SCGI Practical Rev Flashcards

1
Q

Explain the purpose of each of the following components in the isolation of genomic DNA: a) Cell lysis b) Salt solution c) Protease K d) RNase

A

a) Cell Lysis: break open the cells to release the contents of the cell, including the genomic DNA. The goal is to access the DNA within the cell while minimizing damage to the DNA.

b) Salt Solution:neutralizing the charges on the DNA molecule and the proteins. It helps to prevent the DNA from being soluble in water

c) Protease K: degrade proteins that are bound to the DNA or are present in the solution after lysis. This includes histone proteins that package the DNA in the cell.

d) RNase: degrades RNA. In a DNA isolation procedure, it’s important to get rid of RNA so it doesn’t contaminate the DNA sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the difference between genomic DNA (gDNA) and complementary DNA (cDNA)? How would this difference affect the interpretation of data following a PCR experiment?

A

Genomic DNA (gDNA):
- Contains the complete genetic information of an organism, including coding (exons) and non-coding regions (introns, regulatory sequences, and intergenic spaces).
- isolated directly from the nucleus of a cell.

Complementary DNA (cDNA):
- synthesized from messenger RNA (mRNA) using reverse transcriptase, and thus contains only the exonic (coding) sequences.
- represents only the genes that were actively being transcribed into mRNA at the time of RNA extraction.

Effects on PCR Data Interpretation:
gDNA as a template:
- Reflect the entire genomic sequence, including both introns and exons
- The amplicon size might be larger due to the presence of introns.

cDNA as a template:
- Only reflects the exonic sequences, equivalent to the processed mRNA.
- The amplicon size would be smaller as it doesn’t include introns.

If investigating genetic mutations across entire gene sequences, including introns, gDNA would be more suitable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the function of trypsin during the harvesting of embryonic stem cells, and why is it necessary to inactivate the enzyme?

A
  • protease enzyme used to cleave proteins and peptides.
  • trypsin is primarily used to break down the proteins that hold the cells together and attach them to the culture dish.

trypsinization, effectively detaches the cells from the dish and each other, allowing them to be easily harvested.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Explain the principle behind using a spectrophotometer to measure the concentration of nucleic acids (DNA and RNA). What are the specific wavelengths used, and why are they important?

A

Used to measure the absorbance of light by a solution at specific wavelengths.
Nucleic acids (DNA and RNA) absorb ultraviolet light, with the absorbance being proportional to the concentration of the nucleic acids in the solution.

By comparing the absorbance of the unknown sample to standards with known concentrations, the concentration of nucleic acids in the unknown sample can be calculated.

260 nm: Both DNA and RNA absorb strongly at this wavelength. It’s used to measure the concentration of nucleic acids in the sample.
280 nm: Proteins, particularly those with aromatic rings in their amino acids (like tryptophan and tyrosine), absorb light at this wavelength. This is used to assess protein contamination in the sample.

The 260/280 nm absorbance ratio is often calculated to check the purity of the nucleic acid sample. Pure DNA should have a ratio of ~1.8, while pure RNA should have a ratio of ~2.0. A lower ratio indicates protein contamination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

discuss the significance of the A260/A280 ratio.

A

Used to assess the purity of nucleic acid samples (DNA and RNA) in relation to contaminating proteins.
Nucleic acids absorb maximally at a wavelength of 260 nm, while proteins (especially those with aromatic amino acids) absorb maximally at 280 nm.
An A260/A280 ratio of ~1.8 is generally accepted as “pure” for DNA; a ratio of ~2.0 is accepted as “pure” for RNA.

A lower ratio may indicate the presence of protein, phenol, or other contaminants that absorb at or near 280 nm, implying that the nucleic acid sample is not pure.
Accurate determination of this ratio is crucial for downstream applications that require pure nucleic acid samples, such as sequencing, cloning, or PCR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Explain how you would ensure accurate readings when using a spectrophotometer for DNA quantitation. Discuss the importance of blanking the machine and any other steps you would take.

A

Blanking the Machine: Always start by blanking the spectrophotometer with the solvent used to dissolve the DNA (typically water or buffer). This sets a baseline reading to eliminate any absorbance by the solvent.

DNA Sample Preparation: Make sure the DNA sample is properly dissolved and free of particulate matter which might interfere with the light path.

Replicate Measurements: Replicate measurements can improve accuracy by averaging any random errors.

All these steps are essential to ensure the accuracy of the readings. Inaccurate readings could lead to errors in downstream applications such as PCR, cloning, or sequencing that require precise amounts of DNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

If the DNA sample was found to be impure, what steps could be taken to improve the quality and purity of the DNA for future experiments?

A
  • Ensure you are following the extraction protocol correctly and carefully. Avoid overusing mechanical disruption methods (like vortexing or pipetting) that can shear the DNA.
  • Use ethanol or isopropanol precipitation to further purify the DNA. This can help remove contaminants and concentrate the DNA.
  • In case of severe contamination, you may need to re-extract the DNA from the source material.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Proteinase K Digestion Buffer (0.2 M NaOH, 1 % (w/v) SDS (sodium dodecyl sulphate)) require 25mls

A

Sodium Hydroxide (NaOH):
Assume you have a stock solution of 1 M NaOH.
You need a final concentration of 0.2 M in 25 ml.
Using the formula (C1)(V1) = (C2)(V2), where C1 is the initial concentration, V1 is the volume of the initial solution required, C2 is the final concentration, and V2 is the final volume.
Plug in the values: (1 M)(V1) = (0.2 M)(0.025 L). Solving for V1 gives 5 ml.
Therefore, you need to add 5 ml of the 1 M NaOH solution.
Sodium Dodecyl Sulphate (SDS):
You need a final concentration of 1% (w/v) SDS. This means 1 g of SDS in 100 ml of solution.
For a 25 ml solution, you need 0.25 g of SDS. (25 ml is 1/4 of 100 ml, so you need 1/4 of 1 g)
Measure out 0.25 g of SDS and add to the solution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Lysis Buffer (50 mM Glucose, 25 mM Tris/HCl (pH 8.0), 10 mM EDTA) require 100mls

A

Glucose:
Desired final concentration (C2) = 50 mM = 0.05 M
Final volume (V2) = 100 ml = 0.1 L
Available stock solution concentration (C1) = 1 M
Using the formula (C1)(V1) = (C2)(V2), solve for V1 (volume of glucose to add):
(1 M)(V1) = (0.05 M)(0.1 L)
V1 = 0.005 L = 5 ml
Tris/HCl:
Desired final concentration (C2) = 25 mM = 0.025 M
Final volume (V2) = 100 ml = 0.1 L
Available stock solution concentration (C1) = 1 M
Again, using the formula (C1)(V1) = (C2)(V2), solve for V1 (volume of Tris/HCl to add):
(1 M)(V1) = (0.025 M)(0.1 L)
V1 = 0.0025 L = 2.5 ml
EDTA:
Desired final concentration (C2) = 10 mM = 0.01 M
Final volume (V2) = 100 ml = 0.1 L
Available stock solution concentration (C1) = 0.5 M
Again, using the formula (C1)(V1) = (C2)(V2), solve for V1 (volume of EDTA to add):
(0.5 M)(V1) = (0.01 M)(0.1 L)
V1 = 0.002 L = 2 ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

TE Buffer (10 mM Tris/HCl, 1 mM EDTA (pH 8.0)) require 5mls

A

Tris/HCl:
You want a final concentration of 10 mM, or 0.01 M, in a final volume of 5 ml or 0.005 L.
Use the formula (C1)(V1) = (C2)(V2), where C1 is the initial concentration, V1 is the volume of the initial solution required, C2 is the final concentration, and V2 is the final volume.
Plugging in the numbers: (1 M)(V1) = (0.01 M)(0.005 L).
Solving for V1 gives 0.00005 L or 50 µl.
Therefore, add 50 µl of the 1 M Tris/HCl stock solution.
EDTA:
You want a final concentration of 1 mM, or 0.001 M, in a final volume of 5 ml or 0.005 L.
Again, use the formula (C1)(V1) = (C2)(V2).
Plugging in the numbers: (0.5 M)(V1) = (0.001 M)(0.005 L).
Solving for V1 gives 0.00001 L or 10 µl.
Therefore, add 10 µl of the 0.5 M EDTA stock solution.
Water:
Subtract the volumes of Tris/HCl and EDTA you added from the total volume.
5 ml - 50 µl - 10 µl = 4940 µl.
Add 4940 µl of water to reach the final 5 ml volume.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

6M NaCl – require 250mls

A

The molecular weight of NaCl is approximately 58.44 g/mol.

Using the formula for molarity:

M = moles/Liter

You can rearrange this to solve for moles:

moles = M x Liter

So, to find the number of moles of NaCl needed for a 6 M solution:

moles = 6 M x 0.25 L = 1.5 moles

Next, convert moles to grams using the molecular weight:

grams = moles x molecular weight

grams = 1.5 moles x 58.44 g/mol = 87.66 g

So, to prepare 250 mL of a 6 M NaCl solution, you would need to dissolve 87.66 g of NaCl in enough water to make 250 mL of solution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Band intensities of PCR for undifferentiated and differentiated

A

The intensity or brightness of these bands is often related to the quantity of the PCR product, and therefore, the amount of the original template DNA.

Brighter Band for Undifferentiated Cells:
If the PCR product band is brighter for the undifferentiated ES cells, it would suggest that the target gene was more highly expressed in these cells.
Brighter Band for Differentiated Cells:
Conversely, if the PCR product band is brighter for the differentiated ES cells, it would imply that the target gene was more highly expressed in the differentiated cells.
Equal Band Intensity:
If both bands are of approximately equal brightness, it would suggest that the gene is expressed at similar levels in both cell types.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

If there is no band in the No Template Control (NTC) lanes, what does this indicate about the PCR reaction and possible contamination?

A

No Contamination: The absence of a band indicates that there was no DNA contamination in your PCR reagents or setup.
Specificity of PCR: The lack of a band in the NTC also suggests that your primers are specific to your target sequence and are not binding and amplifying any unintended sequences.
Reliable Results: Thus, the lack of a band in the NTC lane indicates that any bands seen in your sample lanes are likely due to the amplification of your target sequence from your DNA template and not due to contamination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If there is a band in the NTC lanes, what could be the possible reasons for this observation? solutions?

A
  • contamination. The contaminants could be template DNA from other reactions, PCR products from previous experiments (carry-over contamination), or microbial contamination.
  • primer-dimer formation, which happens when primers self-anneal and extend, forming a product in the absence of template DNA. This typically results in a smaller, faint band, often different in size from the expected product.

solutions:
- Make sure all reagents are fresh and stored appropriately. Use new aliquots of reagents if possible.
- Follow good molecular biology lab practices, such as using separate areas for setup and analysis, regularly cleaning workspaces, and using filter pipette tips.
- Check your primer design and consider redesigning to prevent primer-dimer formation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is a housekeeping gene

A

A housekeeping gene is a gene that is constantly expressed at a high rate in virtually all types of cells because it provides basic functions needed for the survival of the cell. Housekeeping genes are often used as reference genes in experiments like Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) and Reverse Transcription PCR (RT-PCR) because their constant level of expression allows for normalization of gene expression levels.
e.g Beta-actin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

If 10x TBE contains 0.89 M Tris-borate, 0.89 M Boric acid, and 0.02 M EDTA, what is the Molar concentration of Tris-borate in 100 ml of 1x TBE?

A

The 10x TBE has a Tris-borate concentration of 0.89 M.
To make a 1x solution from a 10x solution, you dilute the solution by a factor of 10.
Therefore, the molar concentration of Tris-borate in the 1x TBE is 0.89 M / 10 = 0.089 M.

17
Q

Calculate how you would make up 10x TBE Buffer (1 litre required)

A

molecular weights:

Tris base: 121.14 g/mol
Boric acid: 61.83 g/mol
EDTA (disodium salt dihydrate): 372.24 g/mol
Now, calculate the weight of each component needed:

Tris-Borate:
For 0.89 M concentration in 1 liter, you will need: 0.89 mol/L x 121.14 g/mol = 107.81 g
Boric acid:
For 0.89 M concentration in 1 liter, you will need: 0.89 mol/L x 61.83 g/mol = 55.03 g
EDTA (disodium salt dihydrate):
For 0.02 M concentration in 1 liter, you will need: 0.02 mol/L x 372.24 g/mol = 7.44 g

18
Q

If a 1XTAE solution contains 40mM Tris, 20mM acetic acid, and 1mM EDTA (pH8). Show how you would make up 5 litres of a 50XTAE stock solution.

A

molecular weights:

Tris base: 121.14 g/mol
Acetic acid: 60.052 g/mol
EDTA (disodium salt dihydrate): 372.24 g/mol
Now, calculate the weight of each component needed for 5 liters:

Tris:
For 2 M concentration in 5 liters, you will need: 2 mol/L * 121.14 g/mol * 5 L = 1211.4 g
Acetic acid:
For 1 M concentration in 5 liters, you will need: 1 mol/L * 60.052 g/mol * 5 L = 300.26 g
EDTA:
For 50 mM (or 0.05 M) concentration in 5 liters, you will need: 0.05 mol/L * 372.24 g/mol * 5 L = 93.06 g

19
Q

how do you calculate the volume required for loading 10ug of each sample

A

Volume (µL) = Desired amount (µg) / Concentration (µg/µL)
Volume required (µl) = (10 µg) / (Protein concentration (µg/ml))

For example, if the concentration of your sample is 0.5 µg/µL and you want to load 10 µg, you would calculate:

Volume (µL) = 10 µg / 0.5 µg/µL = 20 µL

20
Q

The Standard Dissociating buffer contains:

A

i) SDS (Sodium Dodecyl Sulfate): SDS is an anionic detergent that denatures proteins and imparts a negative charge to them, which is proportional to the molecular weight of the protein. This allows for separation of proteins solely based on their molecular weight during electrophoresis.
ii) 2-β Mercapto-ethanol: This reducing agent breaks disulfide bonds within and between proteins, ensuring that they are in their fully denatured state and linear form, which is necessary for accurate molecular weight determination during electrophoresis.
iii) Bromophenol Blue: This is a tracking dye that moves through the electrophoresis

21
Q

what are potential western blot results for p53 , what could go wrong with SDS_page or wester bolt and solutions

A

Positive Result: The presence of a strong, specific band at the expected molecular weight (around 53 kDa) indicates the successful detection of p53 protein. This suggests that p53 is expressed in the sample.
Negative Result: The absence of a band or a very faint band suggests that p53 is not expressed or is expressed at very low levels in the sample.

Potential issues with SDS-PAGE or Western blotting and their solutions:

Poor Protein Separation on SDS-PAGE:
Issue: Inadequate separation of proteins can result in overlapping or smeared bands, making it difficult to interpret the Western blot.
Solution: Optimize the gel concentration, running conditions (voltage, running time), and protein loading amount. Ensure that the gel is properly prepared and that the protein samples are denatured adequately.

Non-specific Bands or High Background:
Issue: Non-specific binding of antibodies or high background signals can obscure the detection of the target protein.
Solution: Optimize blocking conditions, antibody concentrations, and incubation times. Consider using blocking agents such as BSA or non-fat dry milk. Use appropriate secondary antibodies and ensure proper washing steps to minimize non-specific binding.

Incomplete Transfer or Protein Loss:
Issue: Incomplete transfer of proteins from the gel to the membrane or protein loss during transfer can result in weak or absent bands on the Western blot.
Solution: Optimize the transfer conditions, including transfer buffer composition, transfer time, and transfer method (e.g., wet or semi-dry transfer). Use a protein stain (such as Ponceau S) to confirm successful transfer before antibody incubation.

Insufficient Protein Loading or Low Expression:
Issue: If too little protein is loaded or the target protein is expressed at low levels, it may not be detectable on the Western blot.
Solution: Increase the amount of protein loaded or enrich the protein sample if necessary. Consider using more sensitive detection methods such as signal amplification systems or longer exposure times.

Antibody Issues:
Issue: Antibody quality, specificity, or compatibility can affect the detection of the target protein.
Solution: Validate the antibody through positive controls, ensure it is suitable for Western blotting, and optimize antibody dilution and incubation conditions. Consider using multiple antibodies or different antibody clones if available.

22
Q

what could be expected to be seen in changes in p53 and yH2AX levels in response to UV on a western blot

A

p53:
Increased Expression: UV radiation can induce DNA damage and activate the p53 pathway, leading to an increase in p53 protein levels. This can be observed as an elevated band intensity or a higher expression level of p53 on the Western blot.
Post-translational Modifications: UV radiation can also trigger post-translational modifications of p53, such as phosphorylation or acetylation. These modifications can lead to a shift in the molecular weight of p53, resulting in multiple bands or a shifted band on the Western blot.
γH2AX:
Increased Phosphorylation: UV radiation-induced DNA damage triggers the phosphorylation of histone H2AX at the site of DNA lesions, forming γH2AX. This can be visualized as an increase in γH2AX protein levels on the Western blot.
Appearance of Higher Molecular Weight Bands: The presence of γH2AX can result in the appearance of additional higher molecular weight bands due to the addition of phosphorylated residues.