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SCIENCE Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following blood vessels carries deoxygenaged blood from the heart to the lungs?

A. Pulmonary vein
B. Pulmonary artery
C. Aorta
D. Vena cava

A

B. Pulmonary artery

The pulmonary artery is part of the pulmonary circulation. The pulmonary artery carries deoxygenayed blood from the right ventricle, dives into the right and left pulmonary arteries, and delivers deoxygentaed blood to the right and left lung.

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2
Q

Which of the following blood vessels carries deoxygentaed blood from the heart to the lungs?

A

A. Pulmonary vein
B. Pulmonary artery
C. Aorta
D. Vena cava

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3
Q

In which of the following actions is the autonomic nervous system engaged?

A. Lifting weights
B. Holding your breath
C. Walking
D. Digestion

A

D. Digestion

Digestion Is an involuntary action that the autonomic system controls

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4
Q

During inhalation, where would you expect to find a higher concentration of oxygen?

A. In capillaries
B. In the alveolar air space
C. In the pulmonary artery
D. In the heart

A

B. In the alveolar air space

During inhalation, the lungs fill with oxygenated air from the environment. Therefore, the alveolar air space will have a higher concentration of oxygen.

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5
Q

Where does blood flow next after being oxygenated in the lungs?

A. Pulmonary artery
B. Pulmonary vein
C. Inferior vena cava
D. Aorta

A

B. Pulmonary vein

The pulmonary vein carries blood back from the lungs. Because the blood recently visited the lungs, it is now oxygenated.

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6
Q

Which of the following is the name of the structure that releases an enzyme that breaks down starch in the mouth?

A. Salivary gland
B. Pancreas
C. Liver
D. Gallbladder

A

A. Salivary gland

The salivary glands secrete amylase, an enzyme that breaks down starch.

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7
Q

Which type of tissue would you find in the heart?

A. Skeletal muscle
B. Non-striated muscle
C. Smooth muscles
D. Cardiac muscles

A

D. Cardiac muscles

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8
Q

According to the graph, which of the following identifies when fertilization is most likely?

A. Between day 0 and 7
B. After luteinizing hormone (LH) levels peak and begin to decline
C. Before ovulation
D. When estrogen levels are highest

A

B. After luteinizing hormone (LH) levels peak and begin to decline

LH levels peak right before ovulation, or the release of a mature egg. After ovulation, LH levels begin to decline. Because ovulation happens, an egg will be in the Fallopian tubes and able to be fertilized if sperm are present.

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9
Q

What is the name for the sex hormone responsible for male secondary sex characteristics?

A. Luteinizing hormone
B. Estrogen
C. Testosterone
D. Follicle-stimulating
hormone

A

C. Testosterone

Testosterone signals tissues in the body to develop secondary sex characteristics like facial hair and growth muscles.

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10
Q

Which of the following would result from a decrease in body temperature?

A. Blood vessels near the surface of the body would dilate.
B. Blood vessels near the surface of the body would constrict.
C. Sebaceous glands would excrete water.
D. Cheeks would become more flushed.

A

B. Blood vessels near the surface of the body would constrict.

To prevent heat from leaving through the surface of the skin, blood vessels constrict so that less blood is carries to the surface of the skin to maintain core body temperature.

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11
Q

Which of the following is where melanocytes are found?

A. Epidermis
B. Dermis
C. Hypodermis
D. Sebaceous glands

A

A. Epidermis

Melanocytes are found in the upper layer of the skin, the epidermis. These cells release melanin, which helps protect cells below.

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12
Q

Which of the following is an immediate result of the adrenal gland releasing epinephrine into the blood?

A. Weigh gain
B. Increased muscle
growth
C. Breakdown of
glycogen
D. Increase in heart
rate

A

D. Increase in heart rate

Epinephrine is released by the adrenal gland during stress and causes an increase in heart rate. This is a rapid response to perceive danger and is called fight-or-flight response.

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13
Q

Which of the following structures releases insulin and glucagon?

A. Adrenal
B. Hypothalamus
C. Pancreas
D. Pituitary

A

D. Pancreas

The pancreas releases insulin and glucagon to regulate blood sugar levels.

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14
Q

Which of the following substances is the fluid that contains urea, water, and salts that is released through the urethra?

A. Urine
B. Filtrate
C. Pancreas
D. Nephron

A

A. Urine

Urine is the name for the fluid secreted by the urinary bladder through the urethra. It contains substances that the body needs to get rid of.

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15
Q

Which of the following is a nonspecific barrier of the immune system?

A. Mucus
B. Antibodies
C. Interferons
D. B cells

A

A. Mucus

Mucus lines the opening in the body to try and prevent pathogens from entering. For example, mucus can be found in the lungs.

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16
Q

Which of the following diseases is caused by a virus that infects T cells?

A. Allergies
B. Asthma
C. Autoimmune
D. Acquired immune
deficiency syndrome
(AIDS)

A

D. Acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)

Acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is caused by a virus, known as human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), that infects and kills T cells. Without T cells, the body is less competent at fighting other diseases.

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17
Q

Which of the following functions is an example of how the skeletal and neuromuscular system work together?

A. Body movement
B. Organ production
C. Heat production
D. Calcium storage

A

A. Body movement

Although these are all functions of the skeletal system, body movement is the function that needs both skeletal and muscular systems.

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18
Q

What is the order of anatomical subregions in the anterior view of the upper limb?

A. Antebrachium
B. Phalanges
C. Antecubital
D. Brachium
E. Carpal

A

D. Brachium

Brachium is the first subregion. The upper limb starts from the shoulder joint. The brachium is the upper arm.

19
Q

Which of the following is classifies as a carbohydrate?

A. DNA
B. Endorphin
C. Glycogen
D. Amylase

A

C. Glycogen

Glycogen is a storage form of carbohydrates in animals. Glycogen is found in the liver and in the skeletal muscles of humans and is used for energy production.

20
Q

Which of the following best describes the relationship between a chromosome and a gene?

A. Each gene forms its
own chromosome
B. Each chromosome
contains a single
gene
C. Each gene contains
a specific number of
chromosomes
D. Each chromosome
contains a specific
number of genes

A

D. Each chromosome contains a specific number of genes

An individual chromosome is where specific sequences of DNA called “genes” are found. DNA is the foundational material found in genes and, therefore, in chromosomes.

21
Q

A purple-flowered pea plant and a white-flowered pea plant were crossed. The allele for purple flowers is dominant and the allele for the white flowers is recessive. Of 1,000 offspring, 498 were purple-flowered pea plants, and 502 were white-flowered pea plants. Based on these results, which of the following can be concluded about parent plants?

A. The white-flowered
pea plants is
homozygous.
B. The white-flowered
pea plant is
heterozygous.
C. The purple-flowered
pea plant is
heterozygous.
D. The purple-flowered
pea plant is
homozygous
dominant.

A

C. The purple-flowered pea plant is heterozygous.

In Mendelian genetics, homozygous means two of the same allele, and heterozygous means different alleles. A dominant phenotype can be either homozygous or heterozygous. If purple-flowered plant had been homozygous, the dominant allele would have been expressed in all the offspring, resulting in 1,000 purple-flowered pea plants. For there to be any homozygous recessive white-flowered pea plants, the purple-flowered plant had to contribute a recessive allele.

22
Q

Which of the following cell structures contain cristae?

A. DNA
B. Smooth
endoplasmic
reticulum
C. Mitochondria
D. Peroxisomes

A

C. Mitochondria

Cristea are the internal, folded membranes of mitcohondria where cellular respiration occurs.

23
Q

Which of the following describes the function of the plasma membrane?

A. It provides energy to
the cell
B. It helps to
synthesize proteins
C. It maintains the
cell’s internal
environment.
D. It produces
adenosine
triphosphate (ATP)
for cells.

A

C. It maintains the cell’s internal environment.

The plasma membrane is a semipermeable layer that allows only some substances to enter and exit the cell. In this role, it maintains the internal environment of the cell.

24
Q

Thymine is replaced by which of the following nitrogen bases in RNA?

A. Ribose
B. Uracil
C. Guanine
D. Cytosine

A

B. Uracil

Uracil replaces thymine when DNA is copied to mRNA.

25
Q

Which of the following are possible allele combinations for a child’s blood type, if both parents have type A blood? (Select all that apply)

A. IA, IA
B. IA, i
C. IB, IB
D. IA, IB
E. i, i

A

A. IA, IA
B. IA, i

A. Allele combinations for type A blood are IA, IA and IA, i, so an allele combination of IA, IA for the child is a possibility.

B. If either or both parents are heterozygous, IA, i, for type A blood, an allele combination of IA, i for the child is a possibility.

26
Q

Which of the following types of microscopes uses something other than light to form a specimen image?

A. Bright-field
B. Dark-field
C. Fluorescence
D. Electron

A

D. Electron

Electron is not a type of light microscope. This type of scope works by beaming electrons onto a specimen.

27
Q

Which of the following microscopic organisms are decomposers and the cause of many skin diseases?

A. Protozoans
B. Algae
C. Fungi
D. Viruses

A

C. Fungi

Fungi are decomposers and are known for causing skin diseases such as ringworm and athlete’s foot.

28
Q

Which of the following statements describes the subatomic particles that make up an atom?

A. Protons and electrons are about the same mass and can be found in the nucleus.
B. Protons and neutrons have about the same mass and can be found in the nucleus.
C. Electrons are found in the nucleus and make up most of the mass of an atom.
D. Protons are the only particles with mass and can be found in the nucleus.

A

B. Protons and neutrons have about the same mass and can be found in the nucleus.

Protons and neutrons are found in the nucleus, whereas electrons are found orbiting the nucleus. Protons and neutrons have about the same mass, and electrons have very small amounts of mass.

29
Q

A substance in a solid state is put on a hot plate with a thermometer. Every minute, the temperature of the substance is recorded. According the graph, what is happening to the substance?

A. As heat is added, the substance is becoming more and more dense.
B. As heat is added, the particles holding the substance together are becoming stronger.
C. As heat is added, the forces holding the particles together are breaking, changing the state.
D. As heat is added, the substance is maintaining room temperature by absorbing the energy.

A

C. As heat is added, the forces holding the particles together are becoming stronger.

As heat is added to the substance, the molecules break off from one another, causing melting. This continues and eventually causes boiling and leaves the substance as a gas.

30
Q

Which of the following is an example of an ionic compound?

A. NaCl
B. CO
C. C6H12O6
D. H2O

A

A. NaCl

Ionic compounds form when an electron from a metal is donated to a nonmetal atom. This donation causes ions to be formed, which are attracted to one another, and form ionic bonds. Sodium is a metal, and chloride is a nonmetal.

31
Q

The diagram shows two substances contained in equal size containers. Which of the following statements best explains the density of the substances?

A. Both substances have equal densities because they have equal volumes.
B. The first substance is less dense because it has more volume and less mass.
C. The first substance is less dense because it has less mass in the same amount of volume.
D. The first substance is denser because it has less mass in the same amount of space.

A

C. The first substance is less dense because it has less mass in the same amount of volume.

Looking at the substances in the same containers, the first is less dense. Density depends on the mass divided by volume. Because both containers are of equal size, the volume does not change. The second substance has more particles and, thus, more mass, making it denser than the first substance.

32
Q

3CaCl2+2Na3PO4—>Ca3(PO4)2+6NaCl

The coefficients in the chemical reaction equation above show the quantities of the substances in the reaction. Which of the following units are assumed to represent the quantities?

A. Moles
B. Grams
C. Atoms
D. Molecules

A

A. Moles

A mole is a unit that corresponds to 6.022 x 1023 particles of anything; using it preserves the correct relationship between all substances in the equation.

33
Q

A cup of tea with a volume of 200 ml contains 0.02 mol sucrose. What is the molar concentration of sucrose? (Round to the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero. )

A

M= mol/L

200/1000=0.2L

0.02/0.2=0.1M

34
Q

+3H2–>2NH3

Which of the following will increase the rate of the exothermic reaction shown above?

A. Decreasing the pressure
B. Increasing the temperature
C. Adding a catalyst
D. Adding ammonia (NH3)

A

C. Adding a catalyst

Catalysts lower the activation energy and increase the reaction rate.

-Decreasing the pressure lowers the probability the reactants will come in contact with each other, which decreases the reaction rate.
-Exothermic reactions slow down when the temperature is raised.
-Ammonia is the product of this reaction increasing its concentration will slow the reaction down.

35
Q

CH3COOH+H2O—><—-CH3COO + H3O+

Which of the following is true about the above reaction of acetic acid (CH3COOH) and water?

A. This is a strong acid dissociation.
B. The reaction is an acid-base neutralization reaction.
C. H2O is acting as Bronsted-Lowry acid.
D. H2O is acting as Bronsted-Lowry base.

A

D. H2O is acting as Bronsted-Lowry base.

Bronsted-Lowry bases are hydrogen ion acceptors. The water in this reaction is accepting an H+, forming H3O+

36
Q

Which of the following instruments would most accurately measure 0.1 mL of a liquid?

A. A 50-mL beaker
B. A micropipette
C. A graduated cylinder
D. An Erlenmeyer flask

A

B. A micropipette

A micropipette is used to measure extremely small amounts of liquids, starting at 1 microliter.

37
Q

Which of the following is the purpose of using control groups in an investigation?

A. To establish a standard for date comparison.
B. To provide the correct answer to an investigation.
C. To determine the dependent variables.
D. To function as a third variable group.

A

A To establish a standard for date comparison.

A scientific control group gives reliable baseline data to compare results.

38
Q

Jospeh and Demarius conducted an experiment on the activity of an enzyme. They tested whether the enzyme activity changed at different temperatures from 10 to 60 C. Based on the graph, which of the following best describes the relationship between enzyme activity and temperature?

A. Enzyme activity is greatest at temperatures below 30 C.
B. Enzyme activity decreases between 30 and 30 C.
C. Enzyme activity is unaffected by temperature changes.
D. Enzyme activity is greatest at 40 C.

A

D. Enzyme activity is greatest at 40 C.

The y-axis indicates enzyme activity, and the highest plot on the y-axis occurs at 40 C.

39
Q

What tool and unit would be used to find the volume of a brick?

A. Ruler and cm3
B. Ruler and m3
C. Balance and g
D. Graduated cylinder and mL

A

A. Ruler and cm3

Volume of a solid object like a brick can be found by measuring the length, width, and height and multiplying these values together. When you multiply these values together, the unit is cubed.

40
Q

Which of the following explanations states a logical cause and effect of caffeine on the heart beats of daphnia?

A. Daphnia need caffeine to pump blood throughout their body.
B. Caffeine causes daphnia to lower their heart rates over time.
C. Caffeine does not affect daphnia’s heart rate.
D. Daphnia given too much caffeine may die.

A

D. Daphnia given too much caffein may die.

The daphnia in the experiment given the most caffeine had a heart rate of 0. Organisms with a heart rate of zero are no longer alive.

41
Q

Based on the data, daphnia that are given too much caffeine may die. Which of the following experimental practices would strengthen the conclusion made about daphnia and caffeine?

A. The experimenter should test the experiment with other substances besides caffeine.
B. The experimenter should test the experiment using different organisms.
C. The experimenter should test each condition more than once.
D. The experimenter should collect data after 10 minutes instead of 5 minutes.

A

C. The experimenter should test each condition more than once.

To improve this experiment, the experimenter could test each condition multiple times and take the average of each trial.

42
Q

Which of the following is the dependent variable in this experiment?

A. Lenth of time measuring heart beats
B. Amount of caffeine
C. Number of heart beats
D. Type of organism

A

C. Number of heart beats

The number of heart beats is the observed condition that is responding to the amount of caffeine given to the daphnia.

43
Q

Which of the following hypotheses is supported by the data?

A. All organisms increase their heart beats when given caffeine.
B. Organisms decrease their heart beats when exposed to caffeine.
C. When given caffeine, daphnia increase their heart rate.
D. When given caffeine, daphnia decrease their heart rate.

A

C. When given caffeine, daphnia increase their heart rate.

According the date, the daphnia’s heart rate was increased when given caffeine. For example, a daphnia given no caffeine had a heart rate of 180 beats per minute, but the daphnia given 1 mg of caffeine had an increased heart rate of 207 beats per minture. The daphnia that was given 2 mg of caffeine had a heart rate of 0, meaning it is no longer alive. This does not necessarily mean the caffeine decreased the heart rate because there is no pattern of this seen in the date.

44
Q

Which of the following best explains the maintenance of a nearly constant average temperature on the surface of the Earth?

A. The amounts of solar energy absorbed, and radiant energy emitted by the Earth exist in equilibrium.
B. Photosynthesis in plants and other organisms consumes the majority of incoming solar radiation.
C. Energy emitted by nuclear reactions in the Earth’s crust exceeds energy loss by radiation from the Earth.
D. The Sun provides a continuous source of radiant energy entering the Earth’s system at a constant rate.

A

A. The amounts of solar energy absorbed, and radiant energy emitted by the Earth exist in equilibrium.

Maintaining a constant temperature requires a balance between entry and exit of energy.

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