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abdominal viscera > SBO5 MCQ > Flashcards

SBO5 MCQ Flashcards

1
Q

phaechromocytoma is a tumour of…

the most consistent clinical feature of phaechromocytoma is…

A

adrenal chromaffin cells

hypertension

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2
Q

the 3 layers from out to in of the adrenal cortex are:

A

zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata, zona reticularis

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3
Q

the hormones produced by the anterior pituitary gland use Cyclic AMP second messenger system except for…

A

Growth Hormone

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4
Q

the posterior pituitary gland is responsible for the release of…

A

oxytocin, antidiuretic hormone

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5
Q

in the case of pituitary gland hypersecretion, the two most common produced (in excess) are …

A

growth hormone and prolactin

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6
Q

Which of the following nervous structures are responsible for increasing gastric secretion?
Fibres of the Vagus Nerve
Abdominopelvic splanchnic nerves (T5 – T9)
Pelvic splanchnic nerves
Thoracoabdominal nerves (5th to 9th)

A

fibres of the vagus nerve

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7
Q

Pain signals originating from the gall bladder:

a) Are conveyed by CNX neurons to the vagal nucleus (medulla)
b) Enter the dorsal horn at the spinal cord levels C3 to C5
c) Are conveyed by sympathetic neurons to spinal cord levels T5 to T9
d) Are often referred to the left shoulder

A

b) Enter the dorsal horn at the spinal cord levels C3 to C5

GB=right Phrenic nerve (C3-5)

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8
Q

what type of neurons form the abdominopelvic splanchnic nerves?

A

pre-ganglionic sympathetic neurons

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9
Q

A key difference between the abdominopelvic splanchnic nerves and the pelvic splanchnic nerves is:

a) Abdominopelvic splanchnic nerves are cholinergic neurons whilst pelvic splanchnic nerves are adrenergic neurons
b) Post-ganglionic neurons of abdominopelvic splanchnic nerves are shorter than the post-ganglionic neurons of the pelvic splanchnic nerves
c) Abdominopelvic splanchnic nerves arise from cord levels T5 – L1/2 whilst pelvic splanchnic nerves arise from cord levels S2 – 4
d) All of the above

A

c) Abdominopelvic splanchnic nerves arise from cord levels T5 – L1/2 whilst pelvic splanchnic nerves arise from cord levels S2 – 4

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10
Q

The Vagus nerve (CNX) provides parasympathetic nerve supply to the gastrointestinal tract down to the…

A

splenic flexure

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11
Q

From an embryological perspective, the kidney is derived from the…

A

intermediate mesoderm

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12
Q

paneth cells of the small intestine secrete what substance?

A

antimicrobial agents (lysosomes)

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13
Q

which part of the small bowel is affected most in Coeliac Disease?

A

proximal part, especially the duodenojejunal flexure

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14
Q

autoimmune gastritis can lead to…

A

Vitamin B12 deficiency

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15
Q

what structure transmits the portal triad?

A

hepatoduodenal ligament

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16
Q

Neonatal jaundice is what type of jaundice?

list and explain the three types of jaundice

A

Neonatal jaundice = hepatic jaundice

hepatic jaundice= impaired hepatocyte function e.g. impaired uptake or intracellular transport of bilirubin or reduced enzymatic activity e.g. neonatal jaundice

haemolytic jaundice= excessive RBC destruction

cholestatic= due to obstruction of intrahepatic or extrahepatic bile ducts

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17
Q 
Which of the following structures is intraperitoneal?
Appendix
Ascending colon
Descending colon
Rectum
A

appendix

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18
Q 
Which of the following structures keeps the internal anal sphincter tonically contracted?
Fibres of the vagus nerve (CNX)
Abdominopelvic splanchnic nerves (L1-2)
Pelvic splanchnic nerves (S2-4)
Pudendal nerve (S2-4)
A

Abdominopelvic splanchnic nerves (L1-2)

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19
Q

Crohn’s Disease:

Is usually most severe at the terminal ileum, ascending colon and transverse colon

Is usually most severe at the rectum and sigmoid colon

May result in atonic dilation of the bowel (toxic megacolon)

Is characterised by ulcer development and healing through the formation of pseuopolyps

A

Is usually most severe at the terminal ileum, ascending colon and transverse colon

the other three options are characteristics of ulcerative colitis

20
Q

Name the disease:

The formation of discrete tumour masses featuring the Reed-Sternberg cell

The formation of aberrant antibodies and plasmacytomas

An increased number of immature leukocytes in the circulation

The formation of discrete tumour masses featuring aberrant Natural Killer cells

A

Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
Multiple Myeloma
Acute Leukaemia
Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

21
Q

A key difference between Hodgkin’s lymphoma and Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is:

Hodgkin’s lymphoma arises in several lymph node groups, whilst Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma usually begins in a single nodal group

Hodgkin’s lymphoma usually spreads to distant lymph nodes, whilst Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma spreads to contiguous nodal groups

Hodgkin’s lymphoma is usually associated with “B symptoms” and compressive symptoms, whilst these symptoms are generally absent in Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

Hodgkin’s lymphoma rarely spreads to non-nodal tissues, whilst non-nodal spread is common in Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma rarely spreads to non-nodal tissues, whilst non-nodal spread is common in Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
*NON nodal= NON hodgkin’s

22
Q

the pathogen responsible for glandular fever is?

A

Epstein Barr Virus

23
Q

Which region of the nephron that contains cells that are most specialised for reabsorption?

A

proximal convoluted tubule

24
Q 
A substance that is actively reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule is:
Water 
Sodium
Calcium
Urea
A

Sodium

25
Q

The target cells for Antidiuretic Hormone are in which region of the nephron?
Proximal convoluted tubule
Descending limb of the nephron loop
Ascending limb of the nephron loop
Distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct

A

Distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct

ADH inserts aquaporins into the cell membranes of the DCT and CD

26
Q 
Which of the following is a diagnostic criterion for polycystic ovarian syndrome?
Menstrual irregularity
Ultrasonic evidence of endometriosis
Clinical hypoandrogenism
All of the above
A

Menstrual irregularity

the other two criterion are:
Hyperandrogenism
Ultrasonic evidence of PICOS

27
Q

The organism responsible for cervical cancer is:

a) Herpes Simplex Virus
b) Human Papilloma Virus
c) Human Immunodeficiency Virus
d) Epstein Barr Virus

A

Human Papilloma Virus

28
Q 
The most common form of cervical cancer is:
Squamous cell carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Urothelial carcinoma
Leiomyosarcoma
A

Squamous cell carcinoma

29
Q 
Antibiotic therapy is an appropriate treatment for which of the following STIs?
Syphilis 
Genital Herpes
Genital warts
All of the above
A

Syphilis

30
Q 
Which of the following STIs attacks cells bearing the CD4 glycoprotein?
Herpes Simplex Virus
Human Papilloma Virus
Hepatitis C Virus
Human Immunodeficiency Virus
A

HIV

31
Q 
Each testis is enveloped by a derivative of the peritoneum called the:
Tunica albuginea
Tunica vaginalis
Vaginal process
Cremasteric fascia
A

Tunica Vaginalis

Vaginalis-two layers-parietal and visceral
Vaginal process=outpouching of peritoneum where testes descend into; usually obliterates

32
Q 
Which enzyme catalyses the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone?
Finasteride
Aromatase
5-alpha reductase
Tamsulosin
A

5-Alpha Reductase

33
Q 
An example of an irritative urinary tract symptom is:
Hesitancy
Poor calibre of urinary stream
Terminal dribbling
Urgency
A

urgency

34
Q 
Which of the following hormones acts on target cells via a second messenger system:
Adrenaline
Cortisol
Aldosterone
Oestrogen
A

Adrenaline

35
Q

The primary stimulus for the release of mineralocorticoids is:

a) Decreased renal perfusion
b) Adrenocorticotrophic hormone
c) Elevated systolic blood pressure
d) Long term stressors

A

decreased renal perfusion

36
Q

The chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla:
Synapse with a pre-ganglionic sympathetic neuron
Are involved in the long-term stress response
Release acetylcholine
Is the source of oestrogen in a post-menopausal woman

A

Synapse with a pre-ganglionic sympathetic neuron

37
Q 
Where are thyroid hormone receptors located within target cells?
Embedded in the cell membrane
In the cytosol 
In the nucleus
Fixed to rough endoplasmic reticulum
A

in the nucleus

38
Q 
Insulin is a hormone that:
Promotes glycolysis
Promotes gluconeogensis
Promotes glycogen breakdown
Promotes glucagon release
A

promotes glycolysis

39
Q 
Which of the following is recommended for the treatment of hypoglycaemia in a patient with Type 1 diabetes?  
Insulin
Metformin
Glucose
Alpha-glucosidase inhibitor
A

glucose

40
Q

In menopausal women, hormone replacement therapy:

May be used to relieve the symptoms of menarche

May reduce the risk for osteoporotic fracture

Is recommended for the prevention of cognitive decline

Reduces the risk for thromboembolic disease

A

May reduce the risk for osteoporotic fracture

41
Q

Gonorrhoeal infection:

Is characterised by the development of a chancre - most commonly on the penis, vagina or anus

Is associated with an increased risk for malignancy if contracted during puberty

Is viral in origin and, thus, should not be treated by antibiotics

Has the potential to cause oligoarthritis and enthesopathy

A

Has the potential to cause oligoarthritis and enthesopathy

42
Q

Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome is a condition:

Triggered by the inappropriate secretion of oestrogens

Thought to be caused by retrograde menstrual flow

That can be managed by using the combined oral contraceptive pill

That is a diagnosis of exclusion

A

That can be managed by using the combined oral contraceptive pill

43
Q

Syphilis:

May cause neurosyphilis – which can mimic a musculoskeletal complaint – in its primary stage of infection

Is classified as a bacterium but acts as an obligate intracellular parasite that lives and multiplies within cells

Is caused by the organism Trichomonas vaginalis

Can cause bony destruction by producing gummatous lesions

A

Can cause bony destruction by producing gummatous lesions

44
Q

Endometriosis is a condition:

Defined as inflammation affecting the innermost layer of the uterine wall

That can cause reduced fertility, but is otherwise non-painful

That can be managed by using the combined oral contraceptive pill

Preceded by approximately 5 years of increasingly anovulatory cycles (referred to as the climacteric)

A

That can be managed by using the combined oral contraceptive pill

45
Q

The pathogen responsible for genital warts:

May be carried without the production of symptoms

Is usually Herpes Simplex Virus (Type 1) but is occasionally Herpes Simplex (Type 2)

Can be removed through regular Pap smears

May infect the dorsal root ganglion and cause dermatomal pain (shingles)

A

May be carried without the production of symptoms

abdominal viscera (11 decks)

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