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SCI 2017 SAE-P Flashcards

1
Q

In people with SCI, what major advantage does quantitative CT have over dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA)?
A. provides a 2 dimensional analysis of bone density.
B. can image the lower limbs, where much of the bone loss occurs
C. exposure to significantly less radiation
D. is readily available at most institutions

A

C. exposure to significantly less radiation

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2
Q 
Which subgroup of persons with SCI would most likely benefit from the use of calcaneal quantitative ultrasound (QUS) to screen for bone loss? 
A. female
B. elderly
C. chronic
D. complete
A

C. Chronic

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3
Q 
How many years post complete spinal cord injury dose a steady state of bone turnover occur?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15
A

B. 5

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4
Q

An advantage of calcaneal QUS BMD compared to central DEXA BMD for assessment of bone density in people with SCI is that it:
A. requires removal of only shoes and socks
B. exposes people to ionizing radiation
C. is newer, less tested technology
D. takes longer to perform

A

A. requires removal of only shoes and socks

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5
Q 
The consequences of bone loss in SCI include an increased incidence in
A. hydronephrosis
B. SIADH
C. renal calculi
D. diabetes insipidus
A

C. renal calculi

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6
Q

Which of the following is true about the relationship between severe spinal cord injury and changes in bone density and architecture:
A. there is rapid and profound loss of bone, which occurs equally in the paretic extremities and spine
B. the initial phase of bone loss after SCI principally affects the cortical component of bone
C. patients with SCI have increased fracture risk in the tibia and femur compared to neurologically intact counterparts
D. bone resorption that contributes to bone loss after SCI occurs only within the first 1-6 months after injury

A

C.

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7
Q

which of the following treatment options have established research support?
A. assisted stepping on body-weight supported treadmills reverses established bone loss in chronic spinal cord injury.
B. bisphosphonates can prevent new bone loss in acute spinal cord injury
C. Parathyroid hormone supplementation reverses establishes bone loss in chronic spinal cord injury
D. nutritional supplementation with vitamin D and calcium prevents new bone loss in acute spinal cord injury.

A

B

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8
Q

Which of the following is true regarding PTH supplementation with 20mcg per day of teriparatide in neurologically intact individuals?
A. it is indicated for treatment of glucocorticoid-induced osteoporosis
B. increase in BMD with PTH are larger at the hip and femoral neck than at the spine
C. trabecular, but not cortical, bone mass increases with PTH supplementation
D. PTH supplementation increases bone formation but decreases bone resorption

A

A

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9
Q

A new treatment for osteoporosis becomes available that is expected to increase bone formation, but not affect bone resorption. After 12 months, you find patients taking the new treatment demonstrate significantly increased spine and hip BMD and serum bone markers that is consistent with increases in bone formation and resorption. Which of the following is most likely?
A. bone-specific alkaline phosphatase (BAP) has decreased from baseline
B. C-terminal telopeptides of type 1 collagen has increased from baseline.
C. intact amino-terminal propertied of type 1 procolloagen (P1NP) has decreased from baseline
D. osteocalcin has increased from baseline

A

D

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10
Q 
the prevalence of overweight and obsese persons with SCI is 
A. 26%
B. 46%
C. 66%
D. 86%
A

C

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11
Q 
Physical activity guidelines for adults with SCI recommend 20 minutes of moderate to vigorous aerobic activity twice a week and strength training:
A. once a week
B. twice a week
C. three times a week
D. four times a week
A

B

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12
Q 
What decrease in secondary health outcomes is commonly present in persons with with SCI? 
A. fat mass
B. lean mass
C. osteoporosis
D. cardiovascular disease
A

B.

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13
Q

Which of the following is a barrier stated in the article to physical activity in persons with SCI?
A. awareness of exercise programs
B. lack of fitness professionals
C. failure of physicians to recommend exercise
D. established policies for accessibility

A

C

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14
Q 
Which site is most prone to bone loss and fracture in patients with chronic spinal cord injury?
A. distal humerus
B. distal tibia
C. proximal femur
D. proximal tibia
A

D

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15
Q 
Which combination of spinal cord injury features is associated with highest risk of fracture?
A. motor complete and paraplegia
B. motor complete and tetraplegia
C. motor incomplete and paraplegia
D. motor incomplete and tetraplegia
A

A

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16
Q 
Which of the following medications stimulates osteoblasts?
A. etidronate (didronel)
B. denosumab (Xgeva)
C. teriparatide (Forteo) 
D. anti-sclerosin antibody
A

C

17
Q

Which form of mechanical loading has the most evidence to support its use for increasing bone mass in individuals with chronic spinal cord injury?
A. partial body weight-supported treadmill training
B. functional electrical stimulation
C. low intensity high-frequency vibration
D. electromagnetic stimulation

A

D

18
Q 
What percentage of spinal cord injured persons are re-admitted to a hospital for a pressure ulcer within the first year after discharge from rehabilitation?
A. 14%
B. 37%
C. 27%
D. 17%
A

D

19
Q 
What level of evidence supports the guideline for SCI persons to shift positions in a wheelchair every 15 minutes to prevent pressure ulcers?
A. II
B. III
C. IV
D. V
A

D. V

20
Q 
How many days post injury does skin perfusion microvascular responses of SCI patients to pressure become significantly impaired?
A. 1-4
B. 7-10
C. 11-14
D. 15-20
A

A

21
Q 
The most common area for formation of a pressure ulcer found in the bed positioning studies was the
A. heels
B. scapula
C. sacrum
D. trochanter
A

C

22
Q 
To better ensure athletes compete fairly against one another, "The role of autonomic function on sport performance in athletes with spinal cord injury" suggest adding which test to those commonly considered in sports classification?
A. motor level of impairment
B. sympathetic skin response
C. sensory assessment
D. maximal oxygen uptake
A

B

23
Q

Which autonomic nervous system functions controlled in the upper thoracic spinal cord?
A. Sympathetic control of heartrate
B. Parasympathetic control of heart rate
C. Sympathetic control of all blood vessels
D. Parasympathetic control of blood vessels

A

A

24
Q 
Exercise-induced increases in cardiac output in individuals with cervical SCI is primarily mediated by which parameter?
A. stroke volume
B. body temperature
C. blood pressure
D. heart rate
A

C

25
Q 
In people with spinal cord injury, studies show which intervention consistently increases blood pressure and maximal oxygen uptake?
A. increased ambient temperature
B. midodrine administration 
C. induced autonomic dysreflexia
D. antigravity suit
A

C

26
Q 
The American Spinal Injury Association Impairment Scale (AIS) was used to classify neurologic impairment in the Swedish Aging with a Spinal Cord Injury Study (SASCIS). Which AIS group was most common? 
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
A

D

27
Q 
What etiology for SCI is more commonly associated with older age in the SASCIS?
A. motor vehicle collision
B. spinal tumor
C. Fall
D. gunshot
A

A

28
Q 
In the Swedish study the sociodemographic analysis demonstrate that less than half of the participants were
A. employed
B. married/cohabitating
C. using a mobility device
D. employing in-home assistance
A

A.

29
Q 
The SASCIS survey supported previous studies in that the most common cause of traumatic SCI is due to 
A. falls
B. gunshot/assault
C. traffic/transportation collisions
D. sports/leisure activities
A

C

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