inc mortality after AAA repair?

  • Angina pectorals
  • COPD
  • LVH
  • > 69yo
  • Hx of CVA
A

Angina pectorals

67
Q

In a coagulopathic patient, which central venous access is contraindicated?

A

Subclavian veins - cannot compress

68
Q

Where is the best place to put a dialysis catheter?

A

R IJ

69
Q

What is the most common cause of Prosthetic AV access thrombosis 1-2 years after placement?

A

Stenosis of the graft-venous anastomoses

70
Q

what can be used in men for breast cancer?

A

tamoxifen

71
Q

How does heparin work?

A

Uses anti thrombin to inhibit formed thrombin and factor Xa

72
Q

Where do you put the Macintosh blade?

A

Behind the vallecula (space between the epiglottis and back of tongue)

73
Q

What pressors to use in acute liver failure?

A

Norepinephrine and Vasopressin - NE inc SVR without inc CO, Vasopressin counteracts splanchnic dilation

74
Q

Pt with hx of alcoholism is now undergoing tetany and severe fasiculations, which electrolyte abnormality is probably present?

A

hypomagnesemia or hypocalcemia

75
Q

44yo female with papillary carcinoma and lung mets, which stage of cancer does she have? (I-IV)

A

II - regardless of mets, people under the age of 45 have the best prognosis

76
Q

Where do you find the parathyroid glands, upper and lower, in relation to the recurrent laryngeal nerve?

A

Lower glands are typically medial to the nerve, near the lower pole of the thyroid gland and tend to be anterior or superficial in the neck. Upper glands are lateral to the nerve, deep in the neck, and often are found near the tubercle of Zuckerlandl. The recurrent nerve is typically found in the tracheo-esophageal groove. Sometimes, upper glands can be found in the retroesophageal location, but this would be atypical for an inferior gland.

77
Q

Where do you find the parathyroid glands, upper and lower, in relation to the recurrent laryngeal nerve?

A

Lower glands are typically medial to the nerve, near the lower pole of the thyroid gland and tend to be anterior or superficial in the neck. Upper glands are lateral to the nerve, deep in the neck, and often are found near the tubercle of Zuckerlandl. The recurrent nerve is typically found in the tracheo-esophageal groove. Sometimes, upper glands can be found in the retroesophageal location, but this would be atypical for an inferior gland.

78
Q

The site (organ) of tumor most likely responsible for ectopic adrenocorticotropic hormone production as a cause of Cushing`s syndrome is the

A

lung

79
Q

A 56-year-old woman who has had radiation therapy to the head and neck has a 2-cm mass in the right thyroid lobe. The most likely diagnosis is:

A

papillary thyroid cancer

80
Q

A 56-year-old woman who has had radiation therapy to the head and neck has a 2-cm mass in the right thyroid lobe. The most likely diagnosis is:

A

papillary thyroid cancer

81
Q

A single focus of chief cells, surrounded by a compressed rim of normal tissue describes what kind of parathyroid disease?

A

Parathyroid adenoma

82
Q

A diffuse proliferation of clear cells with little remaining normal tissue, describes which kind of parathyroid disase?

A

parathyroid hyperplasia

83
Q

The presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, describes which diease

A

hodgkin lymphoma

84
Q

The presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, describes which diease

A

hodgkin lymphoma

85
Q

Carcinoembryonic antigen and calcitonin are markers for which thyroid cancer?

A

Medullary thyroid carcinoma

86
Q

which marker can be followed for papillary thyroid carcinoma?

A

thyroglobulin - Papillary thyroid cancer (PTC) is a thyroid-stimulating hormone–dependent cancer

87
Q

what is Podofilox, and what is it use for?

A

Podofilox is a cream created from one of the active ingredients in podophyllin. Because podofilox is much less irritating to surrounding tissues, it can be prescribed for home use of genital/anal condyloma

88
Q

Where should a lateral sphincterotomy be performed?

A

Right lateral

89
Q

Which of the following is the most common complication following excisional hemorrhoidectomy?

A

urinary retention

90
Q

You have recommended lateral internal sphincterotomy. What is the long-term risk of fecal incontinence to liquid and solid stool?

A

Less than 5%

91
Q

In low rectal cancer, the acceptable distal margin from the tumor edge is (????) cm or greater. In mid or high rectal cancers, the aim is to achieve a distal margin of (????) cm.

A

1; 5

92
Q

Surgical management (LAR or APR) of advanced local rectal cancer should be time for (????) after completion of neoadjuvant radiation

A

5-10 weeks

93
Q

Retrospective reviews have found (LAR vs APR?) to be associated with improved survival and decreased local recurrence rates in mid and low rectal cancers. Very distal rectal cancer (often extending into the anal canal) managed by APR has the worst rate of survival and recurrence

A

LAR. Very distal rectal cancer (often extending into the anal canal) managed by APR has the worst rate of survival and recurrence

94
Q

what is Alvimopan?

A

Alvimopan is an opioid antagonist that is peripherally acting and does not cross the blood brain barrier. In several studies, it has been demonstrated to decrease time to resumption of bowel function described as flatus, bowel movement, or toleration of regular diet by 15-24 hours. It has been approved by the FDA for perioperative use after partial large or small bowel resections with primary anastomosis.

95
Q

what is a sitz marker study?

A

ingestion of radiopaque markers followed by daily radiographs, which allows for monitoring of the radio-opaque markers as they pass through the colon.

96
Q

Treatment for low rectal fistula? High rectal fistulas?

A

Low - rectal advancement flap. High - involves resection of the involved bowel with primary re-anastomosis if possible.

97
Q

where are these cancers most likely found in the small intestine?

  1. adenocarcinomas
  2. Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma
  3. Carcinoid
  4. GIST tumors
A
  1. duodenum or proximal jejunum
  2. spares the duodenum
  3. rare, distal ileum
  4. rare overall in the small intestine, no particular place
98
Q

what do you give a patient with a carcinoid tumor experiencing hypotension that is not responding to IVF or vasopressors?

A

Somatostatin

99
Q

what is the common complication following reversal of a loop ileostomy?

A

SBO

100
Q

Risk factors for Non hodgkins lymphoma in the small bowel

A

transplant, celiac disease, and HIV

101
Q

where are these things absorbed?

  1. iron
  2. bile salts
  3. B12/intrinsic factor
A
  1. duodenum
  2. ileum
  3. terminal ileum
102
Q

people with extensive ileum resection develop oxalate urinary stones, why?

A

because there will be a decrease of fat maladigestion and malabsorption, leading to fats being digested to fatty acid in the colon by bacteria. The fatty acids bind to calcium, making the Ca unavailable to bind to oxalate. The excess oxalate is reabsorbed resulting in increased oxalate load in the urine.

103
Q

Peyer`s patches are primarily responsible for the local synthesis of

A

IgA

104
Q

what does Papaverine do?

A

vasodilator agent that does not increase intestinal O2 uptake

105
Q

what is a Cameron’s lesion?

A

chronic enteric blood loss as a result of mechanically induced linear erosions at the level of the diaphragm within the hiatal hernia

106
Q

In a patient with gastrinoma, the most effective drug for controlling duodenal ulceration is

A

a PPI

107
Q

Describe where the gastric ulcers are locations and associations (I-V)

A

I - lesser curvature, not associated with acid secretion
II - lesser curvature, associated with acid hypersecretion
III - prepyloric region, associated with acid hypersecretion
IV - in the cardia near the gastroesophageal junction, not associated with acid secretion
V - diffuse and associated with NSAID use

108
Q

In patients with a hypofibrinogenemia-associated coagulopathy, the most appropriate management is the administration of

A

cryoprecipitate - contains von Willebrand factor complexed with Factor VIII and fibrinogen making it the most appropriate therapy for hypofibrinogenemia. FFP also contains fibrinogen, but also contains other clotting factors and needs to be ABO compatible

109
Q

Sodium warfarin sensitivity is associated with an abnormality in what?

A

Polymorphisms of CYP 2C9 have been identified that result in warfarin sensitivity in individuals with these variations.

110
Q

Which factor converts fibrinogen into fibrin, activates multiple factors in the coagulation cascade, and activates platelets.

A

Thrombin

111
Q

when does a pneumothorax become a problem?

A

symptoms or >3cm

112
Q

How much fluid in a plural effusion is needed to show up clinically? on chest xray?

A

Generally, 500 mL effusion is necessary to be detected on clinical exam; 300 mL of fluid will cause blunting of the costophrenic angle on upright chest x-ray.

113
Q

A 76-year-old man presents to the emergency department with new-onset shortness of breath. A chest radiograph reveals a moderate size left-sided pleural effusion. Thoracentesis is performed yielding blood tinged fluid. The pleural fluid analysis reveals lactate dehydrogenase 1100 IU/L, glucose 35 mg/dL, pH 7.2, and cytology 70% lymphocytes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Malignant mesothelioma - although this indicates that it is exudative (high LDH, low glucose, low pH, high lymphocytes), the fact that it is blood tinged and NOT purulent suggests mesothelioma vs. empyema

114
Q

after successful management of a first-time primary spontaneous pneumothorax with a chest tube, what is the risk of recurrence?

A

60%

115
Q

Without intervention (including tube thoracostomy), how quickly does a pneumothorax resolve?

A

1% per day

116
Q 
A 70-year-old woman with a penicillin allergy resulting in anaphylaxis is evaluated in your office and diagnosed with symptomatic cholelithiasis. She is scheduled for elective cholecystectomy. What would be an appropriate choice of prophylactic antibiotic?
A. None required
B. Cefazolin
C. Metronidazole
D. Fluconazole
E. Clindamycin
A

Clindamycin. Cefazolin is a good alternative for someone WITHOUT a pencillin allergy

117
Q

associated with mutations in p53 or hCHK2

A

Li-Fraumeni syndrome

118
Q

what is the standard adjuvant therapy for gallbladder carcinoma?

A

Gemcitabine with cisplatin

119
Q

which of the tumor markers has the greatest specificity for hepatoblastomas

A

alpha feto proteins

120
Q

most common genetic mutation in pancreatic cancer

A

k-ras. CA 19-9 is the most common oncofetal protein in pancreatic cancer

121
Q

A 35-year-old man undergoes an uncomplicated right axillary lymphadenectomy for melanoma. Three of 19 lymph nodes are positive for melanoma. Which one of the following adjuvant therapies can be offered?

A

Ipilimumab

122
Q

Normal cellular proliferation is inhibited by

A

TGF-b

123
Q

Both forms of MEN-II are associated with mutation of the ____ proto-oncogene

A

Ret

124
Q

how mank kcal are there in fat?

A

9 per gram

125
Q

what are some AEs of Meperidine?

A

accumulation even in renally intact patients to cause excitation and seizures

126
Q

Which amino acid is conditionally essential in a septic patient?

A

Glutamine

127
Q

Hydrated glucose in parenteral nutrition provides _____ kcal/g, whereas oral carbohydrates provide _____ kcal/g

A

3.4; 4.0

128
Q

low to moderately stressed state require _______ kcal/kg per day

A

25-30 kcal/kg per day

129
Q

Memorize this: During prolonged fat-free TPN, essential fatty acid deficiency may become apparent, manifested by a dry, scaly dermatitis and loss of hair. Copper deficiency is associated with microcytic anemia. Inadequate stores of vitamin K can be manifested as a coagulopathy. Supplemental vitamin K should be administered intramuscularly because it is unstable in the TPN solution. Chromium deficiency can cause glucose intolerance eczematoid rash on his face, trunk, and intertriginous areas is zinc deficiency.

A

Memorize

130
Q

Which hormone will relax the sphincter of Oddi?

A

glucagon

131
Q

where do you approach an intrathoracic esophageal injury?

A

R posterolateral thoracotomy

132
Q

which chromosome is menin found on. which disease is this associated with?

A

11; MEN1

133
Q

treatment of choice for laryngeal trauma

A

tracheostomy

134
Q

Lobular carcinoma in situ is associated with at least ____ lifetime risk of breast cancer.

A

20%

135
Q

for a female, which screenings are needed before age 50?

A

Mammogram, skin surveillance, gyn w pap smear. Does NOT need a colonoscopy

136
Q

with neuroleptic malignant syndrome can you substitute one of the new anti-psychotics (risperidone) with halodol?

A

No

137
Q

TNM staging of a woman with a 2.5cm right breast invasive ductal carcinoma with 2/5 sentinel lymph nodes positive but no distant metastasis?

A

T2N1M0

138
Q

Without intervention (including tube thoracostomy), how quickly does a pneumothorax resolve?

A

1% per day

139
Q

preferred method for thrombosed popliteal aneurysm

A

open, endovascular for comorbidities

140
Q

what to do if a PEG tube falls out before 6 weeks postop?

A

place an NG tube to prevent spillage

141
Q

what are the signs of acute limb ischemia?

A

pulselessness, pain, pallor, poikilothermia, paresthesia, and paralysis

142
Q

The patient received a total of 12 L of crystalloid and blood intra-operatively. On postoperative day 1, blood pressure is 95/60 mmHg, pulse is 140 bpm, and urinary output is 20 mL/hr. EKG and enzymes reveal no evidence of ischemia, but confirm atrial fibrillation. Which of the following is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?

A

Metoprolol for rate control followed by IV furosemide

143
Q

What is the most appropriate location of an epidural catheter for a lower abdominal operation such as a total abdominal hysterectomy

A

T11 - All epidural analgesic agents are segmental in nature and limited in anatomic spread and should be placed appropriately to affect appropriate dermatomes corresponding to the area of the operation.

144
Q

how do GIST tumors spread?

A

hematogenously

145
Q

Symptoms secondary to carcinoid syndrome are ameliorated by _______?

A

Somatostatin - which is why octreotide works

146
Q

Is the pain in Mondor’s acute or chronic?

A

acute

147
Q

primary spontaneous pneumothorax, what is the risk of recurrence?

A

60%

148
Q

During thoracoscopy for a recurrent malignant effusion that was previously managed with three prior thoracenteses in the last 6 weeks, you note tumor caking the visceral and parietal pleura. The lung does not fully expand during a Valsalva maneuver. The most appropriate treatment for the effusion is:

A

tunneled pleural catheter

149
Q

continuous variable in two samples in order to determine whether the difference between the two observed means exceeds the difference expected to occur by chance.

A

Student’s t test

150
Q

child disease that has abdominal aortic coarcation and/or renal artery stenosis(es).

A

NF-1

Missed SCORE questions (1 decks)

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