Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Teas > Science > Flashcards

Science Flashcards

1
Q

Describe cellular respiration

A

It is an oxidative catabolic activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe anatomical position

A

Upright, arms at sides, palms facing anteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The correct order from simple to most complex:
Brain, Neurons, Mitochondria, Nerve tissues

A

Mitochondria, Neurons, Nerve tissues, Brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which process describes the formation of new cells in order to replace worn-out and damaged cells?

A

Mitosis
Divides into 2 daughter cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which process describes the creation of sex cells?

A

Meiosis
Divides twice to make 4 haploid cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which is a heterotrophic organism with a genome stored in DNA?

A

Human

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What condition occurs when a blood vessel in the brain becomes blocked?

A

Stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Arteries vs Veins

A

Veins have valves and arteries do not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The condition ________ can often lead to _______ due to buildup and blockage of coronary arteries, preventing blood flow to the myocardium.

A

atherosclerosis, myocardial infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Bllod pressure is recorded as two numbers, for example 110/70. The top number (110) represents _______ blood pressure which is _________________________.

A

Systole; the pressure in the blood vessels while the heart is ejecting blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In order for the heart to contract, what happens if signal from the SA node fails to reach the purkinje fibers?

A

The purkinje fibers will act as pacemaker cells but fire at a slower rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which artery has the responsibility of supplying blood to the reproductive system?

A

Gonadal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What happens during hyperventilation?

A

Decreased CO2 levels result in an increase in pH.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are some results of an embolus?

A

Myocardial infarction
TIA
Pulmonary embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The ______________ is the blood vessel that carries oxygen depleted blood away from the heart

A

Pulmonary artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What happens during a contraction of the diaphragm?

A

A decrease in alveolar pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The _______ is a double layered membrane that lines the lungs

A

pleura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Gas exchange between the blood and alveoli would be enhanced by ______, but impeded by ______

A

increased alveolar surface area; increased membrane thickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which condition exhibits lung compliance?

A

Emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

______ is the exchange of O2 and CO2 across the alveolar membrane.

A

Diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following terms correctly describes the movement of air in and out of the lungs?

A

Ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Voluntary holding your breath will eventually result in:

A

an innate reflex to start breathing due to increased CO2 levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following is not a function of pulmonary surfactant?

A

Decrease in lung compliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A lung with a low level of compliance could best be described as

A

a stiff lung requiring extra work to accomplish normal breathing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The term _____ refers to the contraction of smooth muscle in the digestive system that moves food along the GI tract.

A

periastalsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

T/F
The hormone glucagon is secreted from the pancreas and stimulates mechanical digestion

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Gastric reflex occurs as a result of an improper closing of the

A

lower esophageal sphincter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The ______ is an extension off of the large intestine that is often referred to as a vestigial organ.

A

Appendix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

In the digestive system, bile is manufactured by the ______ and stored in the ______.

A

Liver; Gallbladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The primary function of ______ is ________.

A

bile; fat emulsification in the small intestines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which digestive organ contains vitamin-producing bacteria?

A

Large intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

T/F
A function of pancreatic juice is to increase the acidity of stomach contents

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Muscle contraction

A

Actin and myosin filaments slide past eachother.
Neurotransmitters stimulate muscle contraction.
Sarcomere shorten during contraction.
Muscle contraction requires ATP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Skeletal muscle contraction is stimulated by the release of which neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction?

A

Acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which of the following structures divide and multiply in cases of injury or disease?

A

Glial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Describe the role of acetylcholine in muscle contraction

A

Acetylcholine binds to the membrane receptor in the sarcolemma and facilitates opening of the sodium channels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Dopamine is one of the neurotransmitters in the nervous system. What happens when dopamine is released into the nerve synapse?

A

Binding of dopamine to the membrane receptor of the postsynaptic cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What refers to the process of nerve stimulation wherein the action potential is generated through several stimulations’ released in rapid succession by a single source?

A

Temporal summation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

T/F Axon / sends stimulus to axon terminal

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

T/F Digestion / autonomic

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which disorder is caused by the degenerative demyelination of motor neurons resulting in dysfunction of voluntary muscles?

A

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Transecting injuries to the spinal cord will have detrimental effect to which of the following?

A

Somatic and autonomic systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

T/F Actin and myosin filaments shorten during contraction

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which division of the nervous system facilitates muscle contraction?

A

Somatic division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

During contraction, thin _____ filaments slide past the thick ____ filaments which result to shortening of sarcomere and contraction of the muscle.

A

actin; myosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which of the following is the thick contractile protein found in the sarcomere?

A

Myosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the result of demyelination?

A

Disrupted propagation of action potential along the axon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

T/F Prostate gland / Secretion of fluid that contributes to sperm motility and viability

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

T/F LH is produced by the anterior pituitary gland

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

T/F Ovaries / estrogen

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

WHich organ serves as both the implantation site of a fertilized ovum and the pathway for sperm to reach the uterine tubes?

A

Uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which protein makes up hair and nails?

A

Keratin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

In which layer of skin are the subcutaneous fat stores found?

A

Hypodermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which layers of the skin are affected by a third degree burn?

A

The epidermis and all of the dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which layer if epidermis is absent in all parts of the body except in the palms and soles?

A

Stratum lucidum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

T/F Langerhans cells are a sensory receptor found in the skin.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the result of deficient production of thyrotropin-releasing hormone?

A

The thyroid gland will produce an insufficient amount of thyroid hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

T/F Lack or insufficiency of insulin produced by the pancreas can lead to diabetes

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The response elicited by signals coming from endocrine glands is characterized by which of the following

A

Slow initiation, prolonged duration of response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Does the stimulation of stretching of the cervix and uterine contractions by oxytocin involve positive feedback?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

T/F FSH / stimulates ovulation and production of testosterone

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the result of deficient production of thyrotropin-releasing hormone?

A

The thyroid gland will produce an insufficient amount of thyroid hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

WHich hormone stimulates cervical stretching and uterine contraction during childbirth?

A

Oxytocin

64
Q

_______ is the mechanism of glandular secretion in which stimulation results in continuous production of a hormone above the normal level

A

Positive feedback

65
Q

What occurs when a person is in a stressful condition?

A

Mobilization of glucose from the lover into the bloodstream

66
Q

Is the release of glucagon in response to a decrease in blood glucose a negative feedback mechanism?

A

Yes

67
Q

Describe passive immunity

A

Temporary immunity brought by introduction of antibodies to a disease from another person

68
Q

Which antigen-specific immune cells produce cytokines, which facilitate various immune reactions?

A

Helper T-cell

69
Q

Which of the following is/are responsible for producing antibodies?

A

B-cells

70
Q

Show a relationship btwn the immune system and another system of the body

A

Destruction of a pathogen by the hydrochloric acid in the stomach

71
Q

Which responds quickly after an infection?

A

Innate immune system?

72
Q

WHich of the following stimulates the production of antibodies?

A

Vaccines

73
Q

T/F Spongy bone is lighter than compact bone

A

True

74
Q

Blood vessels that supply nutrients and oxygen enter the bone tissues through the

A

Volkmann canals

75
Q

The epiphyseal plate, which is responsible for the growth in the length of a bone, is made of which of the following?

A

Cartilage

76
Q

The yellow marrow-containing space found within adult bone diaphysis is called the

A

Medullary cavity

77
Q

What causes bone matrix resorption during bone growth and remodeling?

A

Osteclasts

78
Q

When someone is immobile, they may experience loss of bone density due to

A

Demineralization

79
Q

Fragile bones due to production of deficient or defective collagen as a result of genetic defect is a characteristic of?

A

Brittle Bone disease

80
Q

Which bone is responsible for side to side movement of the head?

A

Axis

81
Q

Which joint allows motion around a single axis and only permits flexion and extension?

A

Hinge joint

82
Q

_______ is the tough connective tissue that covers the bone surface.

A

Periosteum

83
Q

THe inhibition of activity or function of osteoblasts at the epiphyseal plate will result in

A

the mineralization of bone matrix will be halted

84
Q

What is the correct order of structures that transport urine from the collecting ducts to the urethra?

A

Collecting ducts - Minor calyces - Major calyces - Renal pelvis - Ureter - Urinary bladder - Urethra

85
Q

WHat substance is secreted by the nephrons and can be found in the filtrate that is eventually excreted?

A

Creatinine

86
Q

WHich foods would have the most urea that would have to be filtered out of the blood via the kidneys?

A

Proteins

87
Q

Which hormone involved in RAAS (renin-angiotensin-aldosterone) is produced by the kidney?

A

Renin

88
Q

_______ is not normally found in urine, and its presence may indicate a problem with the kidneys.

A

Albumin

89
Q

T/F Blood vessels enter and exit the kidney at the same point as the renal pelvis becomes the ureter, which is the renal hilum.

A

True

90
Q

What is the correct path of blood from the abdominal aorta to the inferior vena cava?

A

abdominal aorta - renal arteries - segmental arteries - interlobar arteries - arcuate arteries - interlobular arteries - afferent arteries - glomerulus - efferent arteries - peritubular capillaries - interlobular veins - arcuate veins - interlobar veins - renal veins - inferior vena cava

91
Q

WHat is the upper expanded region of the ureter called?

A

Renal pelvis

92
Q

In the presence of ADH, water os mostly reabsorbed in the _______

A

PCT

93
Q

In which segment of the nephron is glucose reabsorbed?

A

PCT

94
Q

What are alleles?

A

Alleles are an alternate form of a gene

95
Q

Define genotype

A

Genotype is a specific combination of alleles found in an individual

96
Q

Define recessive allele

A

Recessive alleles are the ones that express phenotypically only when two identical copies of alleles are present.

97
Q

What is seen in the human blood group system?

A

Multiple allelism (when two or more alleles are present)

98
Q

Describe law of segregation

A

It states that allele pairs segregate during gametogenesis and reunite randomly during the fertilization process.

99
Q

Identify the homozygous recessive type of allelic combination

A

tt

100
Q

WW and ww are the allelic combinations that are responsible for red and white flowers. what do WW, ww, and the flower colors represent?

A

WW and ww are the genotypes; red and white flowers are the phenotypes

101
Q

WHen HH crosses with Hh, what is the probability of getting offspring with hh?

A

0%

102
Q

If RR is homozygous dominant what is Rr

A

Heterozygous dominant

103
Q

In a particular species of plant, orange flower petals are dominant over recessive white flower petals. WHat would the genotype of the F1 generation if a homozygous dominant parent crosses with a homozygous recessive parent?

A

All F1 generations will be heterozygous dominant

104
Q

What are the roles of genes?

A

Genes code for enzymatic proteins, non-enzymatic proteins, and RNA.

105
Q

What are the units code for a protein?

A

Gene

106
Q

Gene vs Chromosomes

A

Chromosomes are made up of genes.

107
Q

T/F A gene is made up of sequences of DNA.

A

True

108
Q

How many chromosomes does a human cell have?

A

46

109
Q

Each protein is coded for by a

A

Gene

110
Q

The two strands of the DNA are _______

A

Anti-parallel

111
Q

Why does guanine show base-pairing only with cytosine?

A

For stabilization, by forming three bonds

112
Q

Which one of the following is an example of a codon?

A

AUG

113
Q

What nitrogenous bases are present in RNA?

A

adenine, guanine, uracil, and cytosine

114
Q

Describe the function of codons

A

Codons encode the amino acid that translates into protein.

115
Q

Describe the function of mRNA

A

mRNA carries the coding sequence that directs translation.

116
Q

Describe the functions carried out by tRNA in cells

A

tRNA transfers the amino acid to the ribosomal unit for translation

117
Q

What is the structure of DNA and RNA?

A

DNA is double stranded, helical molecule, and RNA is single-stranded.

118
Q

How does RNA attain a stable form in a cell?

A

RNA structure can form intrachain base pairs to attain stability

119
Q

What is the structure of a ribosome?

A

It has two subunits. The smaller subunit binds to mRNA, and the larger subunit binds to tRNA.

120
Q

What is the function of a ribosome?

A

Ribosomes can decode mRNA and assemble amino acids for protein synthesis.

121
Q

The unzipping of DNA takes place when

A

the hydrogen bond between the two opposite nucleotides on the double-stranded DNA breaks.

122
Q

WHich enzyme helps in the unwinding of DNA?

A

Helicase

123
Q

Which is the primary enzyme required for transcription?

A

RNA Polymerase

124
Q

T/F The new transcript is complementary to the template strand.

A

True

125
Q

What is part of the post-transcriptional modification?

A

The addition of a 5’ methyl cap and a poly-A tail to mRNA.

126
Q

What happens during the translation process?

A

Synthesis of proteins from the mRNA template.

127
Q

In human, translation starts when the ribosomes bind to the start codon at

A

5’ methyl cap

128
Q

Protein synthesis occurs in which part of the cell?

A

Cytoplasm

129
Q

At which site of ribosomes are amino acids transferred to the growing polypeptide chain?

A

P site

130
Q

rRNA function?

A

rRNA translates amino acids into proteins by binding to mRNA, tRNA and accessory proteins.

131
Q

What carried the genetic code for all the functioning and characteristics of a cell?

A

Nucleic acids

132
Q

Give an example of a monosaccharide

A

Glucose

133
Q

What are the monomers of proteins?

A

Amino acid

134
Q

A lipid or fat molecule can be broken down into fatty acids and

A

glycerol

135
Q

What type of reaction builds polysaccharides from their monomers?

A

Condensation

136
Q

Which enzyme does not digest a carbohydrate?

A

Lipase

137
Q

Pepsin is an example of a

A

Protease

138
Q

Which bond mainly forms the secondary protein structure?

A

Hydrogen bond

139
Q

Which type of bond do you fine in the tertiary and quaternary structures of a protein?

A

Disulfide bonds

140
Q

An alpha helix is formed by which type of protein structure?

A

Secondary

141
Q

In which protein structure do multiple protein chains interact with each other to form a globular structure?

A

Quaternary

142
Q

What can be found in a nucleotide but not in a nucleoside?

A

Phosphate group

143
Q

Nucleotides in DNA are linked together by

A

Phosphodiester bonds

144
Q

What is presine in a DNA molecule but not in a RNA molecule?

A

Thymine

145
Q

T/F Gases are compressible

A

True

146
Q

What is the difference between evaporation and transpiration?

A

Evaporation occurs in non-living matter and transpiration occurs in living matter.

147
Q

WHat is the process of condensation?

A

Gas –> Liquid + Heat

148
Q

If pressure is applied to a substance in any state of matter the molecules of the substance will:

A

move closer together and become tightly packed

149
Q

What happens at the critical point of a substance?

A

The liquid and gaseous state of the substance all coexist.

150
Q

How to find the number of neutrons?

A

number of neutrons = mass number - Atomic number

151
Q

how to find an atoms identity when given proton #, neutron #, and electron #?

A

The number of protons is the atomic number

152
Q

How many electrons does a sodium ion (Na+) have?

A
  1. the atomic number is 11 meaning 11 protons and 11 electrons. the superscript tell you to subtract.
153
Q

How many valence electrons does sodium have?

A

1.
The group (column) of the table shows the valence electrons

154
Q

How many valence electrons does the sulfide ion S^2- have?

A

8
Sulfur is in the 6th group and it had an addtl 2 valence electrons

155
Q
A

Teas (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions