Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Science for Medicine summary > Science for Medicine summary > Flashcards

Science for Medicine summary Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What is metabolism?

A

The chemical processes in a living organism that allow food to be used for tissue growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What two major reaction types does metabolism consist of?

A

Summative/Anabolic

Degradative/Catabolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What reactions occur with a positive ∆G value and are not spontaneous?

A

Anabolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What reactions occur with a negative ∆G value and are spontaneous?

A

Catabolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is ∆G?

A

Change in free energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a metabolic intermediate?

A

A molecule which is the precursor or metabolite of a biologically significant molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Name a functional group that is polar and soluble?

A 
Hydroxyl
Carboxyl
Carbonyl
Amine
Phosphate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Name a biomolecule in which the carboxyl functional group is found

A

Amino acids
Proteins
Fatty acids
Acetic acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is meant by Hydrophobic?

A

Non-polar molecules that do not interact with water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is meant by Hydrophilic

A

Polar molecules that interact with water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is an amphipathic molecule?

A

A molecule which contains both hydrophobic and hydrophilic parts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Give an example of an amphipathic molecule

A

Phospholipids

Hydrophobic fatty acid tails, hydrophilic phosphate head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the major difference between eukaryotes and prokaryotes?

A

Eukaryotes contain a nucleus and membrane bound organelles whereas prokaryotes contain no membrane bound nucleus or organelles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does the nucleus contain?

A

DNA, nucleoprotein and some RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where is the site of ribosomal RNA synthesis and ribosomal assembly?

A

Nucleoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the two types of Endoplasmic Reticulum?

A

Rough

Smooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which type of Endoplasmic Reticulum is responsible for lipid biosynthesis and membrane synthesis and repair?

A

Smooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What type of Endoplasmic Reticulum synthesises, packages and secretes proteins?

A

Rough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What organelles are known as the “protein factories” of the cell?

A

Ribosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What shape are mitochondria?

A

Cigar shaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the folded inner membrane of a mitochondrion known as?

A

Cristae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are Lysosomes?

A

Cellular stomachs

They contain amorphous granular materials which help break down bacteria and debris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The packaging and processing of secretory proteins, as well as the synthesis of complex polysaccharides, occurs in what organelle?

A

Golgi apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Peroxisomes contain catalases and oxidases, what function do these have?

A

Catalases regulate hydrogen peroxide concentration

Oxidases are involved in the ß-oxidation of long chain fatty acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the name given to the irregular structure formed by a single circular chromosome in prokaryotes?

A

Nucleoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the main function of fimbriae?

A

Adherance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the main function of flagella?

A

Movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What does the nuclear membrane/envelope consist of?

A

A double lipid bilayer - inner nuclear membrane and outer nuclear membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What molecules are peptide bonds usually formed between?

A

Amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A peptide bond is formed in a reaction between what two functional groups?

A

Carboxyl and amino

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The formation of a peptide bond is what kind of reaction?

A

Condensation / dehydration synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is released in the formation of a peptide bond?

A

A water molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Disulphide bridges are formed between cysteine residues (thiol group) by what process?

A

Oxidative folding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The formation of disulphide bridges is involved in the formation of what protein structure?

A

Tertiary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Sickle cell anaemia is caused by a change in how many nucleotides?

A

One

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What kind of mutation occurs in sickle cell anaemia?

A

Nucleotide Substitution - A is substituted with T, changing codon sequence for amino acid 6 from GAG to GTG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Haemoglobin in a person with sickle cell anaemia is referred to as what?

A

HbS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is covalent bonding?

A

Sharing of electron pairs between two non-metal atoms

Stable balance of attractive and repulsive forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is glucose converted to in the liver?

A

Glycogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Is glycogen formed directly from glucose?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What does Glycogenin do in the conversion of glucose to glycogen?

A

Covalently binds glucose from UDP-glucose to form chains of approximately 8 sub units

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What extends chains until they are broken by glycogen branching enzyme?

A

Glycogen synthase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the net gain of ATP per glycolysis cycle?

A

2 ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What phases does glycolysis consist of?

A

Preparatory Phase

Payoff Phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Do the reversible reactions in glycolysis have a positive or negative ∆G value?

A

Positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

In the preparatory phase: from 1 molecule of glucose, 2 molecules of what are produced to enter the payoff phase?

A

G-3-P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

There are 2 irreversible reactions in the preparatory phase, what kind of reactions are they?

A

Phosphorylation

phosphorylation of glucose, phosphorylation of F-6-P to F-1,6-bisP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What catalyst is involved in the conversion of triose sugars in reaction 5 of the preparatory phase?

A

Triose phosphate isomerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How many molecules of ATP are used in the preparatory phase per glycolysis cycle?

A

2 ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What steps of the payoff phase are energy coupled reactions?

A

Steps 6 and 7

oxidation of G-3-P to 1,3-bisPG and phosphate transfer from 1,3-bisPG to ADP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How many molecules of NADH are produced in the oxidation of G-3-P to 1,3-bisPG?
(if you take into account that reactants are doubled from this step of glycolysis)

A

2 NADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What molecule is produced in the dehydration of 2-PG to PEP?

A

H2O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

During what reactions of the payoff phase are ATP molecules produced?

A

Step 7 - phosphate transfer from 1,3-bisP to ADP, 2 ATPs produced
Step 10 - Transfer of phosphate from PEP to ADP, 2 ATPs produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What reactions in the payoff phase are highly exergonic so spontaneous?

A

Step 7 - phosphate transfer from 1,3-bisP to ADP, 2 ATPs produced
Step 10 - Transfer of phosphate from PEP to ADP, 2 ATPs produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Reactants are doubled from what step in glycolysis?

A

Step 6 - oxidation of G-3-P to 1,3-bisP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What molecule needs to be regenerated in order for glycolysis to occur?

A

NAD+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

In what step of glycolysis is pyruvate produced?

A

Step 10 - transfer of phosphate from PEP to ADP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What kind of reaction is the process of NAD+ being reduced and NADH being oxidised?

A

Redox balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the fate of pyruvate produced in glycolysis under aerobic conditions in animal cells?

A

Converted into Acetyl CoA which enters the citric acid cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What kind of cells do not rely solely on glucose as an energy source (under normal conditions i.e. not during starvation) and what do they use instead?

A

Muscle cells
Fatty acids
(specifically oxidative type 1 muscle fibre)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

For every citric acid cycle how many CO2 molecules are produced?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What 3 other molecules are produced in the citric acid cycle (not CO2)?

A

3 NADH
1 FADH2
1 GTP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Where in a cell does glycolysis occur?

A

Cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is oxidative phosphorylation and where does it occur?

A

Mechanism for ATP synthesis

Occurs in mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Where in a cell does fatty acid synthesis occur?

A

Cytosol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The Krebs cycle and citric acid cycle occur where?

A

Mitochondrial matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Where in a cell does the pentose-phosphate pathway occur?

A

Cytosol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The electron transport chain is the final stage in what?

A

Respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Where does the electron transport chain take place and how many proteins in the membrane does it involve?

A

Mitochondrial matrix and intramembrous space

4 proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What two proteins in the electron transport chain reduce a molecule and pass the electrons to Ubiquinone to form Ubiquinol?

A

NADH-Q Oxidoreductase - reduces NADH

Succinate Q Reductase - reduces FADH2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Where does Q Cytochrome C Oxidoreductase pump H+ ions?

A

Into the intramembrous space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What does Cytochrome C Oxidase do?

A

Takes electrons from cytochrome C and passes them to oxygen

Pumps protons into intramembrous space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What does the pumping of protons in the electron transport chain set up?

A

A proton gradient across the inner membrane of the mitochondrion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Proton motive force does what?

A

Allows proton gradient to work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What does ATP-synthase do with the energy released as the protons pass through the membrane protein and what is this system known as?

A

Use it to add ADP + Pi to form ATP

Binding change mechanism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are the purposes of lipids?

A 
Stored form of energy 
Structural component of cell membranes 
Needed as enzyme cofactors 
Used in hormones 
Used for the synthesis of vitamins A, D, E and K
Used as a signalling molecule
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are the 3 major lipid classes?

A

Fatty acids
Triglycerides
Phospholipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are Linoleic acid and A-Linoleic acid examples of?

A

Essential fatty acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

How must essential fatty be obtained by humans?

A

From plants in our diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Give an example of a good fat

A

Plant oils e.g. sunflower oil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What are bad fats high in?

A

Saturated fatty acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Trans fatty acids are found in what?

A

(Really) bad fats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What class of lipids coalesce into droplets in water?

A

Triglycerides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What are phospholipids composed of?

A

Glycerol + 2 fatty acids + phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What class of lipids are amphipathic?

A

Phospholipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What class of lipids are a major component of adipose tissue?

A

Triglycerides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What are the main dietary lipids?

A

Triglycerols

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Triglycerols are digested in the small intestine through the use of what?

A

Pancreatic enzymes
Emulsification by bile salts
Peristalsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Why is homeostasis important?

A

The body needs the internal environment (extracellular fluid) to be maintained in a state compatible with cell survival

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What proportion of the extracellular fluid is interstitial fluid?

A

80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What proportion of the extracellular fluid is plasma?

A

20%

92
Q

What is negative feedback control?

A

Detection of change in an internal factor by receptors
Change fed to integrating centre and compared to reference level
If there is a difference, signal is sent to an effector and the change is negated

93
Q

The magnitude of an error signal is proportional to what?

A

Size of the response and the deviation

94
Q

The skin detecting minor changes in temperature before core temperature is affected is an example of what kind of control?

A

Feed-forward control

changes anticipated before significant changes occur

95
Q

What proportion of total body water is intracellular fluid?

A

2/3

96
Q

What is tonicity?

A

The relative concentration of two solutions separated by a semi-permeable membrane that determine the direction and extent of diffusion

97
Q

What is osmolarity?

A

The measure of solute concentration i.e. number of osmoles of solute per litre of solution

98
Q

What is osmolality?

A

The measure of osmoles of solute per kilogram of solvent

99
Q

If the ECF has a higher osmolarity than the ICF, will the solution be hypertonic or hypotonic?

A

Hypertonic

100
Q

What would happen to cells in a hypertonic solution?

A

The cells will shrink as water leaves via osmosis

101
Q

If the ECF has a lower osmolarity than the ICF, will the solution be hypertonic or hypotonic?

A

Hypotonic

102
Q

What would happen to cells in a hypotonic solution?

A

They would swell (and burst)

103
Q

What kind of solution has an equal number of penetrating and non-penetrating solutes on either side of the membrane?

A

Isosmotic

104
Q

What kind of solution has an equal number of non-penetrating solutes on either side of the membrane?

A

Isotonic

105
Q

What is endocytosis?

A

Invagination of membrane to form a vesicle around a target substance

106
Q

What process involves the fusion of a vesicle membrane with the plasma membrane followed by the expulsion of the vesicle contents?

A

Exocytosis

107
Q

The sodium-potassium pump does what?

A

Pumps 2 K+ into the cell, pumps 3 Na+ out of the cell

108
Q

What is the resting membrane potential and why is it this value rather than the theoretical value?

A

-70mV

Due to the permeability of the membrane to other ions and leaky ion channels

109
Q

What is the axon hillock?

A

Specialised part of the soma that connects to axon

Last site in soma where the membrane potentials propagated from synaptic inputs are summated before transmission to axon

110
Q

What are the main cells responsible for the functions of the nervous system?

A

Neurones

111
Q

Why are dendrites important?

A

They are an important route for information from other neurones

112
Q

The information for making an action potential is collected where?

A

Initial segment

113
Q

Where is the neurotransmitter released from?

A

Axon Terminal

114
Q

Are action potentials graded or all or nothing?

A

All or nothing

115
Q

What kind of potentials are self-propagating?

A

Action potentials

116
Q

When the threshold for firing an action potential is reached, voltage gated Na+ channels open and Na+ rushes in causing what?

A

Huge depolarisation of the neuron

117
Q

Graded potentials transmit over what distances?

A

Short

118
Q

Are inhibitory graded potentials hyperpolarising or depolarising?

A

Hyperpolarising

119
Q

Voltage gated channels change their conformation when

A

Changes in electrical potential act on charged regions of the channel proteins

120
Q

Acetylcholine receptors are an example of what kind of gated channel?

A

Ligand gated

121
Q

What are the 3 types of neurones?

A

Afferent (sensory)
Interneurones
Efferent (motor)

122
Q

What neurones carry a signal to effector cells/tissue?

A

Efferent (motor)

123
Q

Larger axons allow

A

Faster transmission

124
Q

The normal effect of a receptor is mimicked by

A

Agonists

125
Q

The normal action of a receptor is blocked by

A

Antagonists

126
Q

As agonist concentration increases, it’s effect

A

Increases

127
Q

What are the largest family of membrane receptors?

A

G protein coupled receptors

128
Q

G protein coupled receptors coupled to Adenylyl Cyclase can increase/decrease the concentration of cAMP and do what to PKA?

A

Activate/inhibit

129
Q

What is albumin?

A

The main protein of human blood plasma

130
Q

What is the main function of albumin?

A

To regulate colloidal osmotic pressure of blood

131
Q

What does epithelial tissue cover and separate?

A

Covers surfaces and separates body compartments

132
Q

Does epithelial tissue have contact inhibition?

A

No

133
Q

Cell-cell junctions contain desmosomes to provide

A

Firm anchorage

134
Q

What do gap junctions allow?

A

Cell-cell communication

135
Q

Hemidesmosomes are found in what junctions?

A

Cell-ECM

136
Q

Give an example of simple squamous epithelium

A

Alveoli

Capillaries

137
Q

Give an example of simple cuboidal epithelium

A

Lining of nephrons

138
Q

Give an example of simple columnar epithelium

A

Lining of the digestive tract

139
Q

Give an example of stratified squamous epithelium

A

Epidermis

140
Q

Give an example of stratified cuboidal epithelium

A

Ducts of sweat glands

141
Q

Give an example of stratified columnar epithelium

A

Pharynx

142
Q

What simple epithelium type is thin to allow easy diffusion?

A

Squamous

143
Q

What epithelium type moves mucus when ciliated?

A

Simple columnar

144
Q

What type(s) of squamous epithelium provide protection

A

Cuboidal

Columnar (also secretion)

145
Q

Epithelial cells in the kidneys are arranged into what?

A

Nephrons

146
Q

What are glands?

A

Collections of multi or single cellular secretory epithelial cells

147
Q

What do endocrine glands do

A

Secrete into blood

148
Q

What do exocrine glands do

A

Secrete to surface

149
Q

Sweat glands are an example of what type of gland?

A

Exocrine

150
Q

What system produces a “fight or flight” response when activated?

A

Sympathetic

151
Q

Which system causes an increase in gut motility when activated?

A

Parasympathetic

152
Q

Stored energy is released at the activation of what system?

A

Sympathetic

153
Q

Ganglia are usually paravertebral in what system?

A

Sympathetic

154
Q

What is divergence?

A

When one preganglionic fibre activates lots of post ganglionic fibres

155
Q

Noradrenaline acts in what system on what receptors?

A

Sympathetic system

Alpha or Beta

156
Q

Acetylcholine acts on what receptors in the parasympathetic system?

A

Muscarinic

157
Q

The skull, vertebral column and ribs are parts of what skeleton?

A

Axial

158
Q

The shoulder girdle and pelvis are parts of what skeleton?

A

Appendicular

159
Q

What is the function of Osteoclasts?

A

Bone resorbing cells - absorb any area of damaged bone

160
Q

What is the function of Osteoblasts?

A

Laying down new bone

161
Q

What is the function of Osteocytes?

A

To act as sensors of mechanical pressure and damage

162
Q

What movement does the anterior compartment of the upper arm allow?

A

Flexion of elbow joint

163
Q

What compartment of the arm allows the extension of the elbow joint?

A

Posterior

164
Q

What is the major blood supply to the arm?

A

Brachial artery

165
Q

What plexus innervates the arm?

A

Brachial plexus

166
Q

The anterior compartment of the forearm is responsible for what movement(s)?

A

Flexion

Pronation

167
Q

The compartment allowing extension and supination of the arm is what?

A

Posterior compartment of forearm

168
Q

What nerve supplies all extensor muscles in the upper limb?

A

Radial nerve

169
Q

What compartment of the thigh are the hamstrings?

A

Posterior

170
Q

What movement are the hamstrings responsible for?

A

Flexion of knee

171
Q

What nerve supplies the anterior compartment of the thigh?

A

Femoral nerve

172
Q

The sciatic nerve supplies what thigh compartment?

A

Posterior

173
Q

Obturator nerve supplies what thigh compartment?

A

Medial

174
Q

What thigh compartment is responsible for adduction?

A

Medial

175
Q

What lower leg compartment everts the foot?

A

Lateral

176
Q

The deep fibular nerve supplies what lower leg compartment?

A

Anterior

177
Q

Ankle is flexed and foot is inverted by what compartment?

A

Posterior compartment of lower leg

178
Q

What movements occur at the subtalar and transverse talar joints?

A

Inversion and eversion of foot

179
Q

What kind of joints are present at the elbows and knees?

A

Synovial hinge

180
Q

What kind of joints are present at the hips and shoulders?

A

Synovial ball and socket

181
Q

What plexus is composed of fibres from vertebral levels L1-S5?

A

Lumbosacral

182
Q

If a ventral rami is damaged, what function will be lost?

A

Sensory and motor, as it is a mixed nerve

183
Q

If a nerve is cut at the motor ventral root, what function will be lost?

A

Motor

184
Q

Where is the T4 dermatome?

A

Skin over nipples

185
Q

Where is the T10 dermatome?

A

Skin over umbilicus

186
Q

What are the functions of the vertebral column?

A

Weight bearing
Protection
Permits movement
Site of muscle attachments

187
Q

What kind of joints are between vertebrae and intervertebral discs?

A

Secondary cartilaginous

188
Q

What is the C2 vertebra commonly known as?

A

Axis

189
Q

The vertebra prominens is at what vertebral level?

A

C7

190
Q

T7 vertebra is the

A

Inferior tip of scapula

191
Q

Superior aspect of iliac crest is at what vertebral level?

A

L4

192
Q

The posterior superior iliac spine is at what vertebral level?

A

S2

193
Q

How many cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral and coccygeal vertebrae are there?

A 
C - 7
T - 12
L - 5
S - 5
Cc - 3-5
194
Q

The head of the rib articulates with what?

A

Facet on the vertebral body

195
Q

The tubercle of the rib articulates with what?

A

The transverse process facet of vertebrae

196
Q

What kind of joint is found at the atlantoaxial joint?

A

Synovial pivot

197
Q

What kind of joint is found at the antlanto-occipital joint?

A

Synovial ellipsoid

198
Q

What movement occurs at the atlanto-occipital joint?

A

Flexion
Extension
Lateral flexion

199
Q

What are the main functions of the lymph system?

A

Tissue drainage

Return of plasma proteins

200
Q

Lymph fluid consists mainly of

A

Fluid and plasma proteins (but it gains lymphocytes as it flows through lymphatic capillaries)

201
Q

What type of lymphatic drainage follows arteries?

A

Deep

202
Q

Inguinal lymph nodes in and around the femoral triangle at the base of the lower limb are an example of what kind of lymph nodes?

A

Superficial

203
Q

What two ducts does lymph fluid drain to?

A

Right lymphatic duct

Thoracic duct

204
Q

The lymphatic ducts empty into the venous system at

A

The jugular/subclavian junction

205
Q

What is aetiology?

A

Cause of disease

206
Q

What is pathogenesis?

A

How a disease develops

207
Q

What is prognosis?

A

Prediction of probable outcome

208
Q

What are the functions of the cytoskeleton?

A

Strength
Support
Allows cell motility

209
Q

Abnormal bone marrow/blood can lead to

A

Leukaemia

210
Q

What layers does the skin consist of?

A

Epidermis (epithelia)
Dermis (connective tissue)
Hypodermis (fat)

211
Q

In what molecules in the body is nitrogen mainly found?

A

Amino acids
Ammonia
Urea

212
Q

What is the only amino acid that can obtain nitrogen from ammonia?

A

Glutamate

213
Q

Other amino acids obtain nitrogen from pre-existing amino acids through what reactions?

A

Transaminase

214
Q

Nitrogen is transferred using

A

Glutamine and alanine

215
Q

Nitrogen transferred from catabolised protein in muscle cells is transported back to the liver as alanine where it is converted back to glucose, what enzymes does this process involve?

A

Transferase enzymes

216
Q

Why is nitrogen transferred as glutamine and alanine rather than glutamate?

A

Glutamate has a negative charge so
- would require a cation
- won’t pass readily through cell membranes
Glutamine and alanine have no charge

217
Q

What is urea formed from?

A

Ammonia

218
Q

Ammonia is formed through?

A

Oxidative deamination (where glutamate loses nitrogen in the form of ammonia

219
Q

Ammonia is fed into what cycle?

A

The urea cycle, where it is converted to urea and excreted

220
Q

What is the most common urea cycle disorder?

A

Ornithine transcarbamylase (OTC) deficiency

221
Q

What kind of inheritance is involved in the most common urea cycle disorder?

A

X-linked

222
Q

What is Phenylketonuria?

A

An absence or deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH)

223
Q

What kind of disease is PKU?

A

Autosomal recessive

224
Q

If untreated, what will PKU lead to by 6 months of age?

A

Delayed mental development and neurological features

225
Q

How is PKU diagnosed?

A

Neonatal screening offered in UK, if screening test is positive, quantitative amino acid analysis is carried out to confirm diagnosis

Science for Medicine summary (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions