schizoprenia Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 3 main positive symptoms?

A

delusions
hallucinations
disorganized speech and behavior

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2
Q

what are the 5 negative symptoms?

A

grooming
alogia (poverty of speech)
anhedonia (decreased interest)
affect-flat
cognitive

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3
Q

how long do symptoms need to be occurring for diagnosis?

A

1 month

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4
Q

what are the symptoms that are required for a diagnosis?

A

delusions, hallucination, disorganized speech. disorganized or catatonic behavior, or negative symptoms

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5
Q

how many symptoms are needed for diagnosis, and which ones are required?

A

2 or more and at least one must be delusion, hallucination, or disorganized speech

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6
Q

how long after remission should you treat?

A

12 months

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7
Q

how long until stabilization on treatment?

A

6-12 months

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8
Q

how long until changes are seen?

A

2 weeks

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9
Q

what is TRS?

A

failed trials of at least 2 antipsychotics at max dose

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10
Q

which antipsychotic can take 6 months to work?

A

clozapine

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11
Q

which generation has EPS?

A

1st

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12
Q

MOA and class of clozapine

A

2nd gen
mixed D2/5HT2a antagonist

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13
Q

Which two 1st gens have high H1,a1, and M1 antagonism but low D2 antagonism?

A

chlorpromazine
thioridazine
(C-Thior)

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14
Q

Which two 1st gens have moderate H1,a1, and M1 antagonism and moderate D2 antagonism?

A

loxapine
perphenazine
(Loxa-P)

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15
Q

Which 4 1st gens have low H1,a1, and M1 antagonism but high D2 antagonism?

A

trifluoperazine
thiothixene
fluphenazine
haloperidol
(Tri-Thio-Flu-Hal)

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16
Q

-zine is common to?

A

1st gens

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17
Q

what is the exception to -zine in first gens

A

loxapine
haloperidol
thiothixene

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18
Q

which generation has metabolic effects?

A

2nd

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19
Q

which three 2nd gens high H1,a1, and M1 antagonism but low D2 antagonism?

A

quetiapine
clozapine
olanzapine
(CoQ)

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20
Q

Which three 2nd gens have moderate H1,a1, and M1 antagonism and moderate D2 antagonism?

A

iloperidone
paliperidone
risperidone
(RIP)

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21
Q

Which three 2nd gens have low H1,a1, and M1 antagonism and high D2 antagonism?

A

brexpiprazole
cariprazine
aripiprazole
(CAB)

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22
Q

Which three 2nd gens have lowest H1,a1, and M1 antagonism and highest D2 antagonism?

A

asenapine
lurasidone
ziprasidone
(ALZ)

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23
Q

what is -pine, -done, and -zole common to?

A

2nd gen

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24
Q

what is the exception to -pine, -done, and -zole?

A

cariprazine

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25
Q

which antipsychotics are 1A2 metabolized?

A

clozapine
olanzapine
astenapine
(CoA)

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26
Q

which antipsychotics are 2D6 metabolized?

A

risperidone
fluphenazine
clorpromazine
(FCR)

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27
Q

which antipsychotics are 3A4 metabolized?

A

quetiapine
ziprasidone
lurasidone
(LQZ)

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28
Q

which antipsychotics are BOTH 2D6 and 3A4 metabolized?

A

iloperidone
aripiprazole
brexpiprazole
cariprazine
haloperidol
(HABIC)

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29
Q

which is renally eliminated?

A

(RP)paliperidone and risperidone

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30
Q

which have a DDI with smoking?

A

clozapine and olanzapine

31
Q

which have DDI with rifampin, ritaonavir, and phenytoin?

A

quetiapine and ziprasidone

32
Q

which has the most DDI?

A

carbamazepine

33
Q

which 2nd gens have orthostasis, anticholinergic, metabolic rate syndrome, and Low EPS?

A

(CoQ)
clozapine, olanzapine, quetiapine

34
Q

which is used for agitation, delirium, anxiety, and depression?

A

quetiapine

35
Q

which one is used for TRS, suicidality and in those with PD, alzheimers?

36
Q

which one has black box warning of agranulocytosis, seizure, myocarditis?

37
Q

(T/F) all antipsychotics have a risk of mortality in elderly with dementia related psychosis

38
Q

(T/F) all antipsychotics have a risk of suicidal thoughts?

A

T, but more common in 2nd gen

39
Q

which antipsychotics have orthostasis and hyperprolactinema?

A

(RIP)
risperidone
iloperidone
palperidone

40
Q

which antipsychotics have partial D2 agonism, long t1/2, akathisia, and lowest metabolic side effects?

A

(CAB)
aripiprazole, brexpiprazole, cariprazine

41
Q

which antidepressant is used in tourettes and autism?

A

aripiprazole

42
Q

which 2 can be adjunct in MDD?

A

aripiprazole and brexipiprazole

43
Q

which is D2 antagonizing?

A

cariprazine

44
Q

which antipsychotics are weight neutral and have more EPS risk?

A

asenapine, lurasidone, zirasidone (ALZ)

45
Q

with antipsychotic has ulcers, bad taste as a side effect?

46
Q

which antipsychotic needs to be BID with over 500 calories?

A

ziprasidone

47
Q

which antipsychotic has highest QTc risk?

A

ziprasidone

48
Q

which antipsychotic needs to be with over 350 calories?

A

lurasidone

49
Q

which antipsychotic has post injection delirium sedation symptom?

A

olanzapine LAI

50
Q

what is pimavanserin’s indication and MOA?

A

parkinsons psychosis
5HT2a reverse agonist

51
Q

what is pimozide indication and MOA?

A

tourettes
D2 antagonist

52
Q

the mesolimbic is responsible for?

A

+ symptoms

53
Q

the mesocortical is responsible for?

A

neg. symptoms

54
Q

D2 antagonism is responsible for?

A

EPS and prolactin stimulation

55
Q

Akathisia is..,

A

internal restlessness

56
Q

akathisia symptoms include…

A

leg shuffling and cant sit still, pacing

57
Q

akathisia treatment is…

A

propanolol
benzos

58
Q

dystonia is…

A

involuntary contractions

59
Q

dystonia symptoms are…

A

eyes rolling, tongue leaden, cant swallow, neck twisting

60
Q

dystonia treatment is…

A

benadryl, benztropine, trihexyphenidyl

61
Q

parkinsonism is…

A

brady/hypokinesia, tremor, rigid

62
Q

parkinsonism symptoms are…

A

masked face, decreased arm swing, shuffling walk, difficulty moving

63
Q

parkinsonism treatment is…

A

benadryl, benztropine, trihexyphenidyl

64
Q

what is tardive dyskinesia?

A

abnormal, involuntary movement

65
Q

what are tardive dyskinesia symptoms?

A

blinking, lip smacking, jaw movement, grimacing, rocking/twisting, irregular limb movement

66
Q

what is tardive dyskinesia treatment?

A

VMAT2 inhibitor

67
Q

MOA of valbenazine

A

VMAT2 inhibitor, less Dopa release to synapse

68
Q

what does Dopa block in the tuberoinfundibular tract cause?

A

hyperprolactinemia

69
Q

which antipsychotic causes hyperprolactinemia?

A

risperidone

70
Q

which antipsychotics have CV risk?

A

haloperidol
ziprasidone
thioridazine
(ZHT)

71
Q

what is the treatment for NMS?

A

stop all dopa blockers

72
Q

which antipsychotic is used in pregnancy?

A

haloperidol

73
Q

which antipsychotic is used in breastfeeding?

A

(AQ)aripiprazole and quetiapine

74
Q

which antipsychotics are AVOIDED in elderly?

A

(HZ)ziprasidone and haloperidol