Science Flashcards
1
Q
Describe cellular respiration
A
It is an oxidative catabolic activity
2
Q
Describe anatomical position
A
Upright, arms at sides, palms facing anteriorly
3
Q
The correct order from simple to most complex:
Brain, Neurons, Mitochondria, Nerve tissues
A
Mitochondria, Neurons, Nerve tissues, Brain
4
Q
Which process describes the formation of new cells in order to replace worn-out and damaged cells?
A
Mitosis
Divides into 2 daughter cells
5
Q
Which process describes the creation of sex cells?
A
Meiosis
Divides twice to make 4 haploid cells
6
Q
Which is a heterotrophic organism with a genome stored in DNA?
A
Human
7
Q
What condition occurs when a blood vessel in the brain becomes blocked?
A
Stroke
8
Q
Arteries vs Veins
A
Veins have valves and arteries do not
9
Q
The condition ________ can often lead to _______ due to buildup and blockage of coronary arteries, preventing blood flow to the myocardium.
A
atherosclerosis, myocardial infarction
10
Q
Bllod pressure is recorded as two numbers, for example 110/70. The top number (110) represents _______ blood pressure which is _________________________.
A
Systole; the pressure in the blood vessels while the heart is ejecting blood
11
Q
In order for the heart to contract, what happens if signal from the SA node fails to reach the purkinje fibers?
A
The purkinje fibers will act as pacemaker cells but fire at a slower rate
12
Q
Which artery has the responsibility of supplying blood to the reproductive system?
A
Gonadal artery
13
Q
What happens during hyperventilation?
A
Decreased CO2 levels result in an increase in pH.
14
Q
What are some results of an embolus?
A
Myocardial infarction
TIA
Pulmonary embolism
15
Q
The ______________ is the blood vessel that carries oxygen depleted blood away from the heart
A
Pulmonary artery
16
Q
What happens during a contraction of the diaphragm?
A
A decrease in alveolar pressure
17
Q
The _______ is a double layered membrane that lines the lungs
A
pleura
18
Q
Gas exchange between the blood and alveoli would be enhanced by ______, but impeded by ______
A
increased alveolar surface area; increased membrane thickness
19
Q
Which condition exhibits lung compliance?
A
Emphysema
20
Q
______ is the exchange of O2 and CO2 across the alveolar membrane.
A
Diffusion
21
Q
Which of the following terms correctly describes the movement of air in and out of the lungs?
A
Ventilation
22
Q
Voluntary holding your breath will eventually result in:
A
an innate reflex to start breathing due to increased CO2 levels.
23
Q
Which of the following is not a function of pulmonary surfactant?
A
Decrease in lung compliance
24
Q
A lung with a low level of compliance could best be described as
A
a stiff lung requiring extra work to accomplish normal breathing.
25
The term _____ refers to the contraction of smooth muscle in the digestive system that moves food along the GI tract.
periastalsis
26
T/F
The hormone glucagon is secreted from the pancreas and stimulates mechanical digestion
False
27
Gastric reflex occurs as a result of an improper closing of the
lower esophageal sphincter
28
The ______ is an extension off of the large intestine that is often referred to as a vestigial organ.
Appendix
29
In the digestive system, bile is manufactured by the ______ and stored in the ______.
Liver; Gallbladder
30
The primary function of ______ is ________.
bile; fat emulsification in the small intestines
31
Which digestive organ contains vitamin-producing bacteria?
Large intestine
32
T/F
A function of pancreatic juice is to increase the acidity of stomach contents
False
33
Muscle contraction
Actin and myosin filaments slide past eachother.
Neurotransmitters stimulate muscle contraction.
Sarcomere shorten during contraction.
Muscle contraction requires ATP.
34
Skeletal muscle contraction is stimulated by the release of which neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction?
Acetylcholine
35
Which of the following structures divide and multiply in cases of injury or disease?
Glial cells
36
Describe the role of acetylcholine in muscle contraction
Acetylcholine binds to the membrane receptor in the sarcolemma and facilitates opening of the sodium channels.
37
Dopamine is one of the neurotransmitters in the nervous system. What happens when dopamine is released into the nerve synapse?
Binding of dopamine to the membrane receptor of the postsynaptic cell.
38
What refers to the process of nerve stimulation wherein the action potential is generated through several stimulations' released in rapid succession by a single source?
Temporal summation
39
T/F Axon / sends stimulus to axon terminal
True
40
T/F Digestion / autonomic
true
41
Which disorder is caused by the degenerative demyelination of motor neurons resulting in dysfunction of voluntary muscles?
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
42
Transecting injuries to the spinal cord will have detrimental effect to which of the following?
Somatic and autonomic systems
43
T/F Actin and myosin filaments shorten during contraction
False
44
Which division of the nervous system facilitates muscle contraction?
Somatic division
45
During contraction, thin _____ filaments slide past the thick ____ filaments which result to shortening of sarcomere and contraction of the muscle.
actin; myosin
46
Which of the following is the thick contractile protein found in the sarcomere?
Myosin
47
What is the result of demyelination?
Disrupted propagation of action potential along the axon.
48
T/F Prostate gland / Secretion of fluid that contributes to sperm motility and viability
True
49
T/F LH is produced by the anterior pituitary gland
False
50
T/F Ovaries / estrogen
True
51
WHich organ serves as both the implantation site of a fertilized ovum and the pathway for sperm to reach the uterine tubes?
Uterus
52
Which protein makes up hair and nails?
Keratin
53
In which layer of skin are the subcutaneous fat stores found?
Hypodermis
54
Which layers of the skin are affected by a third degree burn?
The epidermis and all of the dermis
55
Which layer if epidermis is absent in all parts of the body except in the palms and soles?
Stratum lucidum
56
T/F Langerhans cells are a sensory receptor found in the skin.
False
57
What is the result of deficient production of thyrotropin-releasing hormone?
The thyroid gland will produce an insufficient amount of thyroid hormones
58
T/F Lack or insufficiency of insulin produced by the pancreas can lead to diabetes
True
59
The response elicited by signals coming from endocrine glands is characterized by which of the following
Slow initiation, prolonged duration of response
60
Does the stimulation of stretching of the cervix and uterine contractions by oxytocin involve positive feedback?
Yes
61
T/F FSH / stimulates ovulation and production of testosterone
False
62
What is the result of deficient production of thyrotropin-releasing hormone?
The thyroid gland will produce an insufficient amount of thyroid hormones
63
WHich hormone stimulates cervical stretching and uterine contraction during childbirth?
Oxytocin
64
_______ is the mechanism of glandular secretion in which stimulation results in continuous production of a hormone above the normal level
Positive feedback
65
What occurs when a person is in a stressful condition?
Mobilization of glucose from the lover into the bloodstream
66
Is the release of glucagon in response to a decrease in blood glucose a negative feedback mechanism?
Yes
67
Describe passive immunity
Temporary immunity brought by introduction of antibodies to a disease from another person
68
Which antigen-specific immune cells produce cytokines, which facilitate various immune reactions?
Helper T-cell
69
Which of the following is/are responsible for producing antibodies?
B-cells
70
Show a relationship btwn the immune system and another system of the body
Destruction of a pathogen by the hydrochloric acid in the stomach
71
Which responds quickly after an infection?
Innate immune system?
72
WHich of the following stimulates the production of antibodies?
Vaccines
73
T/F Spongy bone is lighter than compact bone
True
74
Blood vessels that supply nutrients and oxygen enter the bone tissues through the
Volkmann canals
75
The epiphyseal plate, which is responsible for the growth in the length of a bone, is made of which of the following?
Cartilage
76
The yellow marrow-containing space found within adult bone diaphysis is called the
Medullary cavity
77
What causes bone matrix resorption during bone growth and remodeling?
Osteclasts
78
When someone is immobile, they may experience loss of bone density due to
Demineralization
79
Fragile bones due to production of deficient or defective collagen as a result of genetic defect is a characteristic of?
Brittle Bone disease
80
Which bone is responsible for side to side movement of the head?
Axis
81
Which joint allows motion around a single axis and only permits flexion and extension?
Hinge joint
82
_______ is the tough connective tissue that covers the bone surface.
Periosteum
83
THe inhibition of activity or function of osteoblasts at the epiphyseal plate will result in
the mineralization of bone matrix will be halted
84
What is the correct order of structures that transport urine from the collecting ducts to the urethra?
Collecting ducts - Minor calyces - Major calyces - Renal pelvis - Ureter - Urinary bladder - Urethra
85
WHat substance is secreted by the nephrons and can be found in the filtrate that is eventually excreted?
Creatinine
86
WHich foods would have the most urea that would have to be filtered out of the blood via the kidneys?
Proteins
87
Which hormone involved in RAAS (renin-angiotensin-aldosterone) is produced by the kidney?
Renin
88
_______ is not normally found in urine, and its presence may indicate a problem with the kidneys.
Albumin
89
T/F Blood vessels enter and exit the kidney at the same point as the renal pelvis becomes the ureter, which is the renal hilum.
True
90
What is the correct path of blood from the abdominal aorta to the inferior vena cava?
abdominal aorta - renal arteries - segmental arteries - interlobar arteries - arcuate arteries - interlobular arteries - afferent arteries - glomerulus - efferent arteries - peritubular capillaries - interlobular veins - arcuate veins - interlobar veins - renal veins - inferior vena cava
91
WHat is the upper expanded region of the ureter called?
Renal pelvis
92
In the presence of ADH, water os mostly reabsorbed in the _______
PCT
93
In which segment of the nephron is glucose reabsorbed?
PCT
94
What are alleles?
Alleles are an alternate form of a gene
95
Define genotype
Genotype is a specific combination of alleles found in an individual
96
Define recessive allele
Recessive alleles are the ones that express phenotypically only when two identical copies of alleles are present.
97
What is seen in the human blood group system?
Multiple allelism (when two or more alleles are present)
98
Describe law of segregation
It states that allele pairs segregate during gametogenesis and reunite randomly during the fertilization process.
99
Identify the homozygous recessive type of allelic combination
tt
100
WW and ww are the allelic combinations that are responsible for red and white flowers. what do WW, ww, and the flower colors represent?
WW and ww are the genotypes; red and white flowers are the phenotypes
101
WHen HH crosses with Hh, what is the probability of getting offspring with hh?
0%
102
If RR is homozygous dominant what is Rr
Heterozygous dominant
103
In a particular species of plant, orange flower petals are dominant over recessive white flower petals. WHat would the genotype of the F1 generation if a homozygous dominant parent crosses with a homozygous recessive parent?
All F1 generations will be heterozygous dominant
104
What are the roles of genes?
Genes code for enzymatic proteins, non-enzymatic proteins, and RNA.
105
What are the units code for a protein?
Gene
106
Gene vs Chromosomes
Chromosomes are made up of genes.
107
T/F A gene is made up of sequences of DNA.
True
108
How many chromosomes does a human cell have?
46
109
Each protein is coded for by a
Gene
110
The two strands of the DNA are _______
Anti-parallel
111
Why does guanine show base-pairing only with cytosine?
For stabilization, by forming three bonds
112
Which one of the following is an example of a codon?
AUG
113
What nitrogenous bases are present in RNA?
adenine, guanine, uracil, and cytosine
114
Describe the function of codons
Codons encode the amino acid that translates into protein.
115
Describe the function of mRNA
mRNA carries the coding sequence that directs translation.
116
Describe the functions carried out by tRNA in cells
tRNA transfers the amino acid to the ribosomal unit for translation
117
What is the structure of DNA and RNA?
DNA is double stranded, helical molecule, and RNA is single-stranded.
118
How does RNA attain a stable form in a cell?
RNA structure can form intrachain base pairs to attain stability
119
What is the structure of a ribosome?
It has two subunits. The smaller subunit binds to mRNA, and the larger subunit binds to tRNA.
120
What is the function of a ribosome?
Ribosomes can decode mRNA and assemble amino acids for protein synthesis.
121
The unzipping of DNA takes place when
the hydrogen bond between the two opposite nucleotides on the double-stranded DNA breaks.
122
WHich enzyme helps in the unwinding of DNA?
Helicase
123
Which is the primary enzyme required for transcription?
RNA Polymerase
124
T/F The new transcript is complementary to the template strand.
True
125
What is part of the post-transcriptional modification?
The addition of a 5' methyl cap and a poly-A tail to mRNA.
126
What happens during the translation process?
Synthesis of proteins from the mRNA template.
127
In human, translation starts when the ribosomes bind to the start codon at
5' methyl cap
128
Protein synthesis occurs in which part of the cell?
Cytoplasm
129
At which site of ribosomes are amino acids transferred to the growing polypeptide chain?
P site
130
rRNA function?
rRNA translates amino acids into proteins by binding to mRNA, tRNA and accessory proteins.
131
What carried the genetic code for all the functioning and characteristics of a cell?
Nucleic acids
132
Give an example of a monosaccharide
Glucose
133
What are the monomers of proteins?
Amino acid
134
A lipid or fat molecule can be broken down into fatty acids and
glycerol
135
What type of reaction builds polysaccharides from their monomers?
Condensation
136
Which enzyme does not digest a carbohydrate?
Lipase
137
Pepsin is an example of a
Protease
138
Which bond mainly forms the secondary protein structure?
Hydrogen bond
139
Which type of bond do you fine in the tertiary and quaternary structures of a protein?
Disulfide bonds
140
An alpha helix is formed by which type of protein structure?
Secondary
141
In which protein structure do multiple protein chains interact with each other to form a globular structure?
Quaternary
142
What can be found in a nucleotide but not in a nucleoside?
Phosphate group
143
Nucleotides in DNA are linked together by
Phosphodiester bonds
144
What is presine in a DNA molecule but not in a RNA molecule?
Thymine
145
T/F Gases are compressible
True
146
What is the difference between evaporation and transpiration?
Evaporation occurs in non-living matter and transpiration occurs in living matter.
147
WHat is the process of condensation?
Gas --> Liquid + Heat
148
If pressure is applied to a substance in any state of matter the molecules of the substance will:
move closer together and become tightly packed
149
What happens at the critical point of a substance?
The liquid and gaseous state of the substance all coexist.
150
How to find the number of neutrons?
number of neutrons = mass number - Atomic number
151
how to find an atoms identity when given proton #, neutron #, and electron #?
The number of protons is the atomic number
152
How many electrons does a sodium ion (Na+) have?
10.
the atomic number is 11 meaning 11 protons and 11 electrons. the superscript tell you to subtract.
153
How many valence electrons does sodium have?
1.
The group (column) of the table shows the valence electrons
154
How many valence electrons does the sulfide ion S^2- have?
8
Sulfur is in the 6th group and it had an addtl 2 valence electrons
155
