SCI Flashcards

1
Q
  1. 40 year old with hypertension on Clonidine and diabetes on insulin has erectile dysfunction. What is the best treatment?
    A) discontinue HTN meds
    B) papaverine injection
    C) sexual counseling
A
Answer: A
 Antihypertensive medications can decrease libido and cause erectile dysfunction.
 Clonidine can be changed to another class of medications to see if side effects lessen. Diabetes can cause erectile dysfunction secondary to neuropathy. Papaverine is a non-specific smooth muscle relaxant which decreases resistance to arterial inflow and increases resistance to venous outflow. It is an intercavernous injection used in neurogenic erectile dysfunction. The use of papaverine as monotherapy has decreased due to it adverse effects (corporal fibrosis).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Which muscle is tested for ASIA C5?
    A) deltoid
    B) biceps
    C) brachioradialis
    D) triceps
A

Answer: B
See chart below (question 10)

ASIA Motor Exam (for questions 9 & 10)

Level Muscle Level Muscle
C5: elbow flexors biceps/brachialis L2: hip flexors iliopsoas
C6: wrist extensors ECRL/ECRB L3: knee extensor quadriceps
C7: elbow extensor Triceps L4: ankle DF anterior tibialis
C8: 3rd DIP flexor FDP L5: 1st toe extensor EHL
T1: 5th digit abductor ADM S1: ankle PF gastroc/soleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. Which muscle is tested for ASIA C6?
    A) biceps
    B) brachioradialis
    C) triceps
    D) extensor carpi radialis longus
A

Answer: D

ASIA Motor Exam (for questions 9 & 10)

Level Muscle Level Muscle
C5: elbow flexors biceps/brachialis L2: hip flexors iliopsoas
C6: wrist extensors ECRL/ECRB L3: knee extensor quadriceps
C7: elbow extensor Triceps L4: ankle DF anterior tibialis
C8: 3rd DIP flexor FDP L5: 1st toe extensor EHL
T1: 5th digit abductor ADM S1: ankle PF gastroc/soleus

Ref: Archives of PM&R 2002 Study Guide 83(3): S51

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. What change is seen in muscle after 2 weeks of bed rest?
    A) decreased number of myofibrils
    B) atrophy of type II fibers
    C) transformation of type I fiber into type II fibers
    D) increase in number of sarcomeres
A

Muscle Fiber Types
Type I: slow twitch oxidative
 low intensity, high endurance (i.e. postural muscles)
• low activity myosin ATPase
• slow speed of contraction
• less glycolytic capacity
• abundant mitochondrial enzymes for aerobic metabolism
• fatigue-resistant; suited for prolonged aerobic exercise

Type II: fast twitch oxidative/glycolytic
 high intensity
• high activity myosin ATPase
• fast action potential transmission
• rapid calcium release and uptake by sarcoplasmic reticulum
• high rate cross-bridge turnover

Type IIa: fast twitch oxidative glycolytic
• fast contraction speed
• both aerobic and anaerobic capacity

Type IIb: fast twitch glycolytic
• greatest anaerobic potential

Ref: Braddom 2nd Edition: p 704-706; PT Secrets: p 8; PM&R Secrets: p 487

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. A cognitively intact man with C2 ASIA A SCI states that he wants to die. What do you do?
    A) tell him it is early and his full recovery potential is not yet known
    B) have a family meeting
    C) start anti-depressant medication
A

Answer: A (?)
There doesn’t seem to be enough information in this question but assuming that this scenario is referring to a patient soon after his injury, choice A would seem the most appropriate. As time elapses after the injury, choices B and C would be appropriate.

Ref: none

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. What is seen in a wheelchair athlete who clamps his foley before a race?
    A) increased BP
    B) increased SV
    C) increased CO
    D) increased A-V O2 difference
A

Answer: A
Autonomic dysreflexia is an acute hypertensive syndrome with compensatory reduction in heart rate and contractility. Pounding headaches and sweating are often seen. Symptoms are due to a hyperactive reflex sympathetic discharge and is seen in patients with spinal cord lesions above T5-T6. Autonomic dysreflexia is caused by viscus distention or noxious stimuli below the level of the lesion (i.e. urologic obstruction, bowel impaction, infection, intra-abdominal process). Treatment includes identification and elimination of the cause (i.e. catherization, disempaction, treatment of infection). Immediate blood pressure reduction can also be treated with nitropaste or nifedipine.

Ref: PM&R Secrets, p 208, 475

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Which shoulder motions are not involved in wheelchair propulsion?
    A) Adduction
    B) Abduction
    C) internal rotation
    D) external rotation
A

Answer: A
Shoulders are abducted during wheelchair propulsion. Internal rotation and external rotation at the shoulder occur with forward and backward propulsion of the wheels, respectively.

Ref: none

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Long term use of Didronel can cause which of the following?
    A) pathologic fracture
    B) decrease mineralization following surgery
    C) osteopenia
    D) dissolve bone formed by HO
A
Answer: B
 Etidronate disodium (Didronel) is a bisphosphonate which inhibits growth of hydroxyapatite crystals by preventing the precipitation of calcium phosphate. It also slows the rate of osteoclastic and osteoblastic activity. It cannot dissolve any bone already formed by HO; however, may prevent recurrence of HO after resection (no good studies; radiation and NSAIDs more effective?). Didronel carries a potential risk of bone fracture secondary to osteomalacia when used for prolonged periods. It can also inhibit mineralization of bone after surgery.

Ref: PDR 2002: p 2888; Essentials of PM&R: p 574; PM&R Clinics of North America 1992: 3(2) p 411-413; Pocketpaedia: p 88

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. A patient has absent sensation below T6 on th left and no motor function below T6 on the right. Where is the lesion?
    A) left cord
    B) right cord
    C) cortex
A

Answer: B
Brown-Sequard syndrome is caused by a hemisection of the cord, resulting in ipsilateral mono/hemiparesis with contralateral pain and temperature sensation deficits. It is often caused by knife or gun shot wounds to the back or asymmetrically oriented spinal tumors. Prognosis for motor recovery is good.

Central cord syndrome results in weakness in the UE>>LE with preserved sacral sensation. There is LE hyperreflexia with UE mixed UMN/LMN changes. Causes include spinal stenosis secondary to extension injury, intramedullary hematoma / mass, or syrinx.

Anterior cord syndrome results in hyporeflexia, atrophy, variable motor loss, preservation of proprioception, but impaired pin prick and temperature sensation. Common causes include thoracolumbar burst fracture, AAA, and aortic clamping surgey with compromise to the artery of Adamkiewicz.

Posterior cord (dorsal column) syndrome results in bilateral deficits in proprioception. Potential causes include vitamin B12 deficiency often from pernicious anemia (subacute combined deficiency) and syphilis (tabes dorsalis).

Ref: PM&R Secrets: p 205-206

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. What is the FIM score of a tetraplegic patient who can self-administer a suppository without help?
    A) 6
    B) 7
    C) 4
    D) 5
A

Answer: A
The bowel FIM score for the patient is a 6 (modified independent); although the suppository is administered independently, bowel evacuation requires the use of the suppository.

Functional Independence Measure (FIM)
Level of Function Score Definition
Independent 7 Complete independence. Task performed safely, without modifications, AD, and aids, and within a reasonable amount of time.
Independent 6 Modified independence. One of more of the following may be true: task requires AD, takes ↑ time, or there are safety issues.
Dependent 5 Supervision / setup. Requires more help than standby or cueing without physical contact, or setup.
Dependent 4 Minimal assistance. Patient expends more than 75% of effort.
Dependent 3 Moderate assistance. Patient expends 50-75% of effort.
Dependent 2 Maximal assistance. Patient expends 25-50% of effort.
Dependent 1 Total assistance. Patient expends less than 25% of effort.

Ref: Braddom 2nd Edition: p 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

?103. Prophylactic ABX use in SCI has been shown to decrease the incidence of which of the following?

A

Abx. Are generally reserved for persons symptomatic with fever and leukocytosis and for those demonstrating catheter blockage, increased spasticity, or very foul urine. Reference: Braddom, 2nd ed, pg 1256.
For those who have had indwelling Foley catheters for an extended period and require catheter removal oe exchange, ABX should be administered prophylactically before, during and afterremoval of the existing catheter. Gentamcin 80mg IM once just prior to removal of the catheter is appropriate for most pts. With stable renal function. Patients who demonstrate recurrent infections should be considered for suppressive treatment. Nitrofurantoin 50-100mg po BID is sufficient. Methanamine hippurate 1g TID and Ascorbic acid 500mg qd acidify the urine and are good for UTI prophylaxis.
Reference: PM&R Essentials, pg 634.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. What is the best type of anesthesia to give a pregnant C6 complete tetraplegia?
A

Answer- Spinal anesthesia is recommended during delivery for pts. with SCI at T6 or above.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Vibroejaculatory stimulation and electrostimulation in the SCI male- know side effect?
A

Answer- Autonomic Dysreflexia

Vibratory stimulation of the glans penis has been used successfully by various groups to collect semen via antegrade and retrograde ejaculation (successful in about 50% SCI pts) as it requires an intact reflex arc. Ejaculatory success is better with high amplitude vibration. The advantages are noninvasiveness, home use, possibility of “natural fertilization, and that retrograde emission is less likely than with transrectal electrical stimulation. Improvement in quantity and quality of sperm with weekly use of vibratory ejaculatory technique may occur. The disadvantages are unpredictable response in many pts and the risk of autonomic dysreflexia.
Transrectal electrical stimulation or electroejaculation involves stimulation of the myelinated preganglionic efferent sympathetic fibers of the hypogastric plexus to obtain seminal emission into the posterior urethra. The semen is obtained from the posterior urethra by milking the urethral bulb and by catherization. Electroejaculation is an office or hospital based procedure b/c of the need to monitor for autonomic dyreflexia and the anoscopy performed to evaluate the rectal mucosa.
Reference: Braddom,2nd ed., pg 630.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Which GI complication is most responsible for SCI pt 1 week post injury who develops nauseau and vomiting?
A

Answer- Gastroparesis- from high Ca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

?107. Drugs of choice for radicular pain in SCI pts.?

A

Answer- Anticonvulsants
Could not find reference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

?108. What is the first choice of to treat radicular pain in SCI pt.?

A

Answer- Neurontin
Could not find reference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. Paraplegic pt. recently given TLSO with n/v of meals. What do you do?
A

Answer- Turn pt. on right side

Superior mesenteric syndrome- syndrome in which the SMA compresses the third portion of the duodenum producing postprandial nausea, emesis, abdominal pain, distention and dehydration. It is exacerbated by being supine and spinal orthotics. Treatment includes small frequent meals, side lying and Reglan.
Reference: Kessler Notes 2003, Lecture 19, Tx of Acute SCI Pt. & Medical Complications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Which antibiotic class is indicated for a pregnant female with SCI and symptomatic UTI?
A

Answer- Cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Where is the most common location of osteoporosis in a young male T1 complete para who is wheelchair bound?
A

Answer- Proximal femur

The most measurable complication of osteoporosis following SCI is pathologic fracture. The historical incidence of fractures in the SCI population has been 1.45-6%; however, this historically low incidence may be deceptive since most SCI patients who sustain subsequent traumas and fractures are not treated in SCI centers. In addition, these studies on fractures have come from inpatient charts. Recently, the Model Spinal Cord Injury System has produced figures on fracture rates based on time following SCI, with incidences of 14% at 5 years, 28% at 10 years, and 39% at 15 years postinjury. These incidence rates are based on outpatient studies and have been confirmed.
The sites of fractures mimic the sites of greatest osteoporosis, with the supracondylar region and tibia being the most common. A bone mineral density fracture threshold of 50% appears to exist for the knee, and this most likely is the bone mineral density fracture threshold for most regions in the body.
Fracture rates in the lower extremities are 10 times greater in patients with complete SCI compared to patients with incomplete injuries. Paraplegic patients are at higher risk than tetraplegic patients, due to the higher level of function that paraplegic individuals have with increased mobility and participation in physical activities. Reference- E-Medicine, Osteoporosis and SCI.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Q171. Who is not a candidate for a phrenic nerve stimulator?
A) COPD
A) C2 SCI
B) Pt who is vent dependent

A

A. (given correct answer: A)
Phrenic nerve stimulation is a valuable adjunct in the care of the patient with ventilatory insufficiency who has a normal phrenic nerve, diaphragm, and lungs. Specifically, this technique is useful in persons with high level quadreplegia accompanied by respiratory paralysis and central hypoventilation syndromes.
Ref Braddom 2nd ed. 2000 p 476

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Q219 Complications of electroejaculation
A) Autonomic dysreflexia
B) Infertility
C) Pain
D) Penile strictures

A

A (Correct answer is A)
Electroejaculation is the rhythmic delivery of current using a rectal probe to sympathetic efferent fibers. These techniques carry the risk of autonomic dysreflexia.
http://www.emedicine.com/orthoped/topic425.htm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Q 269. Know about immobilization hypercalcemia in SCI patient and SMA syndrome(? Didn’t find anything on SMA in SCI)

A

: Any form of immobilization alters calcium metabolism, but the structural and physiological changes associated with SCI predispose these patients to a variety of complications. These include hypercalcemia, bone fractures, nephrolithiasis, and renal failure. As early as 10 days post injury, hypercalciuria develops, reaching a peak between 1 and 6 months post injury. This calcium is derived from bone resorption, as increased levels of urinary phosphate, hydroxyproline, and glycosaminoglycans are also observed. There is an initial suppression of parathyroid hormone(PTH) that reaches its nadir at 3 months and returns to the normal range at 6 months. Pathological studies demonstrate an increased number of osteoclasts in bone, reaching a peak at 16 weeks post-injury, with diminished bone formation and mineralization.
Hypercalcemia is seen in some patients. Risk factors for hypercalcemia include childhood/adolescent SCI, male sex, complete injuries, tetraplegia, dehydration, and prolonged immobilization. Signs and symptoms of hypercalcemia include nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, lethargy, apathy, fatigue, polydipsia, polyuria, muscle weakness, and anorexia. Mnemonic “stones, bones, and abdominal groans.” Treatment of hypercalcemia can include IV fluids, diuretics(ie furosemide), pamidronate, and calcitonin. Limitation of dietary calcium and Vitamin D intake is not recommended.
Ref: Braddom, PM&R, 2nd Edition, p 1249*, 709
PM&R Secrets, p.433

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Q 281. Most common upper extremity injury in T-10 SCI from wheeling wheelchair(impingement, etc)?

A

A: Impingement Syndrome in shoulder…
Chronic shoulder impingement syndrome is a common injury in wheelchair users. It occurs when joint space between the humeral head (upper arm) and the acromioclavicular (A/C) shelf (top of the shoulder, at the end of the collarbone) decreases to the point where repeated contact occurs in the same spot on the supraspinatus tendon. This results in a pain, swelling, lesions and a reduction in the use of the shoulder joint. The most common factor of this condition is thought to be lack of joint stability. While joint stability is maintained by a combination of different bones and tissues, the most probable cause of the lack of stability is thought to be muscular imbalance (where some muscles are stronger or have greater endurance than others).
Ref: http://www.lerner.ccf.org/bme/bogert/lab/shoulder_stability.php Analysis of Shoulder Stability in Wheelchair User, J. Brems, M.D., Department of Orthopedic Surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

440) What is the best type of anesthesia to give a pregnant C6 complete tetraplegia?

A

spinal anesthesia,

other answers:

pudendal block, stellate ganglion block, general anesthesia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

461) Which statement is true regarding marriage in SCI-injured women?

A

Rate of divorce is higher if married prior to SCI than post-SCI.

(Kreuter, SCI and Partner Relationships, Spinal Cord, Jan 2000)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

318) The most common site for heterotopic ossification in SCI patients is at the
a) Shoulder
b) Elbow
c) Hip
d) Knee

A

C. In SCI, the incidence of HO is 20%, with most occurring in the hip region. The knee is also commonly affected. Garland DE. Clinical observations on fractures and heterotopic ossification in the spinal cord and traumatic brain injured populations. Clin Orthop. 1988 Aug;(233):86-101.
In TBI patients, HO involves the upper and lower extremities equally. The incidence of HO ranges from 11-76%, most commonly involving the shoulder, elbow, and hip, occurring infrequently at the knee. PM&R Secrets, 1997, p. 240.
Braddom includes the knees, although the incidence for each joint is not given in either reference.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

335) An 18 year old man s/p MVA is now a C5 ASIA A tetraplegic. His family insists that you do NOT inform the patient of his diagnosis/prognosis, and threatens to sue if you do. How should you proceed?
a) Tell the patient immediately
b) Tell the patient at a more appropriate time
c) Obey the family’s wish and do not tell the patient
d) Call Risk Management

A

B. I cannot find evidence on this one, so here goes my explanation. There is no need to tell the patient immediately. On the other hand, the patient is an adult and your primary responsibility is to the patient, not the family. There is no need to call Risk Management at this time, as the family has no grounds for a lawsuit even if you told the patient immediately (although if it happened on 8GN you would be ordered to call STAT). The obvious answer is to wait until a more appropriate time, after the family has time to calm down and accept the reality of their relative’s situation. Bill Kane, 2004.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

367) The ASIA classification of a SCI patient who can move his legs against gravity but not resistance with intact sacral sensation is
a) ASIA A
b) ASIA B
c) ASIA C
d) ASIA D

A

D. Based on the ASIA classification revised in 2000, the highest intact level (normal muscle strength or > 3/5 with the next level being normal) determines the level of injury. ASIA classification is based on completeness of injury. ASIA A indicates no motor or sensory preservation below the level of injury. ASIA B indicates sacral sparing. ASIA C is motor incomplete with more than half of the muscle groups below the level of injury with muscle grade < 3/5. ASIA D is also motor incomplete, wit hat least half of the muscle groups > 3/5. 2002 SAE-R Answer Key and Commentary on Preferred Choices, #115.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

375) A patient with a C7 ASIA class A SCI should be independent with
a) Intermittent self-catheterization
b) Transfers
c) Ambulation on flat surfaces
d) Stair climbing

A

B. Persons with motor level C7 ASIA class A should be able to feed, dress, and bathe themselves using adaptive equipment and built-up utensils, independent with bed mobility, and level surface transfers, and should be able to propel a wheelchair outdoors. Independence in bowel and bladder function is generally seen with injury level at T1 and lower. 2003 SAE-R Answer Key and Commentary on Preferred Choices, #15.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

390) Prophylactic antibiotic use in SCI patients has been shown to decrease the incidence of
a) Bacteruria
b) Pyelonephritis
c) Cystitis
d) Visits to the Columbia SCI clinic

A

B. I could not find evidence to support any of the choices given. Choosing a method of bladder management that minimizes the use of a foreign body, yet drains the bladder effectively, is the best available means to reduce the risk of UTI. The chief drawback to antimicrobial-coated catheters, topical or intravesicular antiseptic agents, and prophylactic oral antibiotics is that, over time, bacteria become resistant and overcome the obstacles to bladder invasion. Therefore, anti-infective catheter materials, antibiotics, and antiseptic agents are not beneficial for long-term prevention of UTI in persons with SCI. Novel approaches that avoid the use of antimicrobial agents offer hope for patients with recurrent UTI, but these techniques are still in the experimental stage. Trautner BW, Darouiche RO. Prevention of urinary tract infection in patients with spinal cord injury. J Spinal Cord Med. 2002 Winter; 25(4): 277-83.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

374) A patient with a C5 ASIA class A SCI should be independent with
a) Feeding
b) Dressing
c) Transfers
d) Manual wheelchair propulsion

A

A. For persons with motor level C5, activities of daily living include drinking from a cup and feeding with static spoons and set-up, some oral/facial hygiene, writing and typing with equipment, and possibly some upper body dressing. At the C6 injury level, individuals are able to feed and perform upper body dressing with set-up and can perform level surface transfers with assistance. 2003 SAE-R Answer Key and Commentary on Preferred Choices, #15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

392) The best choice for DVT prophylaxis in SCI patients is
a) Unfractionated heparin
b) Low molecular weight heparin
c) Coumadin
d) Ticlid

A

B. Initial experience with LMWH in SCI patients has demonstrated both an improved safety profile and superior thrombosis prevention when compared to earlier modes of treatment. LMWHs also exhibit better subcutaneous absorption, longer half-life (QD or BID dosing), and smoother anticoagulant response (do not reduce platelet activity or change vascular permeability). Braddom 2nd Ed, Ch. 55, p. 1252.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

492.SCI male – what are side effects and nerve pathways involved in vibroejaculatory stimulation and electrostimulation?

A

Ans. These are techniques to restore fertility by restoring ejaculation in SCI males. Vibroejaculatory stimulation of the glans penis is used to collect semen. It is only successful in 50% of SCI males as it requires an intact reflex arc. Pathway involves stimulation of the pudendal nerve which results in contraction of the bulbocavernosus muscle leading to ejaculation. Success is better with high amplitude stimulation. Main disadvantage/side-effect is risk of autonomic dysreflexia. Advantages are noninvasiveness, home use, possibility of natural fertilization, and lower chance of retrograde emission.
Transrectal electrical stimulation or electroejaculation is the most common method of obtaining semen in the US. Can be obtained from 90% of patients. It involves stimulation of the myelinated preganglionic efferent sympathetic fibers of the hypogastric plexus to obtain seminal emission into the posterior urethra. Semen is then obtained by milking the urethral bulb and then catheterization. Disadvantage – decrease in sperm motility, more than in the case of vibratory stimulation. Also, it is an office/hospital based procedure.
Braddom, Chapter 30, page 630.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

? 493.What is most common reason for young male para complete T6 has difficulty with self catheterization?

A

Ans. Increased sphincter spasm. I could not find a definitive answer to this. Complications with self cath in someone who is able to do it (C8 are independent in B/B care with setup, T1 completely independent) are sphincter spasm (managed with lubrication, local anesthetic gel, or coude catheter), urethral trauma, or stone formation. Best answer is most likely sphincter spasm.
Tan, Practical Manual of PM&R, Chapter 5.7, page 545.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
  1. Elderly male has a fall and develops UE weakness >>> LE weakness, sphincter control and sensation intact. What is diagnosis (anterior cord, central cord, Brown-Sequard syndrome)
A

Ans. Central cord syndrome. Most common of the SCI clinical syndromes. Often associated with neck hyperextension injuries in elderly individuals with spondylosis. This is an incomplete injury, characterized by weakness more severe in arms than legs, with sparing of bladder and bowel function.
Braddom, Chapter 55 (SCI Medicine), page 1233.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
  1. A C7 complete tetraplegic is independent with w/c mobility and transfers with sliding board. Which of the following is most responsible for his independence? (removable arm rests, pneumatic tires, etc )
A

Ans. Removable arm rests. This is necessary so patient can transfer from chair to bed and vice versa.
Braddom, Chapter 18 (prescription of WC’s), page 378

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  1. Where would you expect a cord lesion in patient with absent bulbocavernosus reflex? (conus medullaris, cauda equina, T10 incomplete para, L4 complete para).
A

Ans. Conus medullaris. Bulbocavernosus reflex is a polysynaptic (S2-S4) sacral withdrawal reflex. Present in all normal individuals, and in SCI patients with lesions above the conus. Tested by squeezing glans and feeling contraction of anal sphincter muscle, or can be recorded objectively by stimulating dorsal nerve of penis and picking up EMG response in the anal sphincter muscle.
Secrets, Chapter 77 (urologic disorders in rehab), Pg. 474.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

? 497. Which GI complication is most responsible for N/V in SCI patient 1 wk post injury? (decreased gastric emptying, increased gastric motility)

A

Ans. Decreased gastric emptying. Note: N/V can also be presenting sign of immobilization hypercalcemia, but this develops several weeks to few months after injury. Delayed gastric emptying is common in these patients and is a common cause of N/V. Constipation can also lead to n/v.
Braddom, Chapter 55, page 1257 (for general info, I could not fine a direct reference for which is MOST common)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
  1. A patient with SCI has been on bowel regimen for 3 months and takes patient 3 hours to complete each day (maximum meds). What would be next most reasonable option?
A

Ans. Surgical management – colostomy. This offers independent bowel management, less incontinence, and decreased bowel care time.
Secrets, chapter 76 (neurogenic bowel), page 469

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  1. SCI patient is prescribed a new abx to treat bacteuria and prevent pyelonephritis. What is the optimal experimental setup to test effectiveness of the drug in this single patient? (observational study, retrospective case report, randomized placebo controlled trial of single subject)?
A

Ans. Observational study. Randomized trial cannot be done with single subject, so observational study is best answer.
(I could not find a specific reference, but this seems the obvious choice).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
  1. What is altered in PFT’s of a SCI patient when repositioned from sitting to supine position. (TLC, VC, RV, tidal volume)?
A

Ans. VC is increased when lying down in SCI. As opposed to other pulmonary conditions, patients with tetraplegia secondary to SCI exhibit higher vital capacities when lying down. This is related to improved diaphragmatic function as abdominal contents splint the lower rib cage. VC decreases when these patients sit upright, but can be countered to some extent by use of abdominal binder.
Braddom, Chapter 55, page 1248

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
  1. Which abx class is indicated for a pregnant female with a SCI and symptomatic UTI? (macrolides, cephalosporins, quinolones, Sulfa drugs)
A

Ans. Cephalosporins. The rest are pregnancy category C and should be avoided in pregnant women.
Pharmacopoeia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
  1. Where is most common location of osteoporosis in a young male T1 complete para who is wheelchair bound (pelvis, femur, humerus, lumbar spine)?
A

Ans. Distal femur. Bone loss following SCI occurs throughout the skeletal system, with the exception of the skull. These losses are regional; areas rich in trabecular bone are demineralized to the greatest degree. The distal femur and proximal tibia are the bones most affected, followed by the pelvis. Lumbar spine is usually preserved.
Emedicine – Osteoporosis and spinal cord injury http://www.emedicine.com/pmr/topic96.htm

44
Q
  1. Heterotopic ossification is located in which interface (muscle-muscle, muscle – bone, muscle-tendon)
A

Ans. Muscle-muscle. HO is the development of para-articular ossification usually on the flexor surfaces of large joints, seen in individuals with SCI, TBI, burns, or after THA. The ectopic bone formation occurs in the connective tissue between muscles planes, and not within the muscle itself.
Braddom, Chapter 55, page 1261

45
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding treatment of asymptomatic bacteruria in SCI?
A

Ans. Should not be treated. It is not treated in patients with indwelling foleys or suprapubic tubes. Even patients on CIC may develop colonization, which is generally not treated. Treatment is reserved for those with fever, pyuria, foul smelling urine, or increased spasticity.
Braddom, Chapter 55 (spinal cord injury medicine), page 1256

46
Q

565.What are the drugs of choice for radicular pain in SCI patients?

A

Braddom suggests nerve root blocks for pain relief. No oral or IV med is suggested , but there is a discussion of deafferentation central pain for SCI patients that states that the use of anticonvulsants is limited by the need for lab tests and side effects. Tricyclics have been used, however, for decades. Braddom 2nd ed p. 1258

47
Q

571.According to ASIA classification, what is considered the L4 muscle of choice?

A

TIBIALIS ANTERIOR. Action: ankle dorsiflexion. The ASIA (American Spinal Cord Injury Association) scoring system is the most commonly accepted impairment evaluation paradigm for SCI. Key muscles are examined for myotomes and graded 0-5. The system classifies the patient on the basis of the clinical exam. The Rehabilitation of People with Spinal Cord Injury: A House Officer’s Guide 1999 Shanker Nesathurai p. 26

48
Q
  1. When do you start intermittent catheterization in an acute SCI patient?
A

Intermittent catheterization is usually inappropriate in the acute, ICU setting, when the patient is receiving IV fluids, and when dietary intake and urinary output are inconsistent. Intermittent catheterization is best reserved for a time when the patient’s urinary output and clinical status are stabilized. Braddom 2nd ed p. 1256

49
Q

Q. 722 What do you find with autonomic dysreflexia?

A

A: Sweating
A patient may have one or more of the following findings on physical examination:
• A sudden significant rise in both systolic and diastolic blood pressures, usually associated with bradycardia, can appear. Normal systolic blood pressure for SCI above T6 is 90-110 mm Hg. Blood pressure 20-40 mm Hg above the reference range for such patients may be a sign of AD.
• Profuse sweating above the level of lesion, especially in the face, neck, and shoulders, may be noted, but it rarely occurs below the level of the lesion because of sympathetic cholinergic activity.
• Goose bumps above, or possibly below, the level of the lesion may be observed.
• Flushing of the skin above the level of the lesion, especially in the face, neck, and shoulders, frequently is noted.
• The patient may report blurred vision.
• Appearance of spots in the patient’s visual fields may be noted.
• Nasal congestion is common.
• No symptoms may be observed, despite elevated blood pressure.
www.emedicine.com, AD in SCI by Denise I Compagnolo, MD,MS

50
Q

Q 908. What do you see in lesions of the cauda equine?

A

A: A lesion of the cauda equine produces LMN symptoms. It is often gradual and unilateral. Both ankle and knee jerks are affected. Severe radicular pain. Can have low back pain. Saddle anesthesia with decrease to pin/LT in a dermatomal distribution. Affected muscles will exhibit atrophy and atonia. Urinary retention can present late in the process.

51
Q

Q 910. What is common in women after spinal cord injures?
A. Decreased libido
B. Decreased fertility

A

Answer=A. The most common sexual concern for women with or without disabilities is low desire. Ability to bear children is usually not affected though may present challenges to SCI female.

Ref: Braddom, Ch. 30 (Sexuality Issues in Persons with Disabilities) p. 624, 631

52
Q

Q 911. What is the mode of action of Baclofen?

A

A: Baclofen acts as a GABA agonist by binding to the GABA B receptor. It inhibits calcium influx into presynaptic terminals and suppresses the release of excitatory neurotransmitters. Baclofen inhibits both mono- and polysynaptic reflexes and reduces activity at the gamma efferent. It readily crosses the BBB in contrast to GABA. Renally excreted.

Ref: Braddom, Ch. 29 (Spasticity) p. 604

53
Q

Q 912. Osteoporosis in SCI- can it be prevented by standing in brace daily or no effect?

A

A: A number of interventions have been studied in the hope of preventing and treating disorders of calcium metabolism in spinal cord subjects. Physical activity, including wheelchair use, frame-assisted standing, and tilt table, might improve calcium balance in the acute phase, but no effect on bone density has been demonstrated. Functional electrical stimulation cycle ergometry can provide modest reductions in the rate of bone loss, sustained only during the period of application.

Ref: Braddom, Chapter 55 (SCI Medicine) p. 1250

54
Q

Q 914. How do spinal cord injuries affect women?

A

(decreased fertility, increased miscarriages, decreased libido, or early menarche?)

55
Q

565.What are the drugs of choice for radicular pain in SCI patients?

A

Braddom suggests nerve root blocks for pain relief. No oral or IV med is suggested , but there is a discussion of deafferentation central pain for SCI patients that states that the use of anticonvulsants is limited by the need for lab tests and side effects. Tricyclics have been used, however, for decades. Braddom 2nd ed p. 1258

56
Q

……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
Q 908. What do you see in lesions of the cauda equine?

A

A: A lesion of the cauda equine produces LMN symptoms. It is often gradual and unilateral. Both ankle and knee jerks are affected. Severe radicular pain. Can have low back pain. Saddle anesthesia with decrease to pin/LT in a dermatomal distribution. Affected muscles will exhibit atrophy and atonia. Urinary retention can present late in the process.

Ref: http://www.emedicine.com/neuro/topic667.htm

57
Q

Q 910. What is common in women after spinal cord injures?
A. Decreased libido
B. Decreased fertility

A

Answer=A. The most common sexual concern for women with or without disabilities is low desire. Ability to bear children is usually not affected though may present challenges to SCI female.

Ref: Braddom, Ch. 30 (Sexuality Issues in Persons with Disabilities) p. 624, 631

58
Q

Q 911. What is the mode of action of Baclofen?

A

A: Baclofen acts as a GABA agonist by binding to the GABA B receptor. It inhibits calcium influx into presynaptic terminals and suppresses the release of excitatory neurotransmitters. Baclofen inhibits both mono- and polysynaptic reflexes and reduces activity at the gamma efferent. It readily crosses the BBB in contrast to GABA. Renally excreted.

Ref: Braddom, Ch. 29 (Spasticity) p. 604

59
Q

Q 912. Osteoporosis in SCI- can it be prevented by standing in brace daily or no effect?

A

A: A number of interventions have been studied in the hope of preventing and treating disorders of calcium metabolism in spinal cord subjects. Physical activity, including wheelchair use, frame-assisted standing, and tilt table, might improve calcium balance in the acute phase, but no effect on bone density has been demonstrated. Functional electrical stimulation cycle ergometry can provide modest reductions in the rate of bone loss, sustained only during the period of application.

Ref: Braddom, Chapter 55 (SCI Medicine) p. 1250

60
Q

**Q 915. Treatment with antibiotics in SCI in the short term….

A

(decreased bacteriuria, decreased urosepsis, decreased pyelonephritis?

61
Q

Q 914. How do spinal cord injuries affect women?
(decreased fertility, increased miscarriages, decreased libido, or early menarche?)

A

A: Menstruation may not occur 3 or more months after CNS trauma. Vaginal lubrication occurs with reflex stimulation as long as the conus and autonomic connections remain intact. After complete spinal cord injury at level T6 and above, psychogenic subjective arousal does not produce vaginal lubrication; manual clitoral stimulation produces reflex lubrication and increased vaginal pulse amplitude. Fertility is generally not significantly affected by spinal cord injury. Pregnancy may be complicated by UTI’s, decubiti, constipation, and mobility limitations. Labor is initiated and driven hormonally. The delivery can be vaginally but should be anticipated and monitored, with autonomic hyperreflexia prevention and preparedness for forceps use or cesarean techniques. The most common sexual concern for women with or without disabilities is low desire.

Ref: Braddom Ch. 30 (Sexuality Issues in Persons with Disabilities) p. 624, 631;
1997 Secrets Ch. 10 (Satisfying Sexuality Despite Disability) p. 63

62
Q

Q 916. What is the lowest grade for ASIA level of injury?

A

A: On the ASIA Impairment Scale, an incomplete level D is motor function preserved below the neurological level, and at least half of the key muscles below the neurological level have a muscle grade of 3 or more. Level A is complete – no motor or sensory function preserved in sacral segments S4-S5. Level B is incomplete – sensory but not motor function is preserved below the neurological level and includes the sacral segments S4-S5. Level C is incomplete – motor function is preserved below the neurological level, and more than half of key muscles below the neurological level have a muscle grade less than 3. Level E is normal – motor and sensory function is normal.

Ref: Braddom Ch. 55 (Spinal Cord Injury Medicine) p. 1235, Figure 55-1

63
Q

Q 918. How will symptoms of syringomyelia present?

A

A: It is a cause of progressive myelopathy. Often idiopathic in some cases, it is associated with developmental anomalies, spinal cord tumors, or late complication of trauma. Dissociated loss of pain and temperature usually in distal upper extremity secondary to spinothalamic involvement. Dorsal columns typically spared.

Ref: http://www.emedicine.com/neuro/topic359.htm

64
Q

Q 919. T10 paraplegics who is pregnant

(at more risk for autonomic hyperreflexia, Should be given more water to prevent UTIs?)

A

A: Seven areas of consideration for pregnant spinal cord injured women:

  1. Autonomic dysreflexia if the lesion is above T6
  2. Bladder management is affected as uterus enlarges affecting the bladder’s ability to fill and at more risk for infections. Intermittent catheterizations may become more difficult.
  3. Mobility (transfers, pressure relief, manual wheelchair propulsion) are variably affected depending on injury level and weight gain.
  4. Spasticity can be problematic and affect positioning for vaginal delivery. Assess medicine treatment for fetal risk.
  5. Skin breakdown.
  6. Significant lower extremity edema and thrombophlebitis are greater concerns because of bilateral lower extremity paralysis.

Ref: 1997 Secrets Ch. 80 (Women’s Issues in Rehab) p. 436

65
Q

**Q 920. What is the bladder capacity of a normal male? (300, 450, 600, 900)
(I couldn’t find anything that definitively stated exact amount. Most references said 300-450 cc for normal average adult)

A

A: Normal values include a capacity of 300 to 600 mL, with an initial sensation of filling at approximately 50% of capacity.

66
Q

Q 921. What is the cause of ureteral reflux? (chronic distended bladder, verticality of ureter in bladder wall)

A

A: Ureteral reflux or high bladder pressure in the absence of reflux can cause upper tract dilation. Dilation without reflux is said to be due to decreased compliance, but recent data from long-term monitoring suggest that baseline pressure elevations are minimal with natural rates of filling, and that increased phasic activity may be more important. With reflux, or ureteral dilation without reflux, the bladder pressure should be lowered with intermittent catheterization and anticholinergics. If reflux fails to improve but bladder pressure responds, a surgical procedure to repair the reflux can be considered. If bladder pressures do not improve, the options are to augment the bladder or, in men, to perform a sphincterotomy and rely on free drainage.

Ref: Braddom Ch. 27 (Management of Bladder Dysfunction) p. 577

67
Q

Q 922. Syringomyelia…(occurs 10 years after SCI, may be caudal or cephalad to lesion

A

A: Syringomyelia is a recognized cause of progressive myelopathy. Posttraumatic syringomyelia has been termed progressive posttraumatic cystic myelopathy (PPCM). The classical clinical signs of PPCM include dissociated loss of pain and temperature sensation, usually in the distal upper extremities. The most common initial symptom is pain. PPCM has been noted as early as 2 months post injury and as late as 23 years. Symptoms commonly consist of segmental or radicular pain, late motor and sensory loss, increased spasticity, and hyperhydrosis. Horner’s syndrome and respiratory insufficiency can be seen with cysts that extend into the brainstem.

Ref: Braddom, Ch. 55 (Spinal Cord Injury Medicine) p. 1259

68
Q

Q 926. When do you use intrathecal baclofen?
A. Increased sedation on po baclofen
B. Poor response to baclofen 60mg daily
C. Cerebral spasticity
D. UE spasticity

A

Answer=A. Baclofen is probably the drug of choice in spinal forms of spasticity and may help to improve bladder control. The ideal patient has some preserved function below the level of the lesion. Higher dosages of baclofen can be placed near the spinal cord – the desired site for action of the drug while largely avoiding the CNS side effects associated with increased oral intake.
Ref: Braddom Ch. 29 (Spasticity); p. 606
1997 Secrets Ch. 90 (Spasticity); p. 488,489

69
Q

Q 927. What are the contraindications to phrenic nerve pacing?

A

copd?

70
Q

Q 928. What is the best test for heterotopic ossification (HO) maturity?
A. Bone scan
B. Xray
C. MRI

A

Answer=A. Triple-phase bone scans demonstrate abnormalities sooner than plain radiographs. The triple-phase bone scan, performed using radiolabeled diphosphates, is very helpful for early detection of HO. The first two phases, dynamic blood flow study and static scan for blood pool, are the most sensitive for early detection.

Ref: Braddom Ch. 49 (Brain Injury Rehab); p. 1104
Braddom Ch. 55 (Spinal Cord Injury Medicine) p. 1262

71
Q

Q 931. SCI patient after outdoor daytime picnic with temp 101.9 without a source- negative UA, normal CBC, and a physical exam is normal.
A. Observe
B. Doppler the LEs

A

Answer= A. I am assuming that this is not an acute spinal cord injury based on the scenario. If this were acute, then a further work up should be done. The inability of tetraplegic and high paraplegic patients to control their body temperature is most striking in the period immediately after injury. These patients retain the ability to mount a febrile response to infectious conditions. Patients without leukocytosis should be evaluated for venous thromboembolism and HO as a source of their fever. As a patient progresses into rehab and chronic phase of injury, sensitivity to ambient temp remains, although striking dysregulation typically resolves.

Ref: Braddom Ch. 55 (SCI Medicine) p. 1249

72
Q

Q 933. What receptors predominate in the bladder wall?
A. Cholinergic
B. B-agonist
C. Alpha agonist

A

Answer=A. The receptors active during bladder contraction are cholinergic (M2,M3) receptors and are widely distributed in the body of the bladder, trigone, bladder neck, and urethra. Adrenergic receptors are concentrated in the trigone, bladder neck, and urethra and are predominantly alpha-1. Alpha-2 adrenergic receptors are found in the bladder neck and also in the body of the bladder. These receptors are inhibitory when activated and can produce relaxation at the bladder neck on initiation of voiding and relax the bladder body to enhance storage.

Ref: Braddom Ch. 27 (Management of Bladder Dysfunction) p. 561

73
Q

Q 934. What is phenoxybenzamine?

A

A: Phenoxybenzamine is an alpha-adrenergic receptor antagonist and has been used for inhibiting smooth muscle activity at the bladder neck and in the prostate. It reduces irritative symptoms in men with obstruction from BPH and increases emptying in patients with neurogenic voiding dysfunction.

Ref: Braddom Ch. 27 (Management of Bladder Dysfunction) p. 570

74
Q

Q 939. Muscarinic cholinergic receptors are located mostly where in the bladder?

A

A: The detrusor is innervated by cholinergic muscarinic (M2 and M3) receptors.

Ref: Braddom Ch. 27 (Management of Bladder Dysfunction) p. 570

75
Q

Q 1239. A tetraplegic patient is on the proper diet, laxatives, and performs digital stimulation, but it takes him over three hours to complete his bowel program every day. What would the next step of treatment be?
A. increase the fiber in his diet
B. decrease frequency of bowel program
C. consider colostomy

A

Answer: C. Difficult bowel evacuation==more than 60 min/day for bowel care or more than 1 manual disimpaction/week. Colostomy has been performed with good success in the subgroup of these patients with the most severe disability.

(Delisa “Rehab medicine—Principles and Practice”, 2nd Ed, Ch. 36, page 756-757)

76
Q

Q 1249. A syrinx extends
A. cephalad
B. caudad

C. cephalad or caudad

A

Answer: C. In PTS (post-traumatic syringomyelia), cavity formation is followed by enlargement and extension of the cystic cavity. Rostral or caudal cyst extension may occur due to turbulent CSF flow or a “one-way valve” phenomenon that allows CSF into, but not out of, the cyst cavity.

(eMedicine: “Post-traumatic syringomyelia”, Lance Goetz)

77
Q

Q 1250. A tetraplegic develops new upper extremity pain, weakness, and paresthesias. What is the most likely cause?
A. carpal tunnel syndrome
B. ulnar entrapment at the elbow
C. syrinx

A

Answer: C. Post-traumatic syringomyelia (PTS) refers to the development and progression of a cyst filled with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) within the spinal cord. PTS is a relatively infrequent, but potentially devastating, complication following traumatic spinal cord injury (SCI). PTS is characterized clinically by the often insidious progression of pain and loss of sensorimotor function that may manifest many years after traumatic SCI. If left untreated, PTS can result in loss of function, chronic pain, respiratory failure, or death. Approximately 3-4% of persons with traumatic SCI develop clinically symptomatic PTS. A larger percentage of persons have clinically silent syrinx cavities diagnosed by imaging techniques. Pain is the most commonly reported symptom. Pain may be localized or diffuse and commonly is reported as a dull ache or a burning or stabbing sensation. Other symptoms include increased weakness, numbness, increased spasticity, and hyperhidrosis (increased sweating). Symptoms often are aggravated by postural change or the effects of the Valsalva maneuver. Decreased reflex micturition, progressive orthostasis, autonomic dysreflexia, and relatively painless joint deformity or swelling (Charcot joint) also may be reported.

(eMedicine: “Post-traumatic syringomyelia”, Lance Goetz)

78
Q

Q 1267. Determine the ASIA level of a spinal cord injured patients with some sparing of sacral sensation with the following motor exam:
L elbow flexion 5/5 R elbow flexion 5/5
wrist extension 5/5 wrist extension 5/5
elbow extension 1/5 elbow extension 2/5
finger flex/abd 1/5 finger flex/abd 3/5

A. C6 ASIA A
B. C6 ASIA B
C. C7 ASIA A
D. C8 ASIA B

A

Answer: B. The extent of spinal cord injury is defined by the American Spinal Injury Association (ASIA) Impairment Scale (modified from the Frankel classification), using the following categories:
• A - Complete: No sensory or motor function is preserved in sacral segments S4-S5.
• B - Incomplete: Sensory, but not motor, function is preserved below the neurologic level and extends through sacral segments S4-S5.
• C - Incomplete: Motor function is preserved below the neurologic level, and most key muscles below the neurologic level have muscle grade less than 3.
• D - Incomplete: Motor function is preserved below the neurologic level, and most key muscles below the neurologic level have muscle grade greater than or equal to 3.
• E - Normal: Sensory and motor functions are normal.
Perform rectal examination to check motor function or sensation at the anal mucocutaneous junction. The presence of either is considered sacral-sparing. Definitions of complete and incomplete SCI are based on the above ASIA definition with sacral-sparing.
• Complete - Absence of sensory and motor functions in the lowest sacral segments
• Incomplete - Preservation of sensory or motor function below the level of injury, including the lowest sacral segments
Sacral-sparing is evidence of the physiologic continuity of spinal cord long tract fibers with the sacral fibers located more at the periphery of the cord. Indication of the presence of sacral fibers is of significance in defining the completeness of the injury and the potential for some motor recovery. This finding tends to be repeated and better defined after the period of spinal shock. The following key muscles are tested in patients with SCI, and the corresponding level of injury is indicated:
• C5 - Elbow flexors (biceps, brachialis)
• C6 - Wrist extensors (extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis)
• C7 - Elbow extensors (triceps)
• C8 - Finger flexors (flexor digitorum profundus) to the middle finger
• T1 - Small finger abductors (abductor digiti minimi)
• L2 - Hip flexors (iliopsoas)
• L3 - Knee extensors (quad\\\riceps)
• L4 - Ankle dorsiflexors (tibialis anterior)
• L5 - Long toe extensors (extensors hallucis longus)
• S1 - Ankle plantar flexors (gastrocnemius, soleus)
Motor level - Determined by the most caudal key muscles that have muscle strength of 3 or above while the segment above is normal (= 5)
(eMedicine: “Spinal cord injury: Definition, Epidemiology, Pathophysiology”, Segun T)

79
Q

Q 1278. What is necessary during delivery for a pregnant C7 tetraplegic?
A. continuous regional anesthesia (is this a spinal?)
B. C-section
(epidural or spinal was NOT a choice)

A

Answer: A. Labor is initiated and driven hormonally. The delivery can be vaginal but should be anticipated and monitored, with autonomic dysreflexia prevention with anesthesia and preparedness fro forceps use or cesarean section.

(“Physical medicine and rehab secrets”, O’Young, 2nd ed, p.76)

80
Q

Q 1281. What injury would you expect in a patient with a bullet lodged in his L1 vertebrae?

A. cauda equina injury –flaccid, no Babinski
B. conus injury—hyperreflexic, absent Bulbocavernosus

A

Answer: B. The spinal cord tapers and ends at the level between the first and second lumbar vertebrae in an average adult. The most distal bulbous part of the spinal cord is called the conus medullaris, and its tapering end continues as the filum terminale. Conus medullaris constitutes part of the spinal cord (the distal part of the cord) and is in proximity to the nerve roots. Thus, injuries to this area often yield a combination of upper motor neuron (UMN) and lower motor neuron (LMN) symptoms and signs in the dermatomes and myotomes of the affected segments. On the other hand, a cauda equina lesion is a LMN lesion because the nerve roots are part of the PNS.
Table 1. Symptoms and Signs of Conus Medullaris and Cauda Equina Syndromes
Conus Medullaris Syndrome Cauda EquinaSyndroPresentation Sudden and bilateral Gradual and unilateral
Reflexes Knee jerks preserved but ankle jerks affected Both ankle and knee jerks affected
Radicular pain Less severe More severe
Low back pain More Less
Sensory symptoms and signs Numbness tends to be more localized to perianal area; symmetrical and bilateral; sensory dissociation occurs Numbness tends to be more localized to saddle area; asymmetrical, may be unilateral; no sensory dissociation; loss of sensation in specific dermatomes in lower extremities with numbness and paresthesia; possible numbness in pubic area, including glans penis or clitoris
Motor strength Typically symmetric, hyperreflexic distal paresis of lower limbs that is less marked; fasciculations may be present Asymmetric areflexic paraplegia that is more marked; fasciculations rare; atrophy more common
Impotence Frequent Less frequent; erectile dysfunction that includes inability to have erection, inability to maintain erection, lack of sensation in pubic area (including glans penis or clitoris), and inability to ejaculate
Sphincter dysfunction Urinary retention and atonic anal sphincter cause overflow urinary incontinence and fecal incontinence; tend to present early in course of disease Urinary retention; tends to present late in course of disease
(eMedicine: “Cauda equina and Conus medullaris syndromes”, Segun T Da)

81
Q

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
1325. (Spinal Cord Injuries) The bladder receives it’s sympathetic innervation from what spinal cord level? (Choices given: T8-10, T11-12, L1-2, L5-S1, S2-S4).

A

The sympathetic innervation to the bladder is via the hypogastric nerve (with the afferent fibers coming from T10-L2 and the efferent from L1 to L3) (Chapter 27, P 563 Fig, Braddom, 2nd ed)

82
Q
  1. (Spinal Cord Injuries) Why does a T6 paraplegic have no bowel incontinence? (Choices given: normal anal sphincter tone, abnormal ileocolic reflex, normal rectocolic reflex, normal colocolic reflex)
A

A T6 paraplegic will be constipated secondary to poor bowel motility and normal anal sphincter control. The above listed reflexes will be poor as well (Chapter 55, P 1257, Braddom, 2nd ed)

83
Q
  1. (Spinal Cord Injuries) Which of the following is considered the most stable neck injury? (Choices given: odontoid fracture, wedge compression fracture, rupture of the ant. long. ligament, rupture of the post. long. ligament)
A

Of the listed, wedge compression fractures are generally the most stable. The others have a higher likelihood of neurological compromise (http://www.gpnotebook.com/cache/-1523253245.htm)

84
Q
  1. (Spinal Cord Injuries) A man is involved in an accident and becomes a C7 tetraplegic. By WHO guidelines, what does he have? (Choices given: Impairment, Disability, Handicap)
A

A C7 spinal cord lesion is an impairment. The inability or limitation in performing tasks and activities caused by C7 tetraplegia is a disability. The disadvantage from the above impairment or disability that prevents the fulfillment of a role is a handicap. (Chapter6, P 109, Braddom, 2nd ed.)

85
Q
  1. (Spinal Cord Injuries) What is the most mechanism for quadriplegia injury in high school football players?
A

The most common mechanism for quadriplegia in high school football players is axial compression, with associated neck flexion. This is most often caused by a spearing type tackle. (http://www.emedicine.com/orthoped/topic370.htm)

86
Q

…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
Q: Which structures are affected by hyperflexion injuries of the cervical spine?

A

A: “ Hyperflexion injuries tend to apply compressive forces on the anterior column of the spine, and distractive forces on the posterior spine. Hyperflexion sprain involves varying degrees of disruption of the posterior ligaments of the spine, including the supraspinous, interspinous, ligamenta flava, facet joint capsules, posterior longitudinal, and posterior anulus fibrosis.”
 SPINAL CORD MEDICINE, Kirshblum, pg. 54

87
Q

Q: What are the requirements for tendon transfer surgery after SCI?

A

A: “ In general, surgery should not be considered before 1 year post injury, and certainly not until the patient has been neurologically stable for at least 6 months. It is believed that the outcomes are less predictable if performed more than 5 years post injury. The patient should have a clear understanding of the surgery planned, the gains that can be realistically expected, and the potential complications such as increased dependency in the postoperative period. Because of the possibility that preoperative functional abilities can be temporarily lost, patient motivation is an important factor affecting the likelihood of a successful outcome.”
 PHYSICAL MEDICINE & REHABILITATION, Bradom

88
Q
A
89
Q

What are the epidemiologic factors relevant to a 70 year old man who fell and sustained an incomplete C4 injury?

A
  • Average age of onset of SCI has been increasing
  • Most common cause of SCI is MVA (50%), but rate for falls has been progressively increasing, rate for sports is decreasing
  • Increasing percentage of cervical injuries
90
Q

What are common causes of nontraumatic SCI in a 30 year old woman with subacute onset of paraplegia with a T6 sensory level?

A
  • Nontraumatic SCI more likely to be incomplete and less likely to have spasticity, DVT, autonomic dysreflexia
  • DDx: MS, degenerative CNS diseases, neoplasm, vascular disease, inflammatory disease, spinal stenosis, spinal cord tumors, epidural abscess, epidural hematoma
  • Transverse myelitis: can be primary or secondary to vasculitis or rheum d/o, more common in females
  • Radiation myelopathy can occur months after treatment
91
Q

What are the epidemiologic factors related to a girl born with L2 spinal bifida?

A
  • Spina bifida has decreased due to folic acid
  • Most common is myelomeningocele: neural elements exposed, complete neurologic deficits à closure within 24 hours
  • Meningocele: dural sac exposed, neural elements may be intact
  • Occult spina bifida: closed spinal deficits including lipoma, tethered cord à should be investigated
  • Hydrocephalus seen in 90% of patients with myelomeningocele à most require VP shunt à underlying Chiari II malformation
  • Hydrosyringomyelia (syrinx) are common in myelomeningocele à presents with cervical pain, new weakness, spasticity, and scoliosis (can also be a sign of tethered cord)
  • Scoliosis affects people with myelomeningocele at thoracic levels à monitor curvature less than 25 degrees, greater may require TLSO or surgery
92
Q

How would you acutely manage a 20 year old male with a C4 ASIA A SCI from snowboarding?

A
  • Decompression within 24 hours may improve neurologic recovery, but data inadequate
  • High dose steroids called into question: may cause infection or bleeding
  • Avoid hypotension, can try abdominal binders, lower limb compression, oral vasopressors (midodrine)
  • Autonomic dysfunction is common: bradycardia, neurogenic shock, autonomic dysreflexia (after spinal shock over)
  • Spinal shock: loss of reflex neurologic activity in spinal cord (loss of reflexes)
  • Neurogenic shock: hypotension of neurogenic origin à need volume resuscitation and vasopressors
  • Bradycardia may occur due to unopposed vagal tone à usually self-limited but can use atropine
  • “quad fever” without identified source can occur in early weeks
  • Anticoagulation for DVT or IVC filter within 72 hours
  • High risk of stress ulcers à should start PPI for 4 weeks
93
Q

What physiatric interventions in acute care can prevent complications in acute SCI?

A
  • Early ROM, especially in shoulders
  • Splinting and orthosis to preserve joint ROM in hands and feet
  • Bowel program after starting enteral feeding
  • Can remove Foley when patient no longer requires IV fluid à avoid cath volumes greater than 500 cc
  • Pulmonary complications at all levels
  • Clearance of secretions: difficult with weak abdominal muscles, manual assisted cough better at clearing secretions than suctioning (hands placed over lower rib cage), mechanical insufflators-exsufflator is effective
  • Atelectasis present in 60% of SCI patients on admission, support of use of high tidal volumes
  • High rate of dysphagia, especially in patients with C-spine surgery, trachs, prolonged intubation, halo, TBI
  • Pressure ulcers: early most common in sacrum, heels, and occiput à minimize time on backboard, use pressure-relief beds, routine turning q2hrs
94
Q

How is neurologic recovery prognosticated in SCI?

A
  • Exam at 72 hours better than at 24 hours for prediction
  • Most UE recover occurs in first 6 months, mostly in first 3 months
  • Most patients recover 1 root level of function with cervical lesions
  • UE motor recovery twice as great in incomplete tetraplegia à more favorable if pinprick spared
  • 80% of patients with incomplete paraplegia regain antigravity hip flexors and knee extensors
  • 6% of ASIA A convert to ASIA B and none developed volitional motor below injury
  • Spinal shock: worse prognosis
  • Crossed adductor response to patellar tendon taps is highly predictive of functional motor recovery
  • Normal cord on MRI is positive predictor for recovery
95
Q

What is the acute evaluation of a 30 year old woman with profound and rapid onset of nontraumatic incomplete tetraplegia?

A
  • DDx: Myelopathy, motoneuron disease, MS
  • MRI for MS very sensitive but nonspecific
  • Spinal angio for diagnosis of spinal cord AV malformations
  • CT for bone mets
  • CSF: diagnosis of inflammatory disorders
  • Labs: test for Lyme, syphilis, HIV, DM, APA
96
Q

What are the functional goals for the first 6 months after rehab in a 20 year old C4 ASIA A?

A
  • C1-4: C4 may wean off vent, need rehab for caregiver training, equipment, and prevention of complications, intro to advanced technology
  • C5: Prevention of elbow flexion and supination contractures, power wheelchair
  • C6: Tenodesis, which may allow patient to do ICP
  • C7-C8: C7 is key level for independence at transfers, weight shifts, light meal prep, may do bowel program
  • T1-12: Household ambulation may be possible for lower levels of thoracic injury
  • L1-2: Ambulation for short distances, but WC for functional ambulation
  • L3-4: Usually lower motor neuron, so sacral reflexes are lost. Bowel management through contraction and manual disimpaction. Bladder through ICP. Ambulation with AFO.
  • Community ambulation requires b/l hip flexors to be > 3/5, 1 knee extensor at least 3/5
97
Q

How can you prevent and treat common medical complications in the first 6 months postinjury for a 20 year old man with C6 ASIA A injury?

A
  • Autonomic dysreflexia: rise in BP of 20-40 mmHg above baseline, reflex bradycardia, HA. Can lead to stroke, hemorrhage, seizure, MI, death. Other signs are flushing, sweating, and nasal congestion above level of injury. Causes include: overdistended bladder, kidney or bladder stones, ingrown toenails, menstrual cramps, infection, bowel impaction, pressure ulcers, msk conditions, abdominal pathology. Treated by sitting patient upright and identifying underlying cause.
  • Neurogenic bowel: Bowel program daily to q3days. Use of digital stimulation, adequate fluid, high fiber, oral meds, rectal evacuants. If changes in bowel meds, give at least three cycles to see effects. Colostomy if bowel program too difficult.
  • Orthostatic hypotension: Compensation with gradual position changes, ace wraps, compression stockings, abdominal binders, midodrine (alpha agonist), fludrocortisones (mineralocorticoid). Usually resolves with spinal reflexes return.
  • Immobilization hypercalcemia: N/V, decr appetite, lethargy, polyuria, usually presents 1-2 months postinjury. Treat with IV fluids or bisphosphonates.
  • HO: Incidence between 16-53% in SCI. Presents in hips, followed by knees, elbows, shoulders. Swelling, decr ROM. Confirmed with bone scan, treat with etidronate at 20mg/kg orally for 3-6 months. Surgery if functional limitations, but wait until HO is mature.
  • Spasticity: Treat with ROM, look for noxious stimuli (UTI), baclofen, benzo, dantrolene, alpha-2 agonists. Botox or phenol for localized spasticity.
  • Depression 20-45%
98
Q

What discharge planning is required for a 20 year old C4 ASIA A?

A
  • Equipment: lift for transfers, padded commode or shower chair, power wheelchair with head, chin, or breath control (and independent pressure relief), manual WC for back-up, mouth stick, computer, van
  • Housing evaluation and modifications
99
Q

What advances are available for SCI?

A
  • FES: improve hand grasp, lower extremity use, bladder control, respiration, and cardiovascular health
  • Tendon transfers
  • Wheelchairs: pushrum-activated power assist, iBOT 4000 Mobility System for climbing stairs
  • Partial body weight support treadmill training
  • Brain-based command signals
100
Q

What are common medical complications one year post-injury in a 20 year old C4 ASIA A?

A
  • Pressure ulcers most common complication: risks include cigarettes, sleep meds
  • Pneumonia (more common in tetraplegics) leading cause of death from SCI
  • UTI: ppx antibiotics not supported
  • Urolithiasis: risks are recurrent UTI, indwelling catheters, vesicoureteral reflux, prior stones, hypercalciuria → can treat with shock wave lithotripsy
  • Bladder cancer: risk including indwelling catheters, smoking, kidney stones
  • OSA
  • Loss of bone mineral density → no strong evidence for use of bisphosphonates
  • Fractures
101
Q

What are the health maintenance recommendations for this 20 year old C4 ASIA A?

A
  • Question about B/B, BP control, skin, pain, spasticity, sexual function, equipment needs, changes in strength or function
  • Counsel on smoking cessation
  • Annual renal US for upper urinary tract, video urodynamics for lower urinary tract
  • For a woman, there may be increased spasticity, dyautonomia during menstruation → hormone contraceptives may help; pregnancy at high risk for UTI, AD; no higher risk of cancers or osteoporosis
102
Q

What are options for a male with C4 ASIA A regarding sexual function and fertility?

A
  • 92% of men can get an erection, but only about half can have successful intercourse, and less than 5% can have unassisted ejaculation
  • Vacuum suction and constrictor ring, penile implants (metal rod or inflatable implant)
  • PDE-5 inhib (Viagra) used, side effects mimic AD (HA, facial flushing)
  • Penile vibratory stimulation is first line treatment for anejaculation → other treatments are electroejaculation, rectal probes
  • Sperm count may be normal, but quality and motility can be poor → intrauterine insemination, IVF
103
Q

How is diffuse pain assessed in a 20 year old tetraplegic?

A
  • Pain in 64-80% of SCI
  • 15% report visceral pain
  • 19-24% have neuropathic pain
  • 42% have msk pain: most common in shoulders, followed by wrists, hands, and elbows → treat with stretching and strengthening, local injections, NSAIDs, occasional opiates
104
Q

What are the lifelong economic costs of complete tetraplegia after SCI?

A

• Costs include: hospital charges, rehab, home and vehicle modifications, assistance with ADLs, loss of wages

105
Q

What is a life care plan for T6 paraplegia?

A
  • Comprehensive interdisciplinary document of future medical and rehab needs
  • Should be undertaken after patient has stabilized medically and functionally
  • Components: medical problems, psychological, vocational, recreational, social, rehab, prognosis, equipment needs, preventive medicine, aging complications
106
Q

What are factors predicting return to work in T6 paraplegia?

A
  • 14% RTW at year one, 40% at 20 years
  • Educational level, functional status, driving, pre-employment in white collar job, computer experience, fewer medical complications
107
Q

What is key legislation to advance rights in SCI?

A
  • Rehabilitation Act: guaranteed civil rights of people with disabilities within federal programs
  • Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA): broad nondiscrimination law