Scientific Concepts #2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which item is included in the “identification” section of the MSDS?
A: possible hazards
B: restrictions on product use
C: chemical composition
D: exposure limits

A

B: restrictions on product use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The type of bacteria that rarely shows any active motility is known as ___.
A: cocci
B: pus
C: spirilla
D: flagellum

A

A: cocci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Inflammation is charaterized by which of the following?
A: swelling
B: decreased blood flow
C: chilling of tissue
D: numbness

A

A: swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A disease that is transmitted from one person to another is called ___.
A: characteristic
B: communicable
C: communal
D: microbial

A

B: communicable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which fungus affects plants or grows on inanimate objects but does not cause human infections in the salon?
A: tinea barbae
B: staph
C: mildew
D: tinea pedis

A

C: mildew

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Phenolic disinfectants are ___.
A: a form of alcohol
B: among the safest disinfectants
C: known carcinogens
D: the preferred disinfectants for pedicure tubs

A

C: known carcinogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Single-use items that do not have the capcity to be disinfected after each client use must be ___.
A: discarded
B: washed
C: stored
D: immersed

A

A: discarded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which statement best describes UV sanitizers?
A: they do not disinfect nor do they sterilize
B: they are particularly effective with viruses
C: they are more effective than liquid disinfectants
D: they are required by most states

A

A: they do not disinfect nor do they sterilize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Chemical germicides formulated for use on skin, and registered and regulated by the FDA are called ___.
A: disinfectants
B: quats
C: antiseptics
D: cleaners

A

C: antiseptics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which statement describes the proper use of waterless hand sanitizers in the salon?
A: they are preferable to the use of soap and water because they are more effective
B: they can be used AFTER soap and water, but cannot be substituted for soap and water
C: in general, they are as effective as soap and water, but may be more drying
D: most state health departments mandate the use of waterless hand sanitizers

A

B: they can be used AFTER soap and water, but cannot be substituted for soap and water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The scientific study of the functions and activities performed by the body’s structures is called ___.
A: neurology
B: anatomy
C: physiology
D: reflexology

A

C: physiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The cells of all living organisms are made of a substance called ___.
A: protoplasm
B: neoplasm
C: ultraplasm
D: cytoplasm

A

A: protoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

___ is to raw egg white as ___ is to raw egg yolk.
A: protoplasm; nucleus
B: cell membrane; protoplasm
C: nucleus; cytoplasm
D: cytoplasm; cell membrane

A

C: nucleus; cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the tissue that binds together, protects, and supports various parts of the body?
A: nerve tissue
B: connective tissue
C: epithelial tissue
D: muscle tissue

A

B: connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Another term for fat is __ tissue.
A: nerve
B: muscle
C: epithelial
D: adipose

A

D: adipose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The physical foundation of the body consisting of bones connected by joints is the ___.
A: nervous system
B: skeletal system
C: muscular system
D: endocrine system

A

B: skeletal system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The skull consists of the ___.
A: temporal and occipital bones
B: sphenoid and hyoid bones
C: vertebrae and discs
D: cranium and facial bones

A

A: temporal and occipital bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The facial skeleton has how many bones?
A: six
B: eight
C: twelve
D: fourteen

A

D: fourteen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The elastic, bony cage that acts as a protective framework for the heart and lungs is the ___.
A: sternum
B: thorax
C: scapula
D: clavicle

A

B: thorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The bones in the fingers or digits are called ___.
A: phalanges
B: metacarpus
C: scapula
D: carpus

A

A: phalanges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Pressure in massage is usually directed from the ___.
A: insertion to begginning
B: insertion to the orgin
C: skeleton to orgin
D: front to sides

A

B: insertion to orgin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The muscles that turn the hand inward so the palm faces downward are the ___.
A: flexors
B: supinators
C: pronators
D: levitators

A

D: levitators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The nervous system as a whole is divided into how many main subdivisions?
A: two
B: three
C: four
D: six

A

B: three

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which nerve supplies impulses to the skin on the outer side and back of the foot and leg?
A: sural nerve
B: common peroneal nerve
C: saphenous nerve
D: dorsal nerve

A

A: sural nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
The word integrument means __. A: blood vessels B: hormone C: natural covering D: gland
C: natural covering
26
Insulin, adrenaline, and estrogen are examples of ___. A: digestive enzymes B: waste products C: hormones D: proteins
C: hormones
27
Which gland plays a major role in sexual development, sleep, and metabolism? A: pineal B: pitutirary C: thyroid D: spleen
A: testosterone
28
The primary male reproductive hormone is ___. A: testosterone B: insulin C: progestin D: estrogen
A: testosterone
29
Acne, loss of scalp hair, facial hair growth and color, and darker skin pigmentations are some of the results of changing or fluctuating ___. A: cells B: tissues C: hormones D: metabolism
C: hormones
30
The average adult skin weighs __ pounds. A: 3 to 6 B: 6 to 9 C: 9 to 12 D: 12 to 15
B: 6 to 9
31
The skin layer in which the shedding of skin cells first begin is the stratum ___. A: lucidum B: corneum C: spinosum D: granulosum
C: spinosum
32
The deepest layer of the epidermis, the basal cell layer, is also known as the ___. A: stratum spinosum B: stratum germinativum C: stratum corneum D: keratin dermis
B: stratum germinativum
33
Small, cone-shaped elevations at the bottom of hair follicles are known as ___. A: papules B: melanocytes C: sensory nerve fibers D: dermal papillae
D: dermal papillae
34
The deeper layer of the dermis that supplies the skin with oxygen and nutrients is the___. A: papillary layer B: subcutaneous layer C: reticular layer D: basal layer
C: reticular layer
35
What layer of the dermis houses the nerve endings that provide the body with the sense of touch? A: secretory layer B: papillary layer C: dermal layer D: reticular layer
A: secretory layer
36
The melanin produced by the body that is red to yellow in color is ___. A: granular melanin B: pheomelanin C: eumelanin D: photovoltaic
B: pheomelanin
37
___ helps protect sensitive cells from UV rays. A: melanin B: sebum C: keratin D: elastin
A: melanin
38
What is a fibrous protein that gives skin form and strength? A: keratin B: papule C: dermal papillae D: collagen
D: collagen
39
A freckle is an example of a mark on the skin known as a __. A: pustule B: lesion C: cyst D: bulla
B: lesion
40
For which of the following skin lesions should the cosmetologist refer the client to his or her physician? A: bulla B: macule C: papule D: pustule
A: bulla
41
A flat spot or discoloration on the skin is a ___. A: pustule B: bulla C: lesion D: macule
D: macule
42
__ are keratin-filled cysts that are usually associated with newborns and are commonly found around the eyes, cheeks, and forehead. A: milia B: moles C: skin tags D: cicatrixes
D: cicatrixes
43
What is a skin disorder characterized by chronic inflammation of the sebaceous glands caused from retained secretions? A: wheal B: excoriation C: acne D: conjunctivitis
D: conjunctivitis
44
Inflammation of the sebaceous glands are charaterized by redness, dry or oily scaling, crusting, and/or itchiness is called ___. A: acne rosacea B: impetigo C: scale dermatitis D: seborrheic dermatitis
D: seborrheic dermatitis
45
A __ is a small brown or flesh-colored outgrowth of the skin. A: stain B: sebaceous cyst C: skin tag D: keratoma
C: skin tag
46
Between 80 percent and 85 percent of skin aging is caused by ___. A: genetic factors B: tobacco use C: poor diet D: sun exposure
D: sun exposure
47
___ is an allergic reaction created by repeated exposure to a chemical or a substance. A: sensitization B: impetigo C: anhidrosis D: conjunctivitis
A: sensitization
48
As it grows, the ___ slides across the nail bed. A: cuticle B: nail plate C: nail grooves D: mantle
B: nail plate
49
The nail plate is formed by the ___. A: matrix cells B: cuticle C: mantle D: grooves
A: mstrix cells
50
Which of the following may appear to be one solid piece, but is actually constructed of about 100 layers of nail cells? A: lunula B: nail bed C: nail folds D: nail plate
D: nail plate
51
The part of the nail plate that extends over the tip of the finger or toe is called the ___. A: cuticle area B: nail body C: free edge D: extension
C: free edge
52
The portion of living skin that supports the nail plate is the nail ___. A: root B: bed C: groove D: matrix
B: bed
53
Karen is very nervous at her first job interview. Her hands are sweating so much that she thinks her fingernails are sweating. In reality, from which part of the nail unit is the sweat most likely arising? A: lunula B: nail bed C: nail folds D: nail plate
C: nail folds
54
The area of the nail where the nail plate cells are formed is the ___. A: extension B: matrix C: lunula D: free edge
B: matrix
55
The tough band of fibrous tissue that onnects bones is the ___. A: bed epithelium B: ligament C: open muscle D: nail tendon
B: ligament
56
A longer nail matrix produces a ___ nail plate. A: longer B: shorter C: thicker D: thinner
C: thicker
57
Nail growth rates increase dramatically during ___. A: winter B: old age C: the last trimester of pregnancy D: after pregnancy and the delivery of a baby
C: the last trimester of pregnancy
58
The surface of a healthy natural nail should be ___. A: smooth and spotted B: flexible and spotted C: smooth and unspotted D: pitted and rough
C: smooth and unspotted
59
Which type of nail has a noticeably thin, white nail plate, and is more flexible than a normal nail? A: ingrown B: bitten C: leukonychia D: eggshell
C: leukonychia
60
Redness, pain, and swelling are best described as signs of a(n) ___. A: cosmetic defect B: deformity C: infection D: abrasion
C: infection
61
A dark band within the nail plate extending from the base to the free edge due to increased pigmentation is known as ___. A: melanin nails B: onycholysis C: onychophagy D: melanonychia
D: melanonychia
62
Melanocytes are ___. A: stem cells B: pre-cancerous cells C: infection fighters D: pigment cells
D: pigment cells
63
An individual who bites his or her nails may be said to have ___. A: onychocryptosis B: trumpet nail C: onychomucosis D: onychophagy
D: onychophagy
64
Split or brittle nails with a series of lengthwise ridges and a rough appearance to the surface of the nail plate is known as ___. A: onychophagy B: onychophosis C: onychorrhexis D: plicatured nails
D: plicatured nails
65
Moriah has a nail deformity. The general term fro her condition is ___. A: onyx B: onychia C: onychosis D: onychophosis
C: onychosis
66
Which of the following is an infectious nail condition? A: onychomycosis B: nail psoriasis C: onychocrypathology D: onycholysis
A: onychomycosis
67
___ refers to a fungal infection of the nail. A: onychocryptosis B: onychopathology C: onychomycosis D: onychophagy
C: onychomycosis
68
Which parasite, under some conditions, can cause infections to the feet and hands? A: onychiosis B: flagella C: fungi D: plicature
C: fungi
69
If a cosmetologist provides a service to a client with a fungal infection, it is ___ that the cosmetologist will get that infection from the client. A: extremely unlikely B: possible C: probable D: extremely likely
D: extremely likely
70
Discolorations of the nail plate from infections of the fingernails or toenails are usually the result of a ___. A: mold B: fungus C: viral infection D: bacterial infection
D: bacterial infection
71
The lifting of the nail plate rom the bed without shedding is a sign of ___. A: onychomadesis B: nail psoriasis C: eggshell nails D: onycholysis
D: onycholysis
72
What term refers to the scientific study of hair and its diseases and care? A: trichology B: cosmetology C: selenology D: cartology
A: trichology
73
The Greek word trichos means ___. A: skin B: fingernails C: glands D: hair
D: hair
74
The pocket or tube-like depression in the scalp or skin that contains the hair root is the hair ___. A: bulb B: follicle C: shaft D: dermal
B: follicle
75
What structures contain the blood and nerve supply that provide the nutrients needed for hair growth? A: sebaceous glands B: dermal papillae C: hair bulbs D: furuncles
A: sebaceous glands
76
What is the outer most layer of hair? A: hair follicle B: hair medulla C: hair cuticle D: hair cortex
C: hair cuticle
77
The fibrous protein core formed by elongated cells that contains melanin pigment is the ___. A: cuticle B: sebum C: cortex D: medulla
D: medulla
78
The changes involved in oxidation haircoloring, wet setting, thermal styling, permanent waving, and chemical hair relaxing take place within the ___. A: cuticle B: cortex C: medulla D: dermal papilla
A: cuticle
79
The major elements that make up human hair are carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen, and sulfur, often referred to as ___. A: COHNS elements B: dermal foundation C: amino acids D: keratins
A: COHNS elements
80
The units of structure that build protein and are joined together end to end like pop beads are ___. A: oxygenated cells B: primary acids C: amino acids D: lymph glands
C: amino acids
81
A physical side bond that is easily broken by water and heat is a ___ bond. A: nitrogen B: hydrogen C: disulfide D: sulfur
B: hydrogen
82
What is the growth phase during which new hair is produced? A: genesis B: telogen C: anagen D: catagen
C: anagen
83
The condition of abnormal hair growth of terminal hair is referred to as ___. A: monilethrix B: ringed hair C: hypertrichosis D: trichoptilosis
C: hypertrichosis
84
What is a condition that is charaterized by brittleness and the formation of nodular swellings along the hair shaft? A: fragilitas crinium B: trichorrhexis nodosa C: alopecia areata D: hypertrichosis
B: trichorrhexis nodosa
85
What is the technical term for brittle hair? A: hypertrichosis B: pityriasis capitis simplex C: pruritis D: fragilitas crinium
D: fragilitas crinium
86
What is the medical term used to describe dandruff? A: alopecia B: selenium C: pityriasis D: pyrithione
C: pityriasis
87
Which type of hair has the largest diameter and usually requires more processing? A: terminal hair B: coarse hair C: medium hair D: gray hair
D: gray hair
88
Chemical services performed on hair with low porosity require a ___ solution. A: less alkaline B: more acidic C: neutral D: more alkaline
B: more acidic
89
The ability of hair to stretch and return to its original length without breaking is referred to as hair ___. A: density B: elasticity C: porosity D: resistance
B: elasticity
90
Chemically combining two or more atoms produces a __. A: mixture B: substance C: molecule D: miscible
C: molecule
91
What type of chemical reaction results in the oxidizing agent being reduced and the reducing agent being oxidized? A: decomposition B: simple displacement C: neutralization D: redox
D: redox
92
The rapid oxidation of a substance, accompanied by the production of heat and light, is known as ___. A: implosion B: combustion C: entrophy D: synthesis
B: combustion
93
A chemical combination of matter in definite (fixed) proportions is a ___. A: physical mixture B: physical blend C: pure substance D: pure combination
D: pure combination
94
Air contains many substances, including nitrogen, carbon dioxide, and water vapor, and is an example of a ___. A: physical mixture B: chemical change C: pure substance D: chemical compound
C: pure substance
95
A stable physical mixture of two or more substances in a solvent is a(n) ___. A: blend B: solute C: solution D: emulsion
C: solution
96
Water and alcohol ___. A: are insoluble substances B: form a suspension when mixed together C: form distinct layers when combined D: are examples of miscible liquids
D: are examples of miscible liquids
97
Substances that allow oil and water to mix, or emulsify, are ___. A: suspensions B: mixtures C: particles D: surfacants
D: surfacants
98
"Having an affinity or attraction to fat and oils (oil-loving)" is defined as ___. A: lipophilic B: oligophilic C: lyophilic D: oxyphilic
A: lipophilic
99
What term refers to the seperation of an atom or molecule into positive and negative ions? A: ionization B: aeration C: deionization D: dissolution
A: ionization
100
Which material is a good conductor of electricity? A: rubber B: silk C: glass D: copper
D: copper
101
Which phrase best describes direct current? A: rapid and interupted flow B: associated with wall outlets C: produced by chemical means D: travels in two directions
C: produced by chemical means
102
Rapid and interupted current that flows in one direction and then in the opposite direction is known as __ current. A: alternating B: auxiliary C: direct D: sporadic
A: alternating
103
What unit measures the resistance of an eletric current? A: ampere B: ohm C: watt D: volt
B: ohm
104
A special device that prevents excessive current from passing through a circuit is a(n) ___. A: amp B: ampere C: fuse D: insulator
C: fuse
105
When working with electricity, appliances with a __ offer the most protection for you and your clients. A: two-prong plug with both prongs the same size B: two-prong plug with one prong slightly larger C: three-prong plug D: grounded universal plug
C: three prong plug
106
A positive electrode is called a(n) ___. A: anode B: active electrode C: cathode D: modality
A: anode
107
What is the process o infusing water-soluble products into the skin using electric current? A: desincrustation B: iontophoresis C: anaphoresis D: cataphoresis
B: iontophoresis
108
What is the shortest and least penetrating light of the electromagnetic spectrum? A: blue light B: infared light C: ultraviolet light D: red light
C: ultraviolet light
109
It is estimated that one in five Americans will develop skin cancer and that 90 percent of those cancers will be the result of exposure to ___. A: UV radiation B: X-rays C: microwaves D: infrared rays
A: UV radiation
110
What general term refers to a color component within the skin such as blood or melanin? A: chromosome B: chromatin C: chromophore D: chromotype
C: chromotype