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HESI Practice Test > Scientific Basis > Flashcards

Scientific Basis Flashcards

1
Q

Under which classification of gingival disease and conditions is puberty-associated gingivitis found?
A. Plaque-Induced Gingival Diseases Modified by Systemic Factors.
B. Non-plaque Induced Gingival Manifestations by Traumatic Lesions.
C. Plaque Induced Gingival Diseases Modified by Medications.
D. Non-plaque Induced Gingival Diseases of Viral Origin.

A

A. Plaque-Induced Gingival Diseases Modified by Systemic Factors

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2
Q

A patient presents with a short, thick lingual frenum that results in limited tongue movement affecting speech. What is most likely the diagnosis?

A

Ankyloglossia

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3
Q

When is tooth eruption complete?

A

When tooth has made contact with it’s antagonist(s) in opposing jaw

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4
Q

When does the mixed dentition begin?

A

Eruption of the first permanent tooth

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5
Q

What is the number of successional (succedaneous) teeth in the permanent dentition?

A

20

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6
Q

T/F: The junction of a becalm and lingual triangular ridge is a transverse ridge. The oblique ridge of a maxillary molar is an example o

A

True, False.

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7
Q 
Which factor makes aging enamel less susceptible to caries?
A. Discoloration
B. Decreased Fluoride Content
C. Regeneration
D. Reduced Permeability
A

D. Reduced Permeability

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8
Q

Which groove is the most identifying characteristic of a three-cusp mandibular second premolar?

A

Distolingual

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9
Q

T/F: The height of contour is the greatest elevation of tooth either incisocervically or occlusocervically.

A

True

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10
Q

How many primary and permanent teeth are typically present in an eight-year-old child?

A

Fourteen primary; Ten permanent

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11
Q

What describes the junction of two surfaces of a crown?

A

Line Angle

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12
Q

What describes the junction of three surfaces of a crown?

A

Point Angle

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13
Q

What G.V. Black classification involves the proximal surfaces of anterior teeth including the incisal edge or angle?

A

IV

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14
Q

What ridge is a unique characteristic of permanent maxillary molars?

A

Oblique

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15
Q

What division of the fifth cranial nerve innervates the temporomandibular joint?

A

Mandibular

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16
Q

Facial paralysis can result from damage to the motor neurons of what cranial nerve?

A

VII

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17
Q

What is the target area for the IA nerve block?

A

Mandibular foramen on medial surface of mandible

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18
Q

What salivary gland is unencapsulated?

A

Sublingual

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19
Q

What type of joint is the Temporomandibular?

A

Synovial

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20
Q

What PNS and subdivision are responsible for a shutdown of salivary gland secretion?

A

Autonomic; sympathetic

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21
Q

T/F: Destroyed enamel cannot reform since the cells that formed it no longer exist. Cavitated enamel can repair itself by the incorporation of calcium and phosphate ions in the saliva.

A

True, False.

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22
Q

What bacterium is most important in causing the progression of carious lesions?

A

Aciduric

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23
Q

T/F: Anaerobe bacteria multiply in the presence of oxygen?

A

False

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24
Q

T/F: Anaerobe bacteria grow only in the absence of oxygen?

A

True

25
Q

What bacterial structure interferes with phagocytosis?

A

Capsule

26
Q

What kind of bacteria grows best in refrigerated conditions?

A

Psychrophils

You have to be psycho to love the cold

27
Q

Endotoxin is a virulence property of what?

A

gram-negative bacteria

28
Q

T/F: Viruses must enter host cells before they can multiply

A

True

29
Q

T/F: Viruses are much larger than bacteria?

A

False

30
Q

What is treated with nystatin?

A

Candidiasis (Fungal diseases)

31
Q

What is detected in the blood within two months after successful immunization with the hepatitis B vaccine?

A

Anti-HBs

32
Q

What hypersensitivity reaction is an allergy to the natural rubber latex in examination gloves?

A

I

33
Q

What bacterial genus contains species that cause rheumatic fever, scarlet fever and pharyngitis?

A

Streptococcus

34
Q 
Each of the following us an anti tuberculin agent EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A. NIzoral
B. Isoniazid
C. Rifampin
D. Ethambutol
A

A. Nizoral

35
Q

A patient’s prescription has the abbreviation “QID” How frequently should the medication be taken?

A

Four Times a Day

36
Q

What schedule of controlled substance is indicated when a prescription states, “NO REFILLS?”

A

II

37
Q

What vitamin deficiency results from long-term recreational abuse of nitrous oxide?

A

Cobalamin (B12)

38
Q

Of the following, what is a good source of vitamin K?

Kale, Milk, Sweet Potatoes or Strawberries?

A

Kale

39
Q

What medication is administered to manage an acute asthma attack?

A

Albuterol

40
Q

What type of drug is Lipitor?

A

A statin used to lower cholesterol levels

41
Q

T/F and relation: Consuming foods high in retinols will help prevent night blindness because vitamin D helps absorb calcium.

A

Both the statement and reason are true but not related

42
Q

What element is found in proteins and not carbohydrates?

A

Nitrogen

43
Q

Some of vitamin K requirements are met through the synthesis of

A

intestinal bacteria

44
Q

What vitamin is associated with the deficiency BeriBeri?

A

Thiamin

45
Q

What is primarily responsible for pharmacologic metabolism?

A

Liver

46
Q

What procedure is the most definitive diagnosis for oral cancer?

A

Scalpel biopsy

47
Q

A 17-year-old presents for third molar evaluation. The panoramic radiograph reveals the apical third of roots #1 and #2 have fused together. What best describes this anomaly?

A

Concrescence

48
Q

A patients intraoral examination reveals a well-circumscribed, raised lesion along the lateral border of the tongue. The lesion is soft, deep purple and measures approximately 2 mm in diameter. The patient believes it first appeared after accidentally biting the tongue. What best describes the lesion?

A

Hemangioma

49
Q

Intraoral lesions may occur with each of the following EXCEPT one, which is the EXCEPTION?
Chickenpox, Basal Cell Carcinoma, Infectious mononucleosis, or Kaposi sarcoma

A

Basal Cell Carcinoma

50
Q

In what region does an early symptom of measles appear?

A

Buccal Mucosa

51
Q

A pregnant woman reports a freely moveable, deep red tissue mass, which extends from the labial gingiva between maxillary right premolars. The surface of the lesion is ulcerated and bleeds easily. A histologic analysis indicates the lesion is composed of connective tissue, capillaries and inflammatory cells. What best defines the lesion?

A

Pyogenic Granuloma

52
Q

A patients buccal mucosa exhibits tiny white nodules connected by slender raised lines in a lace-like pattern. This finding is a clinical manifestation of what?

A

Lichen Planus

53
Q

The parents of a 7-year-old are concerned by the development of a soft, blue, vesicle-like swelling on the gingiva where tooth #8 is expected to erupt. No significant radiographic findings exist other than the partial eruption of tooth #8. What is the course of action recommended?

A

No treatment is required; the cyst will dissipate naturally.

54
Q

What best describes the etiology of pemphigus vulgaris?

A

Autoimmune response

55
Q

T/F: The most common tumor of the salivary glands is ranula. A ranula is clinically found on the floor of the mouth.

A

False, True

56
Q

During pregnancy, when do most embryonic cleft malformations occur?

A

First Trimester

57
Q

Where is chronic atrophic candidiasis most likely found?

A

Palate

58
Q

What best explains the phenomenon of referred pain?

A

Convergence of sensory nerve impulses

HESI Practice Test (3 decks)

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