SBO5 MCQ

Question 1

phaechromocytoma is a tumour of…

the most consistent clinical feature of phaechromocytoma is…

Answer 1

adrenal chromaffin cells

hypertension

Question 2

the 3 layers from out to in of the adrenal cortex are:

Answer 2

zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata, zona reticularis

Question 3

the hormones produced by the anterior pituitary gland use Cyclic AMP second messenger system except for…

Answer 3

Growth Hormone

Question 4

the posterior pituitary gland is responsible for the release of…

Answer 4

oxytocin, antidiuretic hormone

Question 5

in the case of pituitary gland hypersecretion, the two most common produced (in excess) are …

Answer 5

growth hormone and prolactin

Question 6

Which of the following nervous structures are responsible for increasing gastric secretion?
Fibres of the Vagus Nerve
Abdominopelvic splanchnic nerves (T5 – T9)
Pelvic splanchnic nerves
Thoracoabdominal nerves (5th to 9th)

Answer 6

fibres of the vagus nerve

Question 7

Pain signals originating from the gall bladder:

a) Are conveyed by CNX neurons to the vagal nucleus (medulla)
b) Enter the dorsal horn at the spinal cord levels C3 to C5
c) Are conveyed by sympathetic neurons to spinal cord levels T5 to T9
d) Are often referred to the left shoulder

Answer 7

b) Enter the dorsal horn at the spinal cord levels C3 to C5

GB=right Phrenic nerve (C3-5)

Question 8

what type of neurons form the abdominopelvic splanchnic nerves?

Answer 8

pre-ganglionic sympathetic neurons

Question 9

A key difference between the abdominopelvic splanchnic nerves and the pelvic splanchnic nerves is:

a) Abdominopelvic splanchnic nerves are cholinergic neurons whilst pelvic splanchnic nerves are adrenergic neurons
b) Post-ganglionic neurons of abdominopelvic splanchnic nerves are shorter than the post-ganglionic neurons of the pelvic splanchnic nerves
c) Abdominopelvic splanchnic nerves arise from cord levels T5 – L1/2 whilst pelvic splanchnic nerves arise from cord levels S2 – 4
d) All of the above

Answer 9

c) Abdominopelvic splanchnic nerves arise from cord levels T5 – L1/2 whilst pelvic splanchnic nerves arise from cord levels S2 – 4

Question 10

The Vagus nerve (CNX) provides parasympathetic nerve supply to the gastrointestinal tract down to the…

Answer 10

splenic flexure

Question 11

From an embryological perspective, the kidney is derived from the…

Answer 11

intermediate mesoderm

Question 12

paneth cells of the small intestine secrete what substance?

Answer 12

antimicrobial agents (lysosomes)

Question 13

which part of the small bowel is affected most in Coeliac Disease?

Answer 13

proximal part, especially the duodenojejunal flexure

Question 14

autoimmune gastritis can lead to…

Answer 14

Vitamin B12 deficiency

Question 15

what structure transmits the portal triad?

Answer 15

hepatoduodenal ligament

Question 16

Neonatal jaundice is what type of jaundice?

list and explain the three types of jaundice

Answer 16

Neonatal jaundice = hepatic jaundice

hepatic jaundice= impaired hepatocyte function e.g. impaired uptake or intracellular transport of bilirubin or reduced enzymatic activity e.g. neonatal jaundice

haemolytic jaundice= excessive RBC destruction

cholestatic= due to obstruction of intrahepatic or extrahepatic bile ducts

Question 17

Which of the following structures is intraperitoneal?
Appendix
Ascending colon
Descending colon
Rectum

Answer 17

appendix

Question 18

Which of the following structures keeps the internal anal sphincter tonically contracted?
Fibres of the vagus nerve (CNX)
Abdominopelvic splanchnic nerves (L1-2)
Pelvic splanchnic nerves (S2-4)
Pudendal nerve (S2-4)

Answer 18

Abdominopelvic splanchnic nerves (L1-2)

Question 19

Crohn’s Disease:

Is usually most severe at the terminal ileum, ascending colon and transverse colon

Is usually most severe at the rectum and sigmoid colon

May result in atonic dilation of the bowel (toxic megacolon)

Is characterised by ulcer development and healing through the formation of pseuopolyps

Answer 19

Is usually most severe at the terminal ileum, ascending colon and transverse colon

the other three options are characteristics of ulcerative colitis

Question 20

Name the disease:

The formation of discrete tumour masses featuring the Reed-Sternberg cell

The formation of aberrant antibodies and plasmacytomas

An increased number of immature leukocytes in the circulation

The formation of discrete tumour masses featuring aberrant Natural Killer cells

Answer 20

Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
Multiple Myeloma
Acute Leukaemia
Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

Question 21

A key difference between Hodgkin’s lymphoma and Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is:

Hodgkin’s lymphoma arises in several lymph node groups, whilst Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma usually begins in a single nodal group

Hodgkin’s lymphoma usually spreads to distant lymph nodes, whilst Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma spreads to contiguous nodal groups

Hodgkin’s lymphoma is usually associated with “B symptoms” and compressive symptoms, whilst these symptoms are generally absent in Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

Hodgkin’s lymphoma rarely spreads to non-nodal tissues, whilst non-nodal spread is common in Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

Answer 21

Hodgkin’s lymphoma rarely spreads to non-nodal tissues, whilst non-nodal spread is common in Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
*NON nodal= NON hodgkin’s

Question 22

the pathogen responsible for glandular fever is?

Answer 22

Epstein Barr Virus

Question 23

Which region of the nephron that contains cells that are most specialised for reabsorption?

Answer 23

proximal convoluted tubule

Question 24

A substance that is actively reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule is:
Water 
Sodium
Calcium
Urea

Answer 24

Sodium

Question 25

The target cells for Antidiuretic Hormone are in which region of the nephron? Proximal convoluted tubule Descending limb of the nephron loop Ascending limb of the nephron loop Distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct

Answer 25

Distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct | ADH inserts aquaporins into the cell membranes of the DCT and CD

Question 26

``` Which of the following is a diagnostic criterion for polycystic ovarian syndrome? Menstrual irregularity Ultrasonic evidence of endometriosis Clinical hypoandrogenism All of the above ```

Answer 26

Menstrual irregularity the other two criterion are: Hyperandrogenism Ultrasonic evidence of PICOS

Question 27

The organism responsible for cervical cancer is: a) Herpes Simplex Virus b) Human Papilloma Virus c) Human Immunodeficiency Virus d) Epstein Barr Virus

Answer 27

Human Papilloma Virus

Question 28

``` The most common form of cervical cancer is: Squamous cell carcinoma Adenocarcinoma Urothelial carcinoma Leiomyosarcoma ```

Answer 28

Squamous cell carcinoma

Question 29

``` Antibiotic therapy is an appropriate treatment for which of the following STIs? Syphilis Genital Herpes Genital warts All of the above ```

Answer 29

Syphilis

Question 30

``` Which of the following STIs attacks cells bearing the CD4 glycoprotein? Herpes Simplex Virus Human Papilloma Virus Hepatitis C Virus Human Immunodeficiency Virus ```

Answer 30

HIV

Question 31

``` Each testis is enveloped by a derivative of the peritoneum called the: Tunica albuginea Tunica vaginalis Vaginal process Cremasteric fascia ```

Answer 31

Tunica Vaginalis Vaginalis-two layers-parietal and visceral Vaginal process=outpouching of peritoneum where testes descend into; usually obliterates

Question 32

``` Which enzyme catalyses the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone? Finasteride Aromatase 5-alpha reductase Tamsulosin ```

Answer 32

5-Alpha Reductase

Question 33

``` An example of an irritative urinary tract symptom is: Hesitancy Poor calibre of urinary stream Terminal dribbling Urgency ```

Answer 33

urgency

Question 34

``` Which of the following hormones acts on target cells via a second messenger system: Adrenaline Cortisol Aldosterone Oestrogen ```

Answer 34

Adrenaline

Question 35

The primary stimulus for the release of mineralocorticoids is: a) Decreased renal perfusion b) Adrenocorticotrophic hormone c) Elevated systolic blood pressure d) Long term stressors

Answer 35

decreased renal perfusion

Question 36

The chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla: Synapse with a pre-ganglionic sympathetic neuron Are involved in the long-term stress response Release acetylcholine Is the source of oestrogen in a post-menopausal woman

Answer 36

Synapse with a pre-ganglionic sympathetic neuron

Question 37

``` Where are thyroid hormone receptors located within target cells? Embedded in the cell membrane In the cytosol In the nucleus Fixed to rough endoplasmic reticulum ```

Answer 37

in the nucleus

Question 38

``` Insulin is a hormone that: Promotes glycolysis Promotes gluconeogensis Promotes glycogen breakdown Promotes glucagon release ```

Answer 38

promotes glycolysis

Question 39

``` Which of the following is recommended for the treatment of hypoglycaemia in a patient with Type 1 diabetes? Insulin Metformin Glucose Alpha-glucosidase inhibitor ```

Answer 39

glucose

Question 40

In menopausal women, hormone replacement therapy: May be used to relieve the symptoms of menarche May reduce the risk for osteoporotic fracture Is recommended for the prevention of cognitive decline Reduces the risk for thromboembolic disease

Answer 40

May reduce the risk for osteoporotic fracture

Question 41

Gonorrhoeal infection: Is characterised by the development of a chancre - most commonly on the penis, vagina or anus Is associated with an increased risk for malignancy if contracted during puberty Is viral in origin and, thus, should not be treated by antibiotics Has the potential to cause oligoarthritis and enthesopathy

Answer 41

Has the potential to cause oligoarthritis and enthesopathy

Question 42

Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome is a condition: Triggered by the inappropriate secretion of oestrogens Thought to be caused by retrograde menstrual flow That can be managed by using the combined oral contraceptive pill That is a diagnosis of exclusion

Answer 42

That can be managed by using the combined oral contraceptive pill

Question 43

Syphilis: May cause neurosyphilis – which can mimic a musculoskeletal complaint – in its primary stage of infection Is classified as a bacterium but acts as an obligate intracellular parasite that lives and multiplies within cells Is caused by the organism Trichomonas vaginalis Can cause bony destruction by producing gummatous lesions

Answer 43

Can cause bony destruction by producing gummatous lesions

Question 44

Endometriosis is a condition: Defined as inflammation affecting the innermost layer of the uterine wall That can cause reduced fertility, but is otherwise non-painful That can be managed by using the combined oral contraceptive pill Preceded by approximately 5 years of increasingly anovulatory cycles (referred to as the climacteric)

Answer 44

That can be managed by using the combined oral contraceptive pill

Question 45

The pathogen responsible for genital warts: May be carried without the production of symptoms Is usually Herpes Simplex Virus (Type 1) but is occasionally Herpes Simplex (Type 2) Can be removed through regular Pap smears May infect the dorsal root ganglion and cause dermatomal pain (shingles)

Answer 45

May be carried without the production of symptoms