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TEAS PRACTICE > Science > Flashcards

Science Flashcards

1
Q

Obtaining energy from food and reproduction

A

Organelle’s Task

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2
Q

Cells with the same function

A

Tissues

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3
Q

Carry out a single task

A

Organs

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4
Q

Responsible for oxygenating blood

A

Lungs

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5
Q

Filtering out wastes

A

Kidneys

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6
Q

Cell parts that function within a cell

A

Organelles

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7
Q

An organelle which carries out protein synthesis

A

Ribosome

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8
Q

Modified and packages protein secreted from a cell

A

Golgi apparatus

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9
Q

Converts energy present in chemical bonds of food accessible to cell

A

Mitochondria

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10
Q

Stores and processes instructions contained in DNA tells cell what it’s function is

A

Nucleus

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11
Q

Smallest living unit of life

A

Cells

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12
Q

Processes that include growth, metabolism, replication, protein synthesis, and movement

A

Cellular functions

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13
Q

Provide framework

Protects organs

A

Bone

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14
Q

Transport oxygen from atmosphere into cells and moving carbon dioxide in other directions

A

Respiratory system

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15
Q

Process of aerating lungs

A

Ventilation

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16
Q

Where air enters in the body?

A

Nasal openings, mouth

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17
Q

A large tube reinforced by cartilage rings which carry air to the bronchi

A

Trachea

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18
Q

Thin walled structures that look like clusters of grapes and are the sites of gas exchange

A

Alveoli

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19
Q

Serves as the medium for gas exchange and keep the lungs from collapsing on itself due to surface tension

A

Aqueous surfactant

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20
Q

Which side of the body is the heart on?

A

Left

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21
Q

Which lung is larger?

A

Right lung

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22
Q

The segments in the lungs

A

Lobes

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23
Q

How does gas exchange occur in the lungs?

A

By diffusion- a passive transport mechanism

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24
Q

Directly proportional to the surface area involved and the concentration gradient, and is inversely proportional to the distance between the two solutions

A

Rate of diffusion

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25
Q

Name the oxygen process

A

Oxygen [lungs] — blood— carbon dioxide[blood]— lungs— lungs exhale back into the atmosphere

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26
Q

What contract simultaneously to increase the volume of the lungs, decreasing pressure in the lungs? ( DRAWING IN AIR )

A

Diaphragm and intercostal muscles

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27
Q

Inhalation of air and expulsion of air

A

Inspiration and Expiration

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28
Q

The small amount of stale that remains trapped in alveoli after expiration and mixes with fresh air brought in through inspiration

A

Residual capacity

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29
Q

Controls breathing and respiration through monitoring carbon dioxide levels and blood pH

A

Medulla oblongata

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30
Q

Tiny air sacs in the lungs where exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide take place

A

Alveoli

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31
Q

A lung disease characterized by inflamed narrowed airways and difficulty breathing

A

Asthma

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32
Q

The main passageways directly attached to the lungs

A

Bronchi

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33
Q

Small passages in the lungs that connect bronchi to alveoli

A

Bronchioles

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34
Q

Genetic disorder that affects the lungs and other organs characterized by difficulty breathing coughing up sputum and lung infections

A

Cystic fibrosis

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35
Q

The passage of fluid to an organ or a tissue

A

Perfusion

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36
Q

Membrane around the lungs and inside the chest cavity

A

Pleura

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37
Q

Fluid secreted by alveoli and found in the lungs

A

Surfactant

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38
Q

Amount of air breathed in a normal inhalation or exhalation

A

Tidal volume

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39
Q

Windpipe, which connects the larynx to the lungs

A

Trachea

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40
Q

Movement of air in and out of the body via inhalation and exhalation

A

Ventilation

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41
Q

Describes the movement of blood and lymph around the body which permits nutrient distribution, waste removal, communication, and protection

A

Circulatory system

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42
Q

Performs the vital functions of transporting nutrients, wastes, chemical messengers p, and immune molecules

A

Cardiovascular system

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43
Q

Double loop system consisting of arteries, veins, and capillaries that form a network that connect arteries to veins in tissues

A

Closed circulatory system

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44
Q

Circulates and filters interstitial fluid between cells and eventually drains into into the circulatory system

A

Open lymphatic system

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45
Q

Carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs and returns oxygenated blood to the left atrium

A

Pulmonary loop

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46
Q

Carries oxygenated blood from the left ventricle to the body, returning deoxygenated blood to the right atrium

A

Systemic loop

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47
Q

Indicates contraction of heart muscles

A

Systole

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48
Q

Relaxation of heart muscle

A

Diastole

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49
Q

Heart cycle

A

The ventricles contract causing the atrioventricular valves to close making a “lub” sound. The empty ventricles are filled by blood pushed out during atrial systole. At the same time, the semilunar valves in the sorts and the pulmonary arteries close, preventing blood from falling back into the ventricles, making a “dub” sound and completing the “lub-dub” sound of the heart.

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50
Q

Causes the “lub-dub” contractions “pacemaker” that sends out electrical signals.

A

Sinoatrial node

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51
Q

Have thick walls to withstand the pressure of blood pumped by the heart

A

Arteries

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52
Q

Have thinner muscle layer and a large lumen

A

Veins

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53
Q

Contains nutrients, hormones, antibodies, and other immune proteins

A

Blood plasma

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54
Q

Contain hemoglobin and transport oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body

A

RBC’s

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55
Q

WBC’s two main lineages

A

Leukocytes and lymphocytes

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56
Q

Essentially plasma with the RBC’s removed

A

lymph

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57
Q

Blood vessels that deliver blood from the heart to other parts of the body

A

Arteries

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58
Q

Small blood vessels that connect arterioles to venules

A

Capillary

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59
Q

Portion of the cardiac cycle in which the heart refills with blood

A

Diastole

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60
Q

Muscle that pumps blood throughout the body

A

Heart

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61
Q

Protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body

A

Hemoglobin

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62
Q

WBC’s which protect the body against disease

A

Leukocyte

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63
Q

Clear fluid that moves throughout the lymphatic system to fight disease

A

Lymph

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64
Q

Subtype of WBC’s found in lymph

A

Lymphocyte

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65
Q

Pale yellow component of blood that carries red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets throughout the body

A

Plasma

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66
Q

Portion of the cardiac cycle in which the heart expels blood

A

Systole

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67
Q

Blood vessels that carry blood to the heart

A

Vein

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68
Q

Located in the abdominal cavity and is specialized for breaking down food for absorption and distribution to the rest of the body

A

Digestive system (gastrointestinal system)

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69
Q

Absorb the digested nutrients

A

Blood vessels

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70
Q

Under parasympathetic nervous system control

A

Smooth muscle

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71
Q

Where does the gastrointestinal system begin and end

A

Mouth-anus

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72
Q

Increases surface area by breaking it down into smaller pieces after food is ingested

A

Mechanical digestion by chewing and grinding

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73
Q

Lubricates the food

A

Mucus in saliva

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74
Q

Provides amylase and lipase to initiate chemical digestion of starch and lipids

A

Saliva

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75
Q

When food is packaged into a small parcel

A

Bolus

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76
Q

Technical term for swallowing

A

Deglutition

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77
Q

Closes the tracheal opening as the food passes from the pharynx into the esophagus

A

Epiglottis

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78
Q

Moves the bolus down to the stomach through the gastric sphincter, which prevents reflux of food back into the esophagus

A

Peristalsis

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79
Q

Initiates chemical digestion of proteins in the stomach

A

Pepsin

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80
Q

Name the three main secretions of the stomach

A

Pepsinogen (chief cells)
Mucus (goblet cells)
Hydrochloric acid ( parietal cells)

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81
Q

After digestion in the stomach, what is the food now called

A

Chyme

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82
Q

Where does the chyme pass through

A

The pyloric sphincter into the duodenum (first part of the small intestine)

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83
Q

Neutralizes the chyme in pancreatic secretions

A

Bicarbonate

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84
Q

What does the duodenum receive which helps neutralize acid chyme?

A

Alkaline bile from the gall bladder

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85
Q

What else does the duodenum produce?

A

Large number of “brush border” enzymes

Protease, lactase, and other disaccharidases and bicarbonate

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86
Q

What absorb polar digested nutrients into blood, lipids into lacteals as chylomicrons and vitamin B12

A

Villi and microvilli in the small intestine

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87
Q

Allows liver enzymes to deaminate amino acids?

A

Hepatic portal duct

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88
Q

Hepatic portal duct’s other functions

A

Converts ammonia to urea
Metabolize consumed toxins
Store glucose as glycogen

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89
Q

After the liver where does the digested material go after the liver?

A

Cecum-large intestine-colon

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90
Q

Where is the cecum located

A

Located at the junction of the small and large intestines

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91
Q

Absorbs a lot of water and nutrients

A

Small intestine

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92
Q

Absorbs remaining water and salt from digested food

A

Large intestine

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93
Q

What happens to the waste from the small intestine

A

It is exposed to bacterial fermentation in the colon

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94
Q

Where is Vitamin K absorbed ?

A

Large intestine

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95
Q

Whats the last step of the digestive system?

A

Waste accumulates in the rectum and is ejected through the anus

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96
Q

The organ that stores bile

A

Gall bladder

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97
Q

Also known as the Colin, where vitamins and water are absorbed before feces is stored prior to elimination

A

Large intestine

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98
Q

The organ that produces bile, regulates glycogen storage, and performs other bodily functions

A

Liver

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99
Q

Oral cavity at the entry to the alimentary canal

A

Mouth

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100
Q

Gland of the digestive and endocrine systems that produces insulin and secretes pancreatic juices

A

Pancreas

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101
Q

Series Of muscle contractions that move food through the digestive tract

A

Peristalsis

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102
Q

The last section of the large intestine, ending with the anus

A

Rectum

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103
Q

Clear liquid found in the mouth also known as spit

A

Saliva

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104
Q

Part of the GI tract between the stomach and large intestine that include the duodenum,jejunum, and ileum, where digestion and absorption of food occurs

A

Small intestine

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105
Q

Organ between the esophagus and small intestine in which the major portion of digestion occurs

A

Stomach

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106
Q

Name the enzymes and major hormones associated with each of the following:

Mouth 
Stomach
Liver
Pancreas
Small intestine 
Large intestine
A

Mouth- salivary amylase, lipase/NO
Stomach-gastric lipase,pepsin,HCL/ gastrin, ghlerin
Liver- bile/NO
Pancreas-pancreatic juice/ secretin,somatostatin,insulin, glucagon
Small intestine - proteases, lactase, disaccharidases/ cholecystokinin,somatostatin, secretin, motilin
Large intestine -NO/NO

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107
Q

Carbohydrate-digesting enzyme produced by salivary glands

A

Salivary amylase

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108
Q

Zymogen form of protease produced by the stomach

A

Pepsinogen

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109
Q

Cells that produce acid in the stomach

A

Parietal cells

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110
Q

Valve through which chyme passes from stomach to duodenum

A

Pyloric sphincter

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111
Q

Hormone produced by stomach that induces stomach secretions

A

Gastrin

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112
Q

Hormone that induces bile and pancreatic juice secretion

A

Cholecystokinin

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113
Q

Second section of small intestine where majority of absorption occurs

A

Jejunum

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114
Q

Blood vessels that carries nutrients directly from small intestine to liver

A

Hepatic portal vein

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115
Q

Substance mainly absorbed from waste in large intestine

A

Water

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116
Q

Region of large intestine in which feces is stored before elimination

A

Rectum

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117
Q

Why is liver failure a critical health emergency

A

Because the liver filters digestion products and produces urea as waste

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118
Q

Which type of molecules make up the cytoskeleton?

A

Microtubules,microfilaments, intermediate filaments

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119
Q

What are the functions of the cytoskeleton molecules?

A

Cell shape, support, and movement

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120
Q

Responsible for receiving, modifying and transporting proteins for secretions from the cell

A

Golgi apparatus

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121
Q

Lacks ribosomes for proteins synthesis

A

Smooth ER

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122
Q

Smooth ERs functions

A

Lipid metabolism, storage of calcium ions, and detoxification of toxins

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123
Q

Forms the dynamic outer perimeter of cells, delineating the inside and outside of the cell

A

Cell membrane

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124
Q

Cell membranes functions

A

Cellular recognition and molecule transportation

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125
Q

Mouth below the nose

A

Inferior

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126
Q

Patella to the tibia

A

Superior

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127
Q

Skin to muscles

A

Superficial

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128
Q

Site of synthesis of RBCs in the adult

A

Bone marrow

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129
Q

Involved in the breakdown of RBCs

A

Liver and spleen

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130
Q

Filters for the lymphatic system and are not involved in RBC production

A

Lymph nodes

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131
Q

Senses the pH when carbon dioxide is dissolved in blood to produce H+ and HCO3- ions, decreasing pH and increasing acidity

A

Medulla oblongata

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132
Q

What happens when you reduce the residual volume of the lungs?

A

A higher inspiratory volume and oxygen gradient

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133
Q

Walking pneumonia

A

Mycoplasma infection

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134
Q

Bacteria lacking cell walls

Infect upper and lower respiratory tract cells and replicate within themselves

A

Mycoplasma

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135
Q

Usually caused by an inherited gene mutation in the chloride transporter in the lung; thick mucus accumulates in the lung, causing problems with ventilation and promotions secondary infections

A

Cystic fibrosis

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136
Q

Caused by one of several kinds of RNA containing viruses in the corona virus groups; only disease caused by a virus in the list above.

A

Influenza

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137
Q

Causes tuberculosis which causes lesions in lung tissue =. Bacteria wall themselves inside cavities inside the lung to protect from immune attack.

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis

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138
Q

A fungal disease. The prefix myco- is used in relation to fungus and is applicable to a variety of types of fungi infecting a variety of tissue including lungs

A

Mycosis

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139
Q

Generate electricity in the sinoatrial node and conduct the impulse through the heart to cause muscle contraction

A

Cardiac cells

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140
Q

Contract to pump blood around the body

A

Cardiac cells

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141
Q

Increase the body’s recognition of the vaccine antigen, and antibodies should rise following immunization

A

Vaccines

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142
Q

The ‘pacemaker’ situated in the top part of the right atrium

A

Sinoatrial node

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143
Q

Carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart

A

Pulmonary vein

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144
Q

Action that causes food to move into the digestive system and this increases after food enters the digestive system compared to when there is no food in the digestive system

A

Peristalsis

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145
Q

Usually due to activation of the sympathetic circuit

A

Pulse rate

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146
Q

Controls the digestive system

A

Parasympathetic circuit

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147
Q

Required for digestion of food

A

Enzymes

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148
Q

Converts ammonia to urea

A

Liver

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149
Q

Integrates muscles and nerves; affects every part of the body and is vital in controlling involuntary and voluntary movement.

A

Neuromuscular system

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150
Q

Long bundles of axons that transmit signals from the CNS

A

Nerves

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151
Q

Send and receive signals in the neuromuscular system

A

Nerves

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152
Q

Send messages to the central nervous system

A

Sensory (afferent)

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153
Q

Send messages out to the muscles

A

Motor (efferent)

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154
Q

Controls involuntary actions involving cardiac and smooth muscle, such as heart rhythm, digestion, and breathing

A

Autonomic (involuntary)

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155
Q

Make skeletal muscles do a deliberate action such as walking, throwing, or typing

A

Voluntary nerve signals

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156
Q

Contain long myofibrils made of sarcomere units

A

Muscles

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157
Q

Thin filaments

A

Actin

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158
Q

Thick filaments

A

Myosin

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159
Q

How do skeletal muscles work?

A

The nervous system sends a signal to a muscle, actin and myosin proteins in the muscle slide past each other, creating either a contraction or a relaxation of the muscle

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160
Q

What allows muscles to receive a signal and respond with the appropriate magnitude and movement.

A

Receptors

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161
Q

A nerve fiber that carries a nerve impulse away from the neuron cell body

A

Axon

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162
Q

Fibrous tissue that produces force and motion to move the body or produce movement in parts of the body

A

Muscle

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163
Q

A bundle of nerve fibers that transmits electrical impulses toward and away from the brain and spinal cord

A

Nerve

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164
Q

Release of tension in a muscle

A

Relaxation

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165
Q

The structure that allows neurons to pass signals to other neurons, muscles, or glands

A

Synapse

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166
Q

How signals move through nerve cells

A

Electrical

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167
Q

Type of energy not associated with the synapse

A

Kinetic and potential

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168
Q

Responsible for storing energy and protecting nerve cells

A

Fat

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169
Q

Serve as an energy source

A

Carbohydrates

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170
Q

Make up DNA

A

Nucleic acid

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171
Q

Generates male gametes (sperm)

A

Male reproductive system

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172
Q

Name the major components of the male reproductive system

A

Penis, vas deferens, urethra, prostate, seminal vesicles, testis and scrotum

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173
Q

Houses the testes away from the body to lower their temperature during sperm reproduction

A

Scrotum

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174
Q

Produce the fluids necessary for lubricating and nourishing the sperm

A

Prostate and seminal vesicles

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175
Q

Form the conduit through which sperm is ejected

A

Vas deferens

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176
Q

The passage that forms the lower part of the uterus

A

Cervix

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177
Q

Female sex hormones

A

Estrogen

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178
Q

Tubes that carry eggs from the ovaries to the uterus

A

Fallopian tubes

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179
Q

Organ in which eggs are produced for reproduction

A

Ovary

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180
Q

Organ for elimination of urine and sperm from the male body

A

Penis

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181
Q

The gland in males that controls the release of urine and secretes a part of semen that enhances motility and fertility of sperm

A

Prostate

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182
Q

The pouch of skin that contains the testicles

A

Scrotum

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183
Q

The organs that produce sperm; also called testes

A

Testicles

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184
Q

The hormone that stimulates male secondary sexual characteristics

A

Testosterone

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185
Q

The tube that connects the bladder to the exterior of the body

A

Urethra

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186
Q

The womb

A

Uterus

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187
Q

The tube that connects the external genitals to the cervix

A

Vagina

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188
Q

The duct in which sperm moves from a testicle to the urethra

A

Vas deferens

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189
Q

Generates female gametes (eggs) and incubates the fetus during pregnancy

A

Female reproductive system

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190
Q

The female reproductive system parts

A

Ovaries, Fallopian tubes, uterus, cervix

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191
Q

Opening to the uterus

A

Cervix

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192
Q

What matures and releases an egg that then travels down the Fallopian tubes to the uterus

A

Graafian follicle

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193
Q

What normally occurs in the Fallopian tubes

A

Fertilization

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194
Q

What happens after the Fallopian tubes?

A

The fertilized egg embeds itself in the uterine wall and produces placenta that allows the fetus and parent blood supplies to network.

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195
Q

Nourishes the fetus and removes wastes

A

Placenta

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196
Q

Part of the endocrine system and allow for cell-to-cell communication

A

Hormones

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197
Q

What is produced from the ovaries?

A

Estrogen

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198
Q

What causes the egg to mature in the ovary’s Graafian follicle and the uterine endometrium to thicken

A

Estrogen

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199
Q

Causes the developing egg to be release?

A

A surge of LH

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200
Q

After the egg is released what is the empty Graafian follicle called?

A

Corpus luteum

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201
Q

What does the corpus luteum release?

A

Large amounts of progesterone to prepare the endometrium for implantation of the fertilized egg

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202
Q

What happens if implantation does not occur?

A

The uterine lining sheds

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203
Q

Cycle of maturation and shedding of endometrium

A

Menstrual cycle

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204
Q

Because testosterone production is not cyclical what happens to the sperm?

A

Sperm are constantly produced and matured

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205
Q

Help control secondary sexual characteristics, such as production of mammary glands, axial and facial hair, fat deposition patterns, and muscle growth

A

Male and female hormones

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206
Q

Responsible for delivering sperm

A

Penis

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207
Q

Responsible for creating fluid to transfer the sperm

A

Prostate

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208
Q

Responsible for transferring sperm

A

Vas deferens

209
Q

Connects the uterus and opening of the body

A

Vagina

210
Q

Opening to the uterus from the vagina

A

Cervix

211
Q

Responsible for transferring sperm

A

Vas deferens

212
Q

Produce sperm

A

Testicles

213
Q

Incubates fetuses

A

Uterus

214
Q

Holds the testicles

A

Scrotum

215
Q

Where is estrogen primarily made

A

Ovaries

216
Q

Contains organs and glands that are vital to protecting the body and regulating temperature

A

Integumentary system

217
Q

Refers to the largest organ; the skin

A

Integumentary

218
Q

Consists of skin, hair, and nails, as well as the sebaceous, sudoriferous, and ceruminous glands

A

Integumentary systems

219
Q

Important organ in maintaining homeostasis and providing a waterproof barrier between the inside of the body and the external environment

A

Skin

220
Q

Water, sodium, chloride, and magnesium,

A

Sudoriferous glands

221
Q

Can contain trace amounts of urea, lactic acid, and alcohol

A

Sweat

222
Q

Allows for interaction between the body and the environment

A

Skin

223
Q

Contains sensory nerve endings that allow the body to detect touch, change in temperature, and pain

A

Skin

224
Q

Produces vitamin D when ultraviolet light hits the skin

A

Skin

225
Q

Plays a vital role in thermoregulation

A

Integumentary system

226
Q

What happens when the body becomes too warm?

A

Sweat is produced by the sebaceous glands

227
Q

The middle layer of the skin

A

Dermis

228
Q

Outer layer of the skin

A

Epidermis

229
Q

Elimination of metabolic waste from the body

A

Excretion

230
Q

Under the dermis

A

Subcutaneous

231
Q

Which of the following mechanisms is used when the body becomes on cold?

A

Blood vessel constriction

232
Q

Set of organs that secrete hormones directly into the circulatory system

A

Endocrine system

233
Q

Regulate many of the patterns in the human body

A

Endocrine system

234
Q

Send hormones through the blood to other organs and tissues in the body to control the function of that organ

A

Pineal, hypothalamus, pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid, thymus,adrenal,pancreas, ovaries or testes

235
Q

Releases insulin which signals cells to uptake sugar

A

Pancreas

236
Q

A gland above the kidney that produces hormones to regulate heart rate, blood pressure, and other functions

A

Adrenal

237
Q

Chemical messenger produced by a gland and transported by the bloodstream that regulates specific processes in the body

A

Hormone

238
Q

An endocrine gland in the neck that produces parathyroid hormone

A

Parathyroid

239
Q

A small gland near the center of the brain that secretes melatonin

A

Pineal gland

240
Q

The endocrine gland at the base of the brain that controls growth and development

A

Pituitary

241
Q

The lymphoid organ that produces T-cells

A

Thymus

242
Q

Gland in the neck that secretes hormones that regulate growth =, development, and metabolic rate

A

Thyroid gland

243
Q

Regulate blood production, appetite, reproduction, brain function, sleep cycle, salt and water homeo stasis, growth, sexual development, and response to stress and injury

A

Endocrine system

244
Q

Released acutely in response to stress and their actions are short lived

A

Epinephrine

245
Q

Where do the nervous and endocrine systems integrate?

A

Hypothalamus

246
Q

Receives signals from the sensory system and uses electrical impulses to send signals to the hypothalamus to activate pituitary

A

Nervous system

247
Q

A necessary function for salt and water homeostasis and getting rid of wastes

A

Excretion

248
Q

Composed of the kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra

A

Genitourinary system

249
Q

Manufacture urine which travels through ureters to the urinary bladder where it is stored until excretion through the urethra

A

Kidneys

250
Q

Primarily responsible for filtering the blood, creating urine, stabilizing water balance, maintaining blood pressure, and producing the active form of vitamin D

A

Kidneys

251
Q

Functional unit of the kidney

A

Nephron

252
Q

Two major regions of the kidney

A

Cortex and medulla

253
Q

Located in the renal cortex filters blood to form a dilute plasma-like filtrate, which is concentrated in the proximal and distal consulates loops of the renal medulla

A

Glomerulus

254
Q

A waste product that contains urea, water, salts, and other excess metabolites

A

Urine

255
Q

Play a vital role in maintaining blood and blood pressure

A

Kidneys

256
Q

Pumps blood into the kidneys through the renal artery

A

Cardiovascular system

257
Q

A hormone that regulates blood pressure by retaining or removing water and salt

A

Renin

258
Q

System comprised of the heart and blood vessels

A

Cardiovascular system

259
Q

Pair of organs that regulate fluid balance and filter waste from the blood

A

Kidneys

260
Q

Part of the kidney responsible for filtering and excretion

A

Nephron

261
Q

Two branches of the abdominal aorta that supply the kidneys

A

Renal arteries

262
Q

Outer layer of the kidney

A

Renal cortex

263
Q

Innermost part of the kidney

A

Renal medulla

264
Q

Center of the kidney where urine collects before moving to the ureter

A

Renal pelvis

265
Q

Vein carrying blood from a kidney to the inferior vena cava

A

Renal vein

266
Q

An enzyme released by the kidney when reduced blood pressure is detected by baroreceptors in aorta and carotid arteries

A

Renin

267
Q

Main nitrogenous part of urine

A

Urea

268
Q

Duct that conducts urine from the kidney to the bladder

A

Ureter

269
Q

Structure that stores urine in the body until elimination

A

Urinary bladder

270
Q

Liquid waste matter excreted by the kidneys

A

Urine

271
Q

Small tubes that carry urine to the urinary bladder, which holds the urine until excretion

A

Ureters

272
Q

Hollow muscular organ that holds 400-800 mL liquid and has sensors that communicate with the central nervous system

A

Urinary bladder

273
Q

Prevents entry of pathogens through the presence of barriers composed of the skin and secretions such as acid, enzymes, and salt

A

Immune system

274
Q

Specifically identifies, targets, and remembers the pathogen

A

Adaptive immune system

275
Q

Contain large number of antigen-presenting cells that can trigger the adaptive immune system

A

Lymph nodes

276
Q

Nonspecific response

A

Innate immune system

277
Q

Respond to specific antigens

A

Adaptive immune system

278
Q

A blood protein that counteracts a specific antigen

A

Antibody

279
Q

Substances on the surfaces of agents that act to identify them, to the body, as being naive or foreign

A

Antigens

280
Q

A cell that displays foreign antigens with major histocompatibility

A

APC

281
Q

A substance that kills or inhibits growth of micro-organisms with minimal damage to the host

A

Antimicrobial

282
Q

Lymphocytes that mature in bone marrow and make antibodies in response to antigens

A

B-cells

283
Q

Physical, cellular, and soluble components- impede pathogens from entering the body or multiplying

A

Barriers

284
Q

Prevent viral replication

A

Interferons

285
Q

Involves the binding of antibodies to the pathogen

A

Complement

286
Q

Attack host cells that harbor intracellular pathogens

A

Natural killer lymphocyte cells

287
Q

Engulf and digest extracellular pathogens

A

Phagocytic cells

288
Q

Respond to conserved PAMPS through toll-like receptors and trigger antigen presentation or inflammation

A

Macrophages and dendritic cells

289
Q

Adaptive immune system functional cells

A

T-cells and B-cells

290
Q

Digest pathogens and present the pathogen’s antigen signature to “helper” T-cell

A

APCs

291
Q

What happens when a helper T-cell encounters a cytoxic T-cell that recognizes the same antigen?

A

It produces cytokines that activate the cytoxic T-cell

292
Q

After activation of the cytoxic T-cell what happens?

A

Searches out and destroys any cell that contains the pathogens antigen signature and also activates B-cells that recognize the pathogens signature antigen.

293
Q

After the B-cells are activated what happens?

A

The B-cells multiply rapidly into secretory cells called plasma cells

294
Q

What is the plasma cells function?

A

They produce large amounts of an antibody that can bind to the antigen

295
Q

When the antigen levels subside what do the plasma cells begin doing?

A

Stop making antibodies and produce memory cells that remember the antigen

296
Q

Protection through passive introduction of antibodies as a protective agent EXAMPLE: rapid treatment for snakebite

A

Passive immunity

297
Q

Active production by the body EXAMPLE: vaccination

A

Active immunity

298
Q

Caused by a virus, HIV, which infects helper T-cells and prevents it from activating cytoxic T-cells and B-cells which prevents the adaptive immune system from operating

A

AIDS

299
Q

When you have an overactive immune system it can target innocuous foreign particles like pollen, causing the body to go into overdrive producing huge amounts of IgE that trigger histamine release from mast cells

A

Allergies

300
Q

When the immune system mistakenly targets a host molecule as a foreign antigen

A

Autoimmune disease

301
Q

Group of proteins in blood serum and last a that works with antibodies to destroy particular antigens

A

Complement

302
Q

Antigen- presenting cells that process antigens material and present it to T-cells

A

Dendritic cell

303
Q

An antibody

A

Immunoglobulin

304
Q

A collection of nonspecific barriers and cellular responses that serve as an inborn first and second line of defense against pathogens

A

Innate immune system

305
Q

A large white blood cell that ingests foreign material

A

Macrophages

306
Q

A lymphocyte that responds to an antigen upon reproduction

A

Memory cell

307
Q

Ingestion of particles by a cell or phagocyte

A

Phagocytosis

308
Q

A white blood cell that produces a single type of antibody

A

Plasma cell

309
Q

White blood cells that mature in the thymus and participate in immune response

A

T-cell

310
Q

Describe how a gland sends a message

A

The gland synthesizes a hormone, which is released into the blood. The hormone then attaches to a receptor in or on the target gland or tissue to initiate a response

311
Q

Produces melatonin

A

Pineal gland

312
Q

Produces thymosins

A

Hypothalamus

313
Q

Maintains blood pressure in the genitourinary system

A

Kidneys

314
Q

Transports sperm in the genitourinary system

A

Urethra

315
Q

Filters blood and also creates urine

A

Kidneys

316
Q

Which cells sample and attack host cells tat harbor intracellular pathogens

A

NK cells

317
Q

What type of response is inflammation mediated by cytokines

A

Nonspecific

318
Q

Adaptive immune system B-cells that have been activated to secrete antibodies

A

Plasma cells

319
Q

Adaptive immune system cells that are activated by antigen-presenting cells

A

T-cells

320
Q

Sort the following terms as innate or adaptive immune system components: Lymphocytes, B-cells, leukocytes, monocytes,dendritic cells, Nk cells, complement, inflammation, phagocytosis, cytoxic T-cell, plasma cells, memory cells, antibodies, Toll-like receptors, interferons, PAMPS, antimicrobial proteins, physical barriers, Helper T-cells, chemical secretions, lysozyme

A 
Innate: 
Leukocyte 
Monocytes
Dendritic cells
Nk cells 
Complement
Inflammation 
Phagocytosis 
Toll-like receptors 
Interferons 
PAMPS 
Antimicrobial proteins 
Physical barriers 
Chemical secretions 
Lysozyme 
Adaptive: 
lymphocytes
B-cells 
Cytoxic T-cells
Plasma cells 
Memory cells 
Antibodies 
Helper T-cells
321
Q

The skeletal systems 3 main functions

A

Movement, protection, and metabolism

322
Q

Scaffold against which muscles pull for movement, and it provides articulation and protection for delicate organs

A

Skeletal system

323
Q

An organ that is constantly being reorganized

A

Bone

324
Q

What do bones do?

A

Synthesize blood and immune cells, store calcium, phosphate and lipids

325
Q

Bones 4 major types

A

Long, short, flat, and irregular

326
Q

A group of diseases that affect collagen and result in fragile bone

A

Brittle bone disease

327
Q

Microscoping canals in ossified bone

A

Canaliculi

328
Q

Tough elastic connective tissue found in parts of the body such as the ear

A

Cartilage

329
Q

The primary structural protein of connective tissue

A

Collagen

330
Q

Channels in bone that contain blood vessels and nerves

A

Haversian canal

331
Q

Layers of bone, tissue, or cell walls

A

Lamellae

332
Q

Flattened bone cells that come from osteoblasts

A

Lining cells

333
Q

Degenerative joint disease

A

Osteoarthritis

334
Q

Cells that make bone

A

Osteoblasts

335
Q

Cells that remove bone

A

Osteoclasts

336
Q

Bone cells

A

Osteocytes

337
Q

Have long compact hollow shafts containing marrow, ends are usually made of spongy bone with air pockets

A

Long bones

338
Q

Name some long bones

A

Humerus, ulna, radius, femur, tibia, and fibula

339
Q

Wider that they are long

A

Short bones

340
Q

Short bone examples

A

Bones of the toes (metatarsals) and collarbone (clavicle)

341
Q

Are not hollow but contain marrow

A

Flat bones

342
Q

Examples of flat bones

A

Scapula, ribs, sternum

343
Q

No symmetrical shapes

A

Irregular bones

344
Q

Irregular bone examples

A

Skull, knee, and elbow

345
Q

Bone- to - bone articulation

A

Ligaments

346
Q

Bone-to- muscle

A

Tendons

347
Q

The bone that supports the tongue is the only bone in the body to not be connected to other bones, but rather held in place only by muscle

A

Hyoid bone

348
Q

Prevents them from grinding against each other

A

Hyaline cartilage

349
Q

Contain lubricating synovial fluid such as the knee’s hinge

A

Synovial joints

350
Q

Two main types of bone cells

A

Osteoclasts and osteoblasts

351
Q

The fibrous sheath that covers the bone which contains nerves and blood vessels

A

Periosteum

352
Q

Synthesizes bone in tubular structures which is composed of calcium and hydroxyapatite embedded in a collagen matrix

A

Osteon

353
Q

Excessive withdrawal of minerals from bone can cause the rigidity of bone to be lost and can lead o what disease?

A

Osteoporosis

354
Q

A progressive disease that causes joint inflammation and pain

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

355
Q

Due to a genetic defect in the collagen matrix and causes ones to break easily

A

Brittle bone

356
Q

Cells involved in mineral resorption from the bone

A

Osteoclasts

357
Q

Give an example of two bones tat articulate at a synovial joint

A

Humerus and scapula

358
Q

Make bone by laying down collagen matrix followed by osteon

A

Osteoblasts

359
Q

Polymers joined together by covalent bonds between the monomeric units

A

Macromolecules

360
Q

The addition of water which breaks the bond and releases monomers and energy

A

Hydrolysis

361
Q

Name the four types of macromolecules

A

Carbohydrates, lipids, proteins and nucleic acids

362
Q

What are carbohydrates main functions

A

Structural functions, energy storage, and recognition molecules

363
Q

Proteins composed predominantly of hydrogen and carbon and are often referred to as fats

A

Lipids

364
Q

Hydrophobic and therefore help separate aqueous compartment

A

Lipids

365
Q

Which lipids store energy efficiently

A

Fats, oils, and adipose

366
Q

Sugars and starches which the body breaks down into glucose

A

Carbohydrates

367
Q

Fatty acids and their derivatives that are insoluble in water

A

Lipids

368
Q

Molecule that contains a large number of atoms

A

Macromolecules

369
Q

Molecules hat can bond to similar or identical molecules to form a polymer

A

Monomers

370
Q

Long molecules made of nucleotides; DNA and RNA

A

Nucleic acids

371
Q

A substance composed of similar units bonded together

A

Polymer

372
Q

Molecules composed of amino acids joined by peptide bond

A

Proteins

373
Q

What are the protein monomers called?

A

Protein

374
Q

Linked together by peptide bonds and form several types of molecules based on their structure and polarity

A

Amino acids

375
Q

Hydrophobic amino acids on surface
Not soluble in water
Found in structural molecules such as hair and nails

A

Fibrous, hydrophobic molecules

Keratin and Collagen

376
Q

Hydrophilic surface amino acids

Soluble in water

A

Globular proteins

377
Q

Important class of proteins that catalyze biochemical reactions without being consumed in the reaction

A

Enzymes

378
Q

How do enzymes speed up reactions?

A

By lowering the energy required by the system to initiate the reaction

379
Q

Release energy

A

Exergonic

380
Q

Require energy

A

Endergonic

381
Q

What is the energy released and supplied and released as?

A

ATP

382
Q

Name the two things enzymes typically have?

A

Site in which the substrate fits and where the catalysis occurs

383
Q

Name the two nucleic acids in living systems

A

DNA and RNA

384
Q

Typically a double stranded helix that stores genetic information
Associated with proteins to form structures called chromosomes located in the nucleus of the cell

A

DNA

385
Q

Contains nucleotides composed of a deoxyribase sugar, one of four nitrogenous bases and a phosphate molecule

A

DNA

386
Q

Consists of ribonucleotides containing a ribose sugar, a nitrogenous base and are typically linked in a single strand molecule

A

RNA

387
Q

Mediates the conversion of the information stored in DNA into the proteins that are encoded by genes

A

RNA

388
Q

Copies of the genetic information contained in DNA that is carried to ribosomes where catalytic ribosomal RNA molecules and transfer RNAs work together to make a functional protein

A

Messenger RNA molecules

389
Q

Reduce the initial energy required for a reaction to take place

A

Enzymes

390
Q

Name the monomer, functions, and give food examples for PROTEIN

A

Amino Acids

Enzymes:catalysis
Structure:muscle, keratin
Transport: hemoglobin
Immune:antibodies

Meat
Egg white

391
Q

Name the monomer, functions, and give food examples for CARBOHYDRATES

A

Monosaccharides

Structure: cellulose,chitin
Storage: glycogen,amylose
Recognition:glycoproteins, glycolipids
Bread, Potatoes

392
Q

Name the monomer, functions, and give food examples for LIPIDS

A

Fatty acids

Structure:phospholipids
Storage:adipose

Oil,butters

393
Q

Name the monomer, functions, and give food examples for NUCLEIC ACID

A

Nucleotides
Heredity: DNA,RNA
Regulation: RNA

No specific food example; food in small amounts in all foods

394
Q

A nitrogen-containing carbohydrate that is an important constituent of cell walls of fungi and animal exoskeletons

A

Chitin

395
Q

Something that speeds up a chemical reaction but is not changed in the process

A

Catalyst

396
Q

The energy needed to initiate a chemical reaction

A

Activation energy

397
Q

The observation that an enzyme catalyzes a limited chemical reaction with a specific substrate and product

A

Specific

398
Q

Requiring narrow environmental conditions

A

Fastidious

399
Q

Reactant in a chemical reaction

A

Substrate

400
Q

A chemical reaction that releases energy as a product

A

Exergonic

401
Q

A chemical reaction that requires energy to occur

A

Endergonic

402
Q

DNA-based codes packaged in units called chromosomes which guide the production of proteins that directly shape the traits of the actual organism

A

Genes

403
Q

A macromolecule that contains coded instructions for the body to produce proteins

A

DNA

404
Q

What four nucleotide letters compose DNA

A

Adenine, thymine, guanine, cytosine

405
Q

A “sentence” made of a specific order of codons that produces a protein

A

Gene

406
Q

Each codon specifies one what?

These codons do what?

A

Amino acid

They instruct ribosomes to assemble the amino acids in a particular order

407
Q

A “chapter” linking sentences with “punctuation marks” that regulate where a gene starts and ends, and which genes are read in which cell

A

Chromosome

408
Q

A (adenine) always pairs with what?

A

T (thymine)

409
Q

G (guanine) always pairs with what?

A

C (cytosine)

410
Q

One of the two duplicates of a chromosome formed during the cell cycle

A

Chromatid

411
Q

A structure made of protein and one molecule of DNA

A

Chromosome

412
Q

The sugar portion of a deoxyribose nucleotide

A

Deoxyribose sugar

413
Q

Material that contains genetic information

A

Deoxyribonucleic acid

414
Q

A string of DNA that is the basic unit of heredity

A

Gene

415
Q

A type of noncovalent bond; a weak attraction between a hydrogen atom bound to an electronegative atom and a second highly electronegative atom

A

Hydrogen bond

416
Q

The building block of DNA and RNA

A

Nucleotide

417
Q

A large organelle within a cell that houses the chromosomes

A

Nucleus

418
Q

A phosphorus atom bound to four oxygen atoms

A

Phosphate group

419
Q

What links complementary bases

A

Two hydrogen bonds

420
Q

Copies of chromosomes which can be separated into two cells or passed on to the next generation

A

Chromatids

421
Q

In what directions is DNA read?

A

5’ to 3’

422
Q

Segment of DNA that contains a word made of three nucleotides

A

Codon

423
Q

Refers to the most powerful trait or the allele for that trait

A

Dominant

424
Q

The genetic makeup of an individual

A

Genotype

425
Q

Transmission of characteristics to offspring

A

Inheritance

426
Q

Physical appearance of a trait formed by genetics and environment

A

Phenotype

427
Q

Refers to traits that are masked if dominant alleles are also present; also refers to the allele for that trait

A

Recessive

428
Q

Negatively charged ion

A

Anion

429
Q

Most basic complete unit of an element

A

Atom

430
Q

A positively charged ion

A

Cation

431
Q

A chemical bond in which electron pairs are shared between atoms

A

Covalent bond

432
Q

A negatively charged atomic particle

A

Electron

433
Q

A column of elements in the periodic table

A

Group

434
Q

A positively or negatively charged atom or molecule

A

Ion

435
Q

The bond between two oppositely charged ions

A

Ionic bond

436
Q

An atomic particle with no electric charge

A

Neutron

437
Q

An area around the nucleus where an electron can be found

A

Orbital

438
Q

The table of elements expressed as columns and rows

A

Periodic table

439
Q

Positively charged atomic particle

A

Proton

440
Q

An electron in an outer orbital that can form bonds with other atoms

A

Valence electrons

441
Q 
Fill in the chart below 
Element. Protons. Neutrons. Electrons. Atomic #. Atomic Mass. 
H 
Mg
Mn
C
Ne 
Pt
Cl
Rh
K
He
A

Element. Protons. Neutrons. Electrons. Atomic #. Atomic Mass.
H 1. 0. 1. 1. 1
Mg. 12. 12. 12. 12. 24
Mn. 25. 30. 25. 25. 55
C. 6. 6. 6. 6. 12
Ne 10. 10. 10. 10. 20
Pt. 78. 117. 78. 78. 195
Cl. 17. 18. 17. 17. 35
Rh. 45. 58. 45. 45. 103
K. 19. 20. 19. 19. 59
He. 2. 2. 2. 2. 4

442
Q

What does the period in the periodic table represent

A

Increasing energy levels

443
Q

The temperature at which a liquid boils and turns into vapor

A

Boiling point

444
Q

Characteristics of a material that present during a chemical reaction or chemical change

A

Chemical properties

445
Q

Amount of mass per volume

A

Density

446
Q

The passive movement of substances from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration

A

Diffusion

447
Q

Properties that depend on the size of the sample of a substance

A

Extensive properties

448
Q

The ability of a metal to be shaped

A

Malleability

449
Q

The temperature at which a solid changes to a liquid

A

Melting point

450
Q

Type of covalent bond in which two atoms share electrons at equal distances from their atomic nuclei

A

Nonpolar

451
Q

Passage of fluid through a membrane

A

Osmosis

452
Q

A type of covalent bond in which two atoms share electrons that are not as equal distances from their atomic nuclei. If the geometry of the molecule does not equalize the partial charges created by the polar covalent bond, the region of partial charge remains unbalanced and the molecule is considered polar

A

Polar

453
Q

The amount of energy needed to change the temperature of 1 gram of a substance by 1 celcius

A

Specific heat capacity

454
Q

transition of a gas to a liquid

A

Condensation

455
Q

The temperature at which the liquid and gas phases of a substance have the same density

A

Critical point

456
Q

The transition of a substance from gas to solid without passing through the liquid state

A

Deposition

457
Q

The transition of liquid to gas that happens with or without the substance acquiring enough thermal energy to reach its boiling point

A

Evaporation

458
Q

A state of matter that does not have a definite volume or shape and is highly compressible

A

Gas

459
Q

State of matter that has definite volume but not definite shape

A

Liquid

460
Q

A substance with a pH less than 7

A

Acid

461
Q

What has a substance with a pH greater than 7

A

Base

462
Q

Substance that increases the rate of a chemical reaction without undergoing permanent chemical change

A

Catalyst

463
Q

Substance made of two or more elements

A

Compound

464
Q

Pure substances that cannot be broken into simpler substances

A

Element

465
Q

Substance produced by a living thing that acts as a catalyst

A

Enzyme

466
Q

Substance that is a good conductor of electricity and heat, forms cations by loss of electrons, and yields basic oxides and hydroxides

A

Metal

467
Q

A molecule found in a living thing that contains carbon

A

Organic molecule

468
Q

The measure of acidity or alkalinity

A

pH

469
Q

Chemical compound formed from the reaction of an acid with a base with at least part of the hydrogen of the acid replaced by a cation

A

Salt

470
Q

Why is CaO classified with containing an ionic bond

A

Because it has both a metal and nonmetal

471
Q

One hundredth

A

Centi

472
Q

Ten

A

Deca

473
Q

One hundred

A

Hecta

474
Q

One thousand

A

Kilo

475
Q

One thousandth

A

Milli

476
Q

Something kept constant during an experiment

A

Control variable

477
Q

What is measured in an experiment as a possible effect

A

Dependent variable

478
Q

An educated guess that serves as a starting point for further testing

A

Hypothesis

479
Q

What is measured in an experiment as a possible cause

A

Independent variable

480
Q

Something that changes

A

Variable

481
Q 
Which of the following cavities is lined by the connective tissue peritoneum? 
A. Cephalic 
B. Thoracic
C. Abdominal 
D. Pelvic
A

C.

482
Q 
Which of the following is a hormone that mediates the fight-or-flight response?
A. Insulin 
B. Glucagon 
C. Epinephrine 
D. Endorphin
A

C

483
Q

Which of the following occurs if the epiglottis does not function properly? A. The client is unable to recall recent events
B. The client coughs because food goes into the trachea
C. The client cannot produce hormones from the pancreas
D. The client becomes reproductively sterile

A

B.

484
Q 
Which of the following composes the rings that support the trachea?
A. Spongy bone
B. Fibrous ligaments 
C. Elastic tendons 
D. Hyaline cartilage
A

D

485
Q 
Which of the following valves prevent backflow of blood from the arteries into the ventricles?
A.bicuspid
B.tricuspid
C. Mitral
D.semilunar
A

D

486
Q 
Which of the following arteries supplies the heart with blood?
A.carotid 
B.coronary
C.subclavian 
D.brachiocephalic
A

B

487
Q 
Breakdown of which of the following brings in the small intestine?
A.fats
B. Fiber
C. Protein
D. Carbohydrates
A

A.

488
Q 
Which of the following are lymphatic capillaries that absorb fats?
A. Lacteals 
B. Nodules 
C. Bronchioles
D. Axons
A

A.

489
Q 
Which of the following occurs to skeletal muscle as a result of acetylcholine released at the neuromuscular junctions?
A. Relaxation
B. Peristalsis
C. Contraction
D. Eversion
A

C

490
Q 
Which of the following is the tube tat carries both sperm and urine for release outside the body?
A. Ureter
B. Urethra
C. Vas deferens 
D. Epididymis
A

B

491
Q 
Which of the following is the protein secreted by hair follicles in the integument?
A. Collagen 
B. Fibrin
C. Elastin
D. Keratin
A

D

492
Q 
Which of the following is a portion of the brain that integrates nerve signals and hormonal secretions?
A. Hypothalamus 
B. Adrenal gland
C. Nucleus accumbens 
D. Medulla oblongata
A

A

493
Q

Which of the following is the region of the kidney that contains the glomerulus of the nephron?

A. Medulla
B. Pelvis
C. Cortex
D. Adrenal

A

C

494
Q 
Which of the following antibody-secreting cells is triggered to proliferate upon vaccination?
A. Erythrocytes
B. B-lymphocytes
C. Leukocytes
D. T-lymphocytes
A

B

495
Q 
Which of the following bones supports the tongue and is the only bone in the body not anchored to other bones?
A. Patella
B. Coccyx
C. Hyoid 
D. Scapula
A

C

496
Q 
Which of the following produces ammonia by deamination in the liver?
A. Proteins 
B. Carbohydrates 
C. Nucleic acids
D. Lipids
A

A

497
Q 
A cross between two heterozygous F1 plants produces a ratio of 15:1 in the F2 offspring. Which of the following best describes the ratio?
A. Modified monohybrid
B. Modified dihybrid 
C. Normal monohybrid 
D. Normal dihybrid
A

B

498
Q 
Which of the following is the smallest region in space where two electrons with opposite spins are paired?
A. Shell
B. Orbital 
C. Nucleus 
D. Period
A

B

499
Q 
Which of the following best describes matter in which the components cannot be broken down into simpler substances?
A. Molecule
B. Element 
C. Mixture
D. Compound
A

B

500
Q 
Which of the following muscle movements has synapses in the spinal cord rather than the brain?
A.reflax arc 
B. Contraction
C. Relaxation
D. Slow twitch
A

A

501
Q 
Which of the following structures is responsible for egg production?
A. Vagina
B. Fallopian tubes
C. Ovaries
D. Uterus
A

C

502
Q 
Which of the following integumentary structures produces sweat?
A. Sudoriferous glands
B. Sebaceous glands
C. Ceruminous glands 
D. Mammary glands
A

A

503
Q 
Which of the following endocrine organs produces insulin?
A. Thyroid
B. Pituitary
C.adrenal gland
D. Pancreas
A

D

504
Q 
Which of the following structures stores urine before excretion?
A. Kidneys 
B. Ureters 
C. Bladder
D. Urethra
A

C

505
Q 
Which of the following parts of the adult body makes WBC?
A. Thymus
B. Bone marrow
C. Adrenal glands
D. Liver
A

B

506
Q 
Which of the following structures is an irregularly shaped bone?
A. Femur
B. Metacarpal
C. Rib
D. Vertebra
A

D

507
Q

The parathyroid is a component of which of the following organ systems?A. Lymphatic
B. Nervous
C. Endocrine
D. Muscular

A

C

508
Q 
After passing through the stomach, food continues into which of the following digestive structures?
A. Duodenum
B. Jejunum
C. Ileum
D. Cecum
A

A

509
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are at a higher structural level of organization than \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A. Organs;organ systems
B. Cells;molecules
C.atoms;molecules
D. Tissues;Organs
A

B

510
Q 
In which of the following stages of embryological development are the main germ layers formed?
A. Blastula 
B. Morula 
C. Gastrula
D. Fetus
A

C

511
Q

Vaccinations are used to create which of the following types of immunity?
A. Naturally acquired passive immunity
B. Artificially acquired passive immunity
C. Naturally acquired active immunity
D. Artificially acquired active immunity

A

D

512
Q 
Which of the following nervous systems directs the skeletal muscles o respond in the body’s fight-or-flight response?
A. Enteric 
B. Central 
C. Parasympathetic 
D. Sympathetic
A

D

513
Q 
Which of the following tissues is responsible for contractions during peristalsis in the digestive tract?
A. Smooth muscle
B. Skeletal muscle
C. Connective tissue
D. Subcutaneous tissue
A

A

514
Q 
In which of he following organs are immune cells produced?
A. Tonsils
B. Spleen
C. Lymph nodes
D. Bone marrow
A

D

515
Q 
Exchange of gases occurs in which of the following structures of the respiratory system?
A. Alveoli
B. Bronchioles
C. Trachea
D. Pleura
A

A.

516
Q 
Which of the following organelles gives rough ER its signature rough characteristics?
A. Ribosomes
B. Mitochondria
C. Centrosomes
D. Vacuoles
A

A

517
Q 
Which of the following is the number of different types of nucleotide bases found in DNA? 
1
2
3
4
A

4

518
Q 
Which of the following measures volumes of liquids?
A. Triple beam balance
B. Meter stick
C. Graduated cylinder
D. Weight boat
A

C

TEAS PRACTICE (1 decks)

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