SBAs and explanations 7 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of polycystic kidney disease?

A Autosomal dominant
B Autosomal recessive
C X-linked dominant
D X-linked recessive
E Mitochondrial
A

Autosomal dominant.

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2
Q

Which of the following statements about inflammatory bowel disease is false?

A Crohn’s disease causes transmural inflammation, whereas UC causes inflammation of the mucosa or submucosa
B Crohn’s disease causes skip lesions, whereas UC is continuous
C Crohn’s disease is associated with abscesses, fistulae, adhesions and
strictures, whereas UC is associated with toxic megacolon
D Crohn’s disease favours the rectum, whereas UC favours the terminal ileum
E Barium follow-through will show rose-thorn ulcers and a cobblestone mucosa in Crohn’s disease, but a lead pipe mucosa in UC

A

Crohn’s disease favours the rectum, whereas UC favours the terminal ileum.

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3
Q

A 68-year-old care home resident is brought into A+E hyperventilating and complaining of a ‘ringing sound’ in her ears. She has a low-grade fever and appears to be confused. She has a past medical history of depression and a TIA (2 months ago). What is the most likely diagnosis?

A Aspirin overdose
B Paracetamol overdose
C TCA overdose
D Cerebrovascular accident
E Pneumonia
A

Aspirin overdose.

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4
Q

A 25-year-old male presents to his GP complaining of a lump in his armpit. He says it doesn’t usually hurt except for when he goes out binge drinking with his friends. In the past few months, he has noticed that his clothes have become quite loose-fitting and he has been getting very hot and sweaty more than usual. On examination, he has firm, rubbery axillary lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly and scratch marks on his arms.

A Multiple myeloma
B Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
C Chronic myeloid leukaemia
D Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
E Hodgkin’s lymphoma
A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

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5
Q

A 68-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of a cough that has been bothering him for 3 months. He says that he has coughed up large volumes of ‘rusty- coloured’ sputum. According to his hospital notes, he has been admitted 4 times in the past 12 months due to pneumonia. On examination, his fingers are clubbed and coarse crepitations are heard at the lung bases. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

A COPD
B Bronchiectasis
C Pneumonia
D Interstitial lung disease
E TB
A

Bronchiectasis.

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6
Q

A 55-year-old woman is receiving treatment for chronic myeloid leukaemia. The consultant is concerned that this patient may have developed tumour lysis syndrome and requests some blood tests. What would you expect to see in the blood results of a patient with tumour lysis syndrome?

A Low K+, High PO43-, High Ca2+ and High Uric Acid
B High K+, High PO43-, Low Ca2+ and High Uric Acid
C High K+, Low Na+, Low Ca2+ and High Mg2+
D Low K+, High Na+, Low Mg2+ and High Uric Acid
E High Ca2+, Low PO43- and High Uric Acid

A

High K+, High PO43-, Low Ca2+ and High Uric Acid.

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7
Q

Which of the following is a cardiac cause of finger clubbing?

A Congenital cyanotic heart disease
B Viral pericarditis
C Dilated cardiomyopathy
D Rheumatic fever
E Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
A

Congenital cyanotic heart disease.

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8
Q

A 39-year-old homeless man is brought into A+E having been found lying in a pool of blood on the street. He is known to the A+E department having frequently been admitted for alcohol-related issues. There are no obvious signs of trauma and blood is seen in and around his mouth. Vital Signs: HR = 110 bpm; BP = 87/61 mm Hg. On examination, splenomegaly, shifting dullness and dilated veins on the anterior abdomen are identified. The registrar suspects a variceal bleed secondary to portal hypertension. What is the first step in this patient’s management?
A TIPS procedure
B Band ligation
C Terlipressin and prophylactic antibiotics
D Beta-blockers
E Terlipressin and beta-blockers

A

Terlipressin and prophylactic antibiotics.

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9
Q

A 23-year-old woman comes to see her GP about some breast lumps that she has noticed over the past 6 months. She mentions that her breasts become quite painful and feel ‘lumpy’, especially in the few days before her period. The pain is relieved when she has her period. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A Fibrocystic disease
B Fibroadenoma
C Breast cancer
D Breast abscess
E Duct ectasia
A

Fibrocystic disease.

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10
Q

A 92-year-old female, with a history of osteoporosis, is brought into A+E by her grandson. He says that she has been drifting in and out of consciousness for the past 2 weeks and has been complaining of a headache that has been keeping her up at night and getting progressively more severe. On examination, her left pupil is dilated and displaced downwards and outwards. What investigation should be performed first?

A Lumbar puncture
B Carotid artery Doppler
C CT head
D EEG
E Transthoracic echocardiogram
A

CT head.

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11
Q

A 29-year-old man presents with a 4-day history of high fever. On inspection, you notice some needle track marks on his arms and a pansystolic murmur is heard on auscultation, which had not previously been documented in his hospital notes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A Mitral regurgitation
B Pericarditis
C Infective endocarditis
D Aortic stenosis
E Mitral valve prolapse
A

Infective endocarditis.

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12
Q

Which of the following is not part of the criteria for diagnosing SLE?

A Pleurisy
B Thrombocytopaenia
C Anti-dsDNA antibodies
D Oral ulcers
E Heliotrope rash
A

Heliotrope rash.

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13
Q

A 43-year-old woman presents with a 2-month history of diarrhoea and weight loss. She has also been feeling anxious about her appearance, as many people have commented that she always looks like she is staring. On examination, her eyes appear slightly protruded and lid lag is demonstrated. She has a fine tremor in both her hands and a lumpy skin lesion is noticed on her shins. What is the most likely
diagnosis?

A Toxic multinodular goitre
B Graves’ disease
C De Quervain’s thyroiditis
D Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
E Riedel’s thyroiditis
A

Graves’ disease.

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14
Q

A 76-year-old man is admitted to hospital with a cough productive of green sputum. He has also experienced some shortness of breath and a fever. A week before his admission, his carers noted that he had a high fever, malaise and myalgia for a few days. A chest X-ray shows a cavitating lesion with an air fluid level. What is the most likely causative organism?

A Staphylococcus aureus
B Streptococcus pneumoniae
C Legionella pneumophila
D Mycoplasma pneumonia
E Haemophilus influenzae
A

Staphylococcus aureus.

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15
Q

The urine output of a 78-year-old inpatient on the surgical ward has decreased gradually over the past 24 hours despite maintaining an adequate fluid intake. The nurses add that he has recently become rather confused and complains of nausea. U+Es are requested:
Creatinine : 231 micromol/L (baseline : 97) Urea : 12.5 mmol/L (2.5-6.7)
Na+ : 139 mmol/L (135-145)
K+ : 6.1 mmol/L (3.5-5)
An AKI is diagnosed. He is currently on ramipril (for his hypertension), bisoprolol (for his paroxysmal AF) and ibuprofen.
Which of the following steps is inappropriate in this patient’s management?

A Assess and optimise fluid status
B 10 mL of 10% calcium gluconate IV
C Stop Ramipril
D Stop bisoprolol
E Stop ibuprofen
A

Stop bisoprolol.

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16
Q

A 57-year-old man is complaining of numbness and weakness in his arms. It began in his hands, 2 weeks ago, but for the last 3 days his forearms have also felt numb. On examination, there is no sensation below his elbows, tone is reduced bilaterally and the biceps and brachioradialis reflexes cannot be elicited. He adds that he recently recovered from a bout of diarrhoea and vomiting. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A Multiple sclerosis
B Motor neuron disease
C Parkinson’s disease
D Guillain-Barré syndrome
E Huntington’s disease
A

Guillain-Barre syndrome.

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17
Q

A 77-year-old patient with cirrhosis presents to A+E with diffuse abdominal pain, abdominal heaviness and fever. Associated symptoms include nausea and vomiting. On examination shifting dullness is demonstrated and a fluid thrill is observed. What investigation should form part of the initial diagnostic work-up?

A Abdominal X-ray
B Abdominal ultrasound
C Abdominal CT
D Diagnostic paracentesis
E Stool sample for MC+S
A

Diagnostic paracentesis.

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18
Q

Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of retinal changes that occur in hypertensive retinopathy?

A Papilloedema –> Silver Wiring –> Flame Haemorrhages –> AV Nipping
B Silver Wiring –> AV Nipping –> Flame Haemorrhages –> Papilloedema
C Silver Wiring –> Flame Haemorrhages –> AV Nipping –> Papilloedema
D AV Nipping –> Papilloedema –> Silver Wiring –> Flame Haemorrhages
E AV Nipping –> Silver wiring –> Papilloedema –> Flame Haemorrhages

A

Silver Wiring –> AV Nipping –> Flame Haemorrhages –> Papilloedema.

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19
Q

A 44-year-old woman is complaining of pain and a tingling feeling in the lateral half of her right hand. She often finds that she wakes up in the middle of the night because of the pain, which is then relieved by shaking her hand vigorously. Which nerve has been affected?

A Ulnar nerve
B Radial nerve
C Musculocutaneous nerve
D Median nerve
E Posterior interosseous nerve
A

Median nerve.

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20
Q

Which of the following full blood count and clotting screen results is consistent with a diagnosis of disseminated intravascular coagulation?

A High platelets, High Hb, High APTT/PT, High fibrinogen
B High platelets, High Hb, Low APTT/PT, High fibrinogen
C Low platelets, High Hb, Low APTT/PT, Low fibrinogen
D Low platelets, Low Hb, High APTT/PT, Low fibrinogen
E Low platelets, Low Hb, Low APTT/PT, Low fibrinogen

A

Low platelets, Low Hb, High APTT/PT, Low fibrinogen.

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21
Q

A 40-year-old woman is admitted to A+E with shortness of breath that began suddenly a day after she returned from a holiday to the Maldives. What is the first step in her management?

A D-dimer
B High flow oxygen and low molecular weight heparin
C IV heparin
D CTPA
E Venous ultrasound of the lower limbs
A

High flow oxygen and low molecular weight heparin.

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22
Q

What is the gold standard diagnostic test for acromegaly?

A Insulin suppression test
B Oral glucose tolerance test
C Short synacthen test
D IGF-1 levels
E Thyroid function test
A

Oral glucose tolerance test.

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23
Q

Which of the following sets of results would be consistent with alcoholic hepatitis?

A Elevated MCV, ALT:AST > 2 and elevated GGT
B Elevated MCV, AST:ALT > 2 and elevated GGT
C Reduced MCV, AST:ALT >2 and elevated GGT
D Elevated MCV, ALT:AST > 2 and reduced GGT
E Reduced MCV, AST:ALT > 2 and reduced GGT

A

Elevated MCV, AST:ALT > 2 and elevated GGT.

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24
Q

An inpatient on the orthopaedic surgery ward has recently developed a cough, high fevers and chills. Blood cultures are taken which identify MRSA. Which of the following antibiotics is often used in the treatment of MRSA infections?

A Vancomycin 
B Flucloxacillin 
C Tazocin
D Metronidazole 
E Cefuroxime
A

Vancomycin.

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25
Q

A 77-year-old man is referred to the outpatient clinic by his GP having presented with chest pain and worsening shortness of breath. He has a history of COPD, diagnosed 12 years ago. On examination, his JVP is elevated, a parasternal heave is palpated and auscultation reveals an early diastolic murmur. An ECG is performed which shows right-axis deviation, a tall R wave in V1 and peaked P waves in lead ll. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A Aortic regurgitation
B Mitral stenosis
C Pulmonary hypertension
D Right heart failure
E Exacerbation of COPD
A

Pulmonary hypertension.

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26
Q

Which of the following is not a histopathological type of malignant melanoma?

A Superficial spreading
B Acral lentiginous
C Bowen’s disease
D Nodular
E Lentigo maligna
A

Bowen’s disease.

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27
Q

An 82-year-old man has recently suffered from a right-sided stroke and is undergoing physiotherapy. He is referred for an upper limb neurological examination. The power in his right arm is normal. He can abduct his left arm by himself, but fails to maintain that position as soon as any resistance is applied. What is the MRC grading of his left shoulder abduction?

A Grade 1
B Grade 2
C Grade 3
D Grade 4
E Grade 5
A

Grade 3.

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28
Q

A 54-year-old female, with a BMI of 28, presents with a 2-year history of epigastric pain that radiates to the neck. It gets worse when lying down, and she also complains of painless regurgitation of food. What is the most appropriate investigation to confirm the diagnosis?

A Chest X-ray
B Barium swallow 
C ECG
D OGD
E Manometry
A

Barium swallow.

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29
Q

Which of the following is not an indication for dialysis in the context of acute kidney injury?

A Refractory hyperkalaemia
B Refractory pulmonary oedema
C Uraemic pericarditis
D Severe metabolic acidosis
E Macroscopic haematuria
A

Macroscopic haematuria.

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30
Q

A 25-year-old man, with no past medical history, presents to A+E with sudden- onset shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain, which started whilst he was playing football. Vital Signs: RR = 24 /min; HR = 125 bpm; BP = 85/59 mm Hg. There is a hyper-resonant percussion note and reduced breath sounds over the right upper zone and the trachea is deviated to the left. A chest X-ray confirms the presence of a pneumothorax measuring 3 cm. What is the most appropriate management option?

A Give analgesia and reassure
B Admit to hospital, monitor vital signs and repeat chest X-ray in 3 hours
C Insert a chest drain
D Insert a large-bore cannula into the right 2nd intercostal space in the
midclavicular line
E Surgical pleurectomy

A

Insert a large-bore cannula into the right 2nd intercostal space in the
midclavicular line.

31
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of polycystic kidney disease?

A

Autosomal dominant.

32
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia?

A

Autosomal dominant.

33
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome?

A

Autosomal dominant.

34
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of Huntington’s disease?

A

Autosomal dominant.

35
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of Marfan’s syndrome?

A

Autosomal dominant.

36
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of MEN syndrome?

A

Autosomal dominant.

37
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of cystic fibrosis?

A

Autosomal recessive.

38
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of sickle cell disease?

A

Autosomal recessive.

39
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of thalassaemia?

A

Autosomal recessive.

40
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of red-green colour blindness?

A

X-linked recessive.

41
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of haemophilia?

A

X-linked recessive.

42
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of G6PD deficiency?

A

X-linked recessive.

43
Q

How does aspirin overdose present?

A

Fever, sweating, hyperventilation and tinnitus or deafness, metabolic acidosis.

44
Q

How does TCA overdose present?

A

Tachycardia, drowsiness, dry mouth, nausea/vomiting and confusion.

45
Q

How does paracetamol overdose present?

A

Paracetamol overdose is usually asymptomatic for the first 24 hours and then presents with features of liver failure (such as confusion, jaundice and vomiting).

46
Q

What is tumour lysis syndrome?

A

Tumour lysis syndrome (TLS) is a group of metabolic abnormalities that results from cancer treatment.
Cytotoxic drugs lead to the lysis of large numbers of cancer cells, which release their contents into the bloodstream.
TLS most commonly occurs in the treatment of leukaemia and lymphoma.
The main metabolic derangements in TLS are: High K+, High PO43-, High Uric Acid and Low Ca2+.

47
Q

What metabolic derangements are seen in tumour lysis syndrome?

A

High K+.
High PO43-.
High Uric Acid.
Low Ca2+.

48
Q

What are the cardiac causes of finger clubbing?

A

Congenital cyanotic heart disease (most common), atrial myxoma (benign tumour of the heart), subacute bacterial endocarditis and tetralogy of Fallot (a combination of four congenital heart defects: ventricular septal defect, pulmonary stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy and an overriding aorta).

49
Q

What are oesophageal varices and why do they arise?

A

Oesophageal varices are dilated sub-mucosal collateral veins found in the lower 1⁄3 of the oesophagus that arise due to portal hypertension.
A high portal pressure results in blood being shunted into areas of lower venous pressure such as sites of portosystemic anastomosis.
When the portal pressure is >12mmHg, these anastomoses become congested and dilated, and are prone to bleeding.

50
Q

How is a variceal bleed managed?

A

As soon as a variceal bleed is suspected, Terlipressin should be administered - this is a vasopressin analogue that causes splanchnic vasoconstriction, thereby reducing mesenteric blood flow and portal pressure. Short-term prophylactic antibiotics should also be administered as this reduces the risk of infection, re-bleeding and mortality. Endoscopy should be performed within 12 hours of the onset of bleeding to diagnose and treat variceal haemorrhage, either with band ligation or injection sclerotherapy. If the combined pharmacological and endoscopic treatment fails, a trans-jugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) may be considered. This is a surgical intervention that reduces portal hypertension. Non-selective beta-blockade is used to prevent variceal bleeds in patients at high risk.

51
Q

What problems does portal hypertension cause?

A

Problems in the ‘butt’ (haemorrhoids), ‘gut’ (oesophageal varices) and ‘caput’ (caput medusae) as these are the sites of portosystemic anastomosis.

52
Q

What are the causes of portal hypertension?

A

Pre-hepatic e.g. portal vein thrombosis, hepatic e.g. cirrhosis, schistosomiasis, and post-hepatic e.g. Budd-Chiari syndrome, right heart failure, constrictive pericarditis.

53
Q

How is subdural haematoma diagnosed?

A

CT head scan which will show a sickle or crescent-shaped mass.
LP contraindicated- raised ICP can lead to brainstem herniation.

54
Q

How are subdural haematomas classified?

A

Based on speed of onset of symptoms:

  • acute <72hrs.
  • subacute = 3-20 days.
  • chronic >3 weeks.
55
Q

What is systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?

A

Multisystem autoimmune disease in which the immune system produces antibodies against a variety of self-antigens, resulting in widespread tissue damage.
Can often masquerade as other illnesses.

56
Q

How is SLE diagnosed?

A

> 4 of 11 features present.
SOAP BRAIN MD.
Serositis (pleuritis, pericarditis).
Oral ulcer.
Arthritis (non-erosive).
Photosensitivity.
Blood disorders (haemolytic anaemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia).
Renal disorders (e.g. proteinuria, red cell casts).
Anti-nuclear antibodies (ANA).
Immunological disorders (presence of anti-dsDNA/anti-Sm/anti-phospholipid antibodies).
Neurological disease (psychosis, seizures).
Malar rash (butterfly rash).
Discoid rash.

57
Q

How is AKI managed?

A

Protect from hyperkalaemia, optimise fluid balance, stop nephrotoxic drugs and assess need for dialysis.
10mL 10% calcium gluconate IV should be given to prevent hyperkalaemia.
IV insulin and dextrose is required to lower serum potassium. Other options: salbutamol nebulisers, IV sodium bicarbonate. Monitor ECG for improvement.
AKI patients may be dehydrated or fluid overloaded: assess fluid status by looking at JVP, tissue turgor, BP and HR. Fluids should be titrated to maintain fluid balance.
Nephrotoxic drugs can cause or worsen AKI so should be stopped immediately, e.g. ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, gentamicin and amphotericin.

58
Q

How is spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) diagnosed?

A

Paracentesis.

A peritoneal fluid neutrophil count >250 cells/mm^3 is diagnostic of SBP.

59
Q

What is spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP)?

A

This is an acute bacterial infection of the ascitic fluid, which has no obvious source.
The bacteria most commonly involved are E. coli and Klebsiella pneumoniae.
In any patient with a history of liver disease presenting with ascites and a fever, SBP needs to be excluded via diagnostic paracentesis.

60
Q

What is carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

A constellation of symptoms caused by compression of the median nerve as it runs through the carpal tunnel.
It leads to sensory impairment in the distribution of the median nerve (lateral half of the palm and the first three digits) leading to a tingling pain and weakness of the affected hand.
Carpal tunnel syndrome is usually idiopathic but obesity, infiltrative diseases and fluid-retention states (e.g. pregnancy) can increase risk.

61
Q

What is the immediate management of PE?

A

High-flow oxygen and subcutaneous LMWH (e.g. enoxaparin).
Wells score can then be calculated.
CTPA or D-dimer then performed.

62
Q

Why is an oral glucose tolerance test used to diagnose acromegaly?

A

Acromegaly is a caused by high growth hormone (GH) levels in adults, most commonly caused by a GH-secreting pituitary adenoma.
Aside from promoting anabolic activities within cells, GH also has an important role in increasing blood glucose levels.
Therefore, it responds to blood glucose via a feedback loop (i.e. GH decreases when blood glucose increases).
An oral glucose tolerance test temporarily raises blood glucose and the GH response is observed.
Failure to suppress GH release using an oral glucose tolerance test is suggestive of acromegaly.

63
Q

What is pulmonary hypertension?

A

Consistently elevated pulmonary arterial pressure (>20mmHg).
Primary (idiopathic) or secondary to left heart disease, chronic lung disease, recurrent pulmonary emboli, increased pulmonary blood flow or connective tissue disease.
Damaged lung tissue will not be able to fully saturate pulmonary arterial blood, which leads to pulmonary vasoconstriction in an attempt to divert the blood towards better oxygenating areas of lung tissue.
Widespread pulmonary arterial vasoconstriction in patients with diffuse lung disease (e.g. COPD) leads to pulmonary hypertension. Peaked P wave on ECG = ‘P pulmonale’, right atrial enlargement.

64
Q

What is Bowen’s disease?

A

Bowen’s disease is squamous cell carcinoma in situ (restricted to the epidermis).
This is a pre-malignant condition and appears as a red-brown scaly patch most commonly on the arms, legs or trunk.

65
Q

What are the 4 histopathological subtypes of melanoma in order of most to least prevalent?

A

Superficial spreading melanoma.
Nodular melanoma.
Acral lentiginous melanoma.
Lentigo maligna melanoma.

66
Q

What is superficial spreading melanoma?

A

Tends to arise from a pre-existing naevus, a slowly changing mole.
The earliest change tends to be an area of darkening with the lesion expanding radially rather than vertically.

67
Q

What is nodular melanoma?

A

Tends to grow rapidly out of an area of skin with no pre-existing naevi (de novo).
Grows vertically as blue-black or blue-red nodules.

68
Q

What is acral lentiginous melanoma?

A

Restricted to the soles of the feet and palms of the hands.

It usually appears as a brown-black flat macule with irregular borders.

69
Q

What is lentigo maligna melanoma?

A

Arises from lentigo maligna (melanoma in situ) usually on sun-exposed skin.
These are large, dark and can be nodular.

70
Q

What are the 2 types of hiatus hernia?

A

Sliding (gastro-oesophageal junction (GEJ) slides into the thorax), and
Rolling (GEJ remains in place but a bulge of fundus herniates into the chest alongside the oesophagus). ~80% sliding.

71
Q

What is the best investigation to confirm hiatus hernia diagnosis?

A

Barium swallow.

72
Q

What are the criteria for AKI diagnosis?

A

Rise in urea >26micromol/L in in 48hrs.
Rise in creatinine >1.5 x baseline (baseline measured in the last 3
months).
Urine output <0.5mL/kg/h for >6hrs (i.e. your urine production in mL
over 2 hours should match your body weight in kg).

73
Q

What are the indications for dialysis in AKI?

A

Refractory pulmonary oedema.
Persistent hyperkalaemia.
Severe metabolic acidosis.
Uraemic complications, e.g. encephalopathy, pericarditis.
Drug overdose by the BLAST drugs: barbiturates, lithium, alcohol, salicylates, theophylline.