Saudi Prometric Flashcards

1
Q

Researcher nurse give all participants ID band and matching them with
personal information?

A-Justice
B-Beneficence
C-Autonomy
D.Confidentially

A

In this scenario, the principle that is most relevant is Confidentiality (D). ID bands are often used in healthcare settings to help verify patient identities and reduce medical errors, but matching these ID bands with personal information is done while ensuring that patient information remains confidential and protected from unauthorized access or disclosure.

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2
Q

Every patient complain from chest pain came to ER the doctors order
Troponin level , This considering as ?
A. Overuse
B. Misuse
C. Negligence

A

B. Misuse

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3
Q

Patient with measles (rubella) is in airborne precaution nurse should be were ?
A. Gown
B. Gloves
C. Face mask
D. Face Shilled

A

C. Face mask

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4
Q

What is the first principle that empowers nurses’ decision-making?
A. Justice
B. Autonomy
C. Beneficence
D. Fidelity

A

B. Autonomy

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5
Q

What is the first ethical principle should the nurse attention when make NCP?
A. Justice
B. Non-maleficence
C. Beneficence
D. Autonomy

A

D. Autonomy

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6
Q

A nurse forced a patient who wished to take a one-day postoperative
rest to take a walk. Which ethical principle did the nurse violate?
A. Justice
B. Beneficence
C. Autonomy
D. Nonmaleficence

A

D. Autonomy

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7
Q

A nurse insists to obtain urine sample despite patient refuse. Which
ethical principle for patient?
A. Justice
B. Autonomy
C. Beneficence
D. Nonmaleficence

A

B. Autonomy

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8
Q

Health education to patient after prostatic surgery?
A. Restrict fluid intake to 1000 ml
B. Avoid carry heavy things for 6
weeks

A

B. Avoid carry heavy things for 6
weeks

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9
Q

Scenario.. patient with signs of urinary tract infection (urgency ,
frequency,….)Treatment will be?
A. Anti fungal
B. Antibiotic
C. Antimicrobial

A

B. Antibiotic

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10
Q

Mother is depressed and tell the nurse that her son is dead in
swimming pool and she is responsible about that. What should the nurse
do?
A. You are right
B. Show Sympathy
C. Repeat mother words to clarify
D. Empathy

A

D. Empathy

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11
Q

Where to place an enema bag for patient?
A. Below patient level
B. Same patient level
C. Above 20 cm

A

C. Above 20 cm

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12
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient who has abdominal pain last three
days. The nurse teaches the patient about the most likely active-
producing foods. What are the foods that are mostly useful to produce
laxative?
A. Cheese, pasta and eggs
B. Rice, eggs, and lean meat
C. Bran(Oats), figs, and chocolate
D. Cabbage, bananas, and soda

A

C. Bran(Oats), figs, and chocolate

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13
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient who has abdominal pain last three days. The nurse teaches the patient about the most likely active - producing foods. What are the foods that are mostly useful to produce laxative?
A. Cheese, pasta and eggs
B. Rice, eggs, and lean meat
C. Bran(Oats), figs, and chocolate
D. Cabbage, bananas, and soda

A

C. Bran(Oats), figs, and chocolate

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14
Q

Spoon nails due to?
A. Zinc deficiency
B. Vitamin D deficiency
C. Vitamin E deficiency
D. Vitamin B deficiency

A

A. Zinc deficiency

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15
Q

A nurse forced a patient who wished to take a one-day postoperative
rest to take a walk. Which ethical principle did the nurse violate?
A. Justice
B. Beneficence
C. Autonomy
D. Nonmaleficence

A

C. Autonomy

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16
Q

A patient has an operation surgery on his left knee. And the scrub
nurse did all Preoperative Preparation Steps. But She sterilized and
cleaned right knee. Which of the following describes the nurse’s actions?
A. Negligence
B. Malpractice
C. Assault
B. Battery

A

B. Malpractice

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17
Q

What causes cyanosis in adult extremities?
A . High altitude
B. Room with cold temperature

A

A . High altitude

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18
Q

When can breastfeeding jaundice develop with a latent onset?
A. 2 - 4 weeks
B. 4 - 7 weeks
C. After month
D. After 3 months

A

A. 2 - 4 weeks

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19
Q

A patient woman whose husband died of an untreated illness (cancer).
The nurse provides care and support patient. What is the type of
support?
A.Counseling
B. Participate

A

A.Counseling

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20
Q

When occurs late jaundice related to breast feeding?
A. 1 to 2 days
B. 7 days
C. 10 days
D. More than 3 month

A

C. 10 days

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21
Q

What is the important nutrition during pregnancy?
A. High mercury fish (tuna, marlin, king mackerel)
B. Undercooked or raw fish
C. Vitamin B9
D. Raw eggs

A

C. Vitamin B9

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22
Q

What is complication of rheumatic fever?
A. Aortic Valve Stenosis
B. Cyanosis
C. Convulsion
D. Heart damage

A

A. Aortic Valve Stenosis

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23
Q

The nurse begins a morning shift and has patients in the waiting
room. ( see the table)
1. Patient with hypothyroidism and heart rate 54
2. Patient with hyperthyroidism heart rate 95
3. Patient with Cushing’s syndrome
4. Patient with COPD and saturation 95% in room air
Which patient has priority to see the doctor first?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

A

A. One

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24
Q

Patient have depression, physician advice to procedure ECT. What is
this procedure?
A. Involves a brief electrical stimulation of the brain while the patient is
under anesthesia
B. A Medical procedure that involves passing a mild electric current through your
heart.

A

A. Involves a brief electrical stimulation of the brain while the patient is
under anesthesia

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25
Q

What is the most common indication of ECT?
A. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
B. Manic episodes
C. Schizophrenia - Given
D. Major depression

A

D. Major depression

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26
Q

The nurse assess low of consciousness for patient after surgery,
she asked patient about name and he give her correct answer then
she asked about place, time but patient cannot answer, what
should nurse do?
A. Ask patient again later
B. Notify the surgeon

A

B. Notify the surgeon

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27
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient with diabetes who has a blood glucose level of 30mg/dl after a meal. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Measure the blood glucose level again after 30 minutes
B. Notify the physician immediately
C. Ask another nurse (or head nurse) to measure the blood glucose level

A

B. Notify the physician immediately

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28
Q

Doctor inserts for patient subclavian catheter (CVL) in right
subclavian vein sudden patient developed tachycardia destitution no back
flow blood from CVL. What is the expected complication?
A. Pneumothorax
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Hemothorax

A

A. Pneumothorax

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29
Q

Doctor, after inserting a subclavian catheter for the patient, blood
flow is observed from the catheter, and the patient is experiencing
respiratory restlessness. What is the expected problem with the patient?
A. Right side failure
B. Pneumonia
C. Pulmonary embolism

A

C. Pulmonary embolism

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30
Q

Doctor after inserting a subclavian catheter for the patient, blood flow
is observed from the catheter, and the patient is experiencing respiratory
restlessness. What is the expected problem with the patient?
A. Right side failure
B. Pneumonia
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Pneumothorax

A

NOTE:
If option D is not available,
we choose C

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31
Q

What recommendations should parents follow for a child with
hyperthyroidism?
A. Providing a calm and quite environment
B. Limiting activities

A

A. Providing a calm and quite environment

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32
Q

Patient came to ER after accident the vital signs all stable and
conscious but expected has increased the pressure (ICP). Which of the
following first indicate ICP?
A. Change in consciousness (loss of consciousness)
B. Unreactive pupil
C. Bradycardia
D. Depress respiratory

A

A. Change in consciousness (loss of consciousness)

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33
Q

Patient for cardiac catheterization. What is the purpose of this procedure?
A. Check cardiac pressure
B. Check the O2 in heart
C. Pulmonary embolism by cardiologist.
D. Pneumothorax

A

A. Check cardiac pressure

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34
Q

The nurse is caring for a client newly diagnosed with hyperthyroidism.
Which nursing intervention is priority to decrease the client’s anxiety?
A. Keeping the client warm
B. Encouraging the client to increase activity
C. Providing a calm, restful environment
D. Placing the client in semi-fowler’s position

A

C. Providing a calm, restful environment

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35
Q

Patient, who has experienced a stroke, presents with weakness in the
right side of the body affecting the shoulder, pelvic, and knee. Which of
the following options would be appropriate for the patient?
A. Dependent ambulation with assistance.
B. Independent wheelchair use.
C. Independent ambulation for short distances with the use of an assistive device.

A

C. Independent ambulation for short distances with the use of an
assistive device

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36
Q

Which of the following is the appropriate feeding method for a baby
with a cleft lip?
A. Exclusive breastfeeding
B. Exclusive formula feeding
C. Combination of breastfeeding and formula feeding

A

C. Combination of breastfeeding and formula feeding

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37
Q

A 36-weeks pregnant woman is experiencing irregular contractions
and has a closed cervix. What would be the appropriate advice during
contractions?
A. Drinking warm milk
B. Encourage in regular walking
C. Monitoring fetal heart movement

A

B. Encourage in regular walking

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38
Q

The child has undergone hypospadias repair, where would be the
appropriate location of the drainage urine bag?
A. Above bladder level
B. Below bladder level
C. At the level of the bladder

A

B. Below bladder level

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39
Q

In the year 1930, children had developed immunity against measles
without being vaccinated, and as a result, the infection rate among
children decreased. What is type of immunity?
A. Artificial
B. Passive
C. Herd
D. Innate

A

D. Innate

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40
Q

Which deficiency could be the cause ?
B. Potassium
C. Magnesium
D. Calcium

A

D. Calcium

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41
Q

What should the nurse do?
A. Remove the restrain every 2 hours
B. Remove the restrain when the parents are with the child
C. Put mittens.

A

A. Remove the restrain every 2 hours

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42
Q

The doctor ordered a blood sample from the patient. A nurse wants to
insert an IV line for the patient after selecting a vein for IV-line
placement. What is the next step they should take?
A. Wipe the vein with alcohol swap
B Apply tourniquet above vein
C. Flatten the palpation/ palpate the vein
D. Needle insertion

A

B Apply tourniquet above vein

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43
Q

While inserting an NGT (Nasogastric Tube) for a patient before
abdominal surgery, which of the following should prompt the
insertion to be stopped?
A. Saliva
B. Inability to speak
C. Discomfort
D. Tearing eye

A

B. Inability to speak
NOTE:
If not talking means it is going in
the trachea

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44
Q

10 years old boy diagnosis appendicitis has serve pain, the tool of pain
scale to be use is?
A. Face pain rating
B. Flacc rating scale

A

A. Face pain rating

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45
Q

What is the best type of evidence-based practice for teaching
diabetic patients?
A. Randomize control study
B. Comparison of diabetic teaching types
C. Systematic review of randomize control
D. Study about diabetic teaching type.

A

C. Systematic review of randomize control

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46
Q

A teenager girl cannot administer insulin to herself. What should a
nurse do for the patient?
A. I make her come back to the hospital every few weeks
B. I teach the patient
C. I teach her parents

A

B. I teach the patient

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47
Q

The child has tracheoesophageal fistula. The physician has planned
surgical repair. Which of the following preoperative interventions are
appropriate for this?
A. Put the patient in supine position
B. Give Sedatives
C. Oral feeding
D. Antibiotic therapy

A

D. Antibiotic therapy

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48
Q

The patient arrived at the emergency department, and vital signs
were taken. The physician examined and assessed the patient and made a
diagnosis of neurogenic shock. What are the signs of neurogenic shock?
A. Bradycardia and hypertension
C. Tachycardia and hypertension
D. Bradycardia and Hypotension

A

D. Bradycardia and Hypotension

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49
Q

A woman came to the clinic with her husband for long-term
family planning and contraception. What advice should the
physician give them?
A. Copper IUD
B. Hormonal IUD
C. Combined

A

A. Copper IUD

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50
Q

The patient has hepatitis B and has had the injury for a prolonged
time. The patient tells the nurse that he has taken all precautions to
prevent an increase in the injury but there has been no improvement.
What appropriate intervention should the nurse perform?
A. Ignore complaining
B. Inform the physician
C. Revise intervention

A

B. Inform the physician

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51
Q

What is the most common site of myocardial infarction?
A. left atrium
B. Left ventricle
C. Right atrium

A

B. Left ventricle

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52
Q

How much fluid intake per day does a pregnant woman need?

A. 100 ml
B. 400 ml
C. 600 ml
D. 800ml

A

D. 800ml

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53
Q

The girl patient presented with diarrhea, vomiting, decreased tear
production in the eyes, clammy skin, and a sodium level (NA) below 130.
What level of dehydration is she experiencing?
A. Mild isotonic
B. Moderate isotonic
C. Moderate hypotonic
D. Moderate hypertonic

A

C. Moderate hypotonic

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54
Q

Current research has shown no benefit for certain routine
interventions that were previously used during labor. Based on current
evidence-based practice, which of the following interventions for women
in labor are considered harmful?
A. Enema during delivery
B. Amniotomy
D. Vaginal examination
D. Filling the portogram

A

A. Enema during delivery

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55
Q

The patient has kidney stones. What foods should the patient eat to
prevent kidney stone?
A. Cranberry and prunes
B. Cola
C. Salt food
D. Liver

A

A. Cranberry and prunes

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56
Q

Why is the patient with kidney stones advised to drink cranberry
juice?
A. Lower acidity

A

A. Lower acidity

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57
Q

A client has a history of urolithiasis related to hyperuricemia. To prevent the formation of future stones, the nurse instructs the client to avoid certain foods, including?
A. Liver
B. Carrots
C. Skim milk
D. White rice

A

A. Liver

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58
Q

Which of the following diet instructions should be given to the client
with recurring urinary tract infections?
A. Increase intake of meats.
B. Avoid citrus fruits.
C. Perform peri care with hydrogen peroxide.
D. Drink a glass of cranberry juice every day

A

D. Drink a glass of cranberry juice every day

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59
Q

The patient has a UTI. What advice is given regarding drinking to
prevent UTI?
A. Cranberry
B. Yogurt
C. Orange juice
D. Vegetable juice

A

A. Cranberry

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60
Q

Why is the patient educated to drink cranberry juice after having a
stone removed?
A. Help Inhibit infection
B. Increase urine output
C. Inhibit urinary retention
C. Decrease stone formation

A

A. Help Inhibit infection

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61
Q

Patients with hip or femoral fractures. What should be monitored
during the early post-traumatic period?
A. Fever
B. Hypertension
C. Acute pain
D. Hematuria

A

C. Acute pain

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62
Q

The physician order for a client cap Amoxycillin 500mg BID for 3
days. The available stock is 250 -mg per capsule . How many capsules will
you give for 3 days ?
A. 2 Capsules / 3 days
B. 12 Capsules / 3 days
C. 4 Capsules / 3 days
D. 6 Capsules / 3 days

A

B. 12 Capsules / 3 days

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63
Q

Hazard factory workers exposed to accidents and lesions and
complain from backache and other problems it is called ?
A. Physical
B. Psychological
C. Mechanical

A

A. Physical

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64
Q

A nurse started a blood transfusion for the patient. Then the patient
experienced complications due to receiving the wrong blood type. What is
this behavior by the nurse called?
A. Lack of attention.
B. Defect (impaired) documentation.
C. Failure to follow policy.
D. Weak communication.

A

C. Failure to follow policy.

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65
Q

Pancreatic cancer is life threatening disease, there is low chance of
survive if diagnosed in end stag , only 1% can survive for 2 year , what is
best describe of mortality rate?
A. Incidence rate higher than mortality rate
B. mortality rate higher than incidence rate
C. incidence rate not related to mortality rate
D. Mortality rate and incidence rate are approximately the same

A

B. mortality rate higher than incidence rate

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66
Q

What is the side effect of oxytocin ?
A. Water intoxication
B. Kidney toxicity
C. Diuretics
D. Fluid excess

A

A. Water intoxication

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67
Q

A nurse is caring for an immobile and ventilated patient in the
intensive care unit. The patient is at high risk for pressure ulcers. Which
intervention should the nurse prioritize to prevent pressure ulcers in this
patient?
A. Keep the patient’s skin dry
B. Keep the head of the bed at 40°
C. Massage the reddened prominent bones
D. Keep the head of the bed at 30° while in a side-lying position

A

A. Keep the patient’s skin dry

D. Keep the head of the bed at 30° while in a side-lying position

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68
Q

Because cervical effacement and dilation aren’t progressing in a client
in labor, the physician orders I.V. administration of oxytocin (Pitocin).
Why must the nurse monitor the client’s fluid intake and output closely
during oxytocin administration?
A. Oxytocin causes water intoxication
B. Oxytocin causes excessive thirst
C. Oxytocin is toxic to the kidneys
D. Oxytocin has a diuretic effect

A

A. Oxytocin causes water intoxication

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69
Q

What is the meaning of Black box alarming for severe medication
reactions ?
A. Alerting
B. Interpreting
C. Critique

A

A. Alerting

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70
Q

What type of exercise is recommended for individuals with left side
weakness hemiparesis?
A. Passive
B. Active

A

A. Passive
B. Active

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71
Q

The Elderly patient, 80 years old, underwent a nurse assessment of
activities to measure their ability to perform self-care tasks such as
bathing and eating. What type of assessment is the nurse conducting?
A. Psychosocial
B. Economic
C. Functional
D. Psychological

A

C. Functional

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72
Q

Patient with chest pain, which radiates to the shoulder, signs of a
myocardial infarction (MI). What should be the nurse’s first intervention
for this patient?
A. Reduce Anxiety
B. Give oxygen
C. Give nitroglycerin
D. Give aspirin

A

B. Give oxygen

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73
Q

A patient with a chest tube is at risk of developing infections. What is
the appropriate action for a nurse?
A. Monitor bleeding and discharge
B. Prevent infections and complications

A

B. Prevent infections and complications

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74
Q

What is a common finding in most children with congenital heart
disease?
A. Mental retardation
B. Delayed physical growth
C. Clubbing of fingers
D. Cyanosis

A

B. Delayed physical growth

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75
Q

A nurse is assessing a 4 years-old child with a suspected congenital
heart disease. Which clinical finding is commonly associated with
congenital heart disease in children?
A. Mental retardation
B. Delayed physical growth
C. Clubbing of fingers
D. Cyanosis

A

D. Cyanosis

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76
Q

The patient with Parkinsonism is taking an antibiotic. The doctor
changed the dose of his medication. The next day, the patient doesn’t
move and feels freezing. What can be expected for the patient?
A. Acute akinesia
B. Neuroleptic malignance syndrome

A

A. Acute akinesia

Acute akinesia is a rare but serious complication of Parkinson’s disease A. It’s characterized by a sudden and severe inability to move, often accompanied by high fever, rigidity, and disturbances in consciousness B. This condition can be triggered by factors such as infections, changes in medication, or surgery A.

In essence, it’s like the body’s movement system suddenly “freezes up,” making it extremely difficult or impossible for the person to initiate voluntary movements C. While it can be life-threatening, with prompt medical intervention, some patients can recover, though there may be lasting motor deficits A.

Does this help clarify things, or is there something more specific you’d like to know about acute akinesia?

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77
Q

The patient has a strangulation hernia causing severe pain and
requires hernia repair. What is an explanation of the procedure?
A. Short procedure to poll in the hernia organ
B. To restore the blood supply to affected organ

A

B. To restore the blood supply to affected organ

Hernia repair is a surgical procedure used to fix a hernia A. A hernia occurs when an organ or tissue pushes through a weak spot in the muscle or tissue that holds it in place A. The most common types of hernias are in the abdomen or groin B.

There are three main types of hernia repair surgeries:

  1. Open Hernia Repair: The surgeon makes a single incision to push the herniated tissue back into place and then stitches the muscle wall B. Often, a synthetic mesh is used to reinforce the area B.
  2. Laparoscopic Hernia Repair: This minimally invasive surgery involves several small incisions B. A laparoscope (a thin tube with a camera) and surgical instruments are inserted to repair the hernia using a synthetic mesh B.
  3. Robotic Hernia Repair: Similar to laparoscopic surgery, but uses robotic instruments controlled by the surgeon B.

The choice of surgery depends on factors like the size and location of the hernia, the patient’s overall health, and whether the surgery is elective or an emergency A.

Would you like to know more about the recovery process or potential risks associated with hernia repair?

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78
Q

What is the position of vulvar carcinoma after surgery?
A. Recumbent
B. Semi Recumbent
C. Prone
D. Lithotomy

A

B. Semi Recumbent

NOTE:
Lithotomy position during
surgery

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79
Q

What are the disadvantage of the mini pill (progesterone-only pill)?
A. Spotting between menses
B. Premenstrual syndrome
C. Weight loss
D. Endometriosis

A

A. Spotting between menses

The minipill, also known as the progestin-only pill (POP), is a type of birth control that contains only one hormone, progestin A. Here are some advantages and disadvantages:

  1. Suitable for Breastfeeding Mothers: The minipill is safe for breastfeeding mothers as it doesn’t contain estrogen, which can reduce milk supply A.
  2. Fewer Side Effects: Since it doesn’t contain estrogen, it typically has fewer side effects compared to combination birth control pills A.
  3. Safe for Certain Health Conditions: It’s often recommended for women who are over 35, smoke, have high blood pressure, or have a history of blood clots A.
  4. Non-Medicinal Interactions: It doesn’t interact with other medications as much as combination pills do A.
  1. Strict Timing: The minipill must be taken at the same time every day, within a three-hour window B. Missing a pill or taking it late can reduce its effectiveness B.
  2. Lower Effectiveness: It’s slightly less effective than combination pills because it doesn’t always stop ovulation A.
  3. Side Effects: Some women may experience side effects like irregular menstrual bleeding, headaches, or breast tenderness A.
  4. Not for Everyone: Women with certain medical conditions, such as liver disease or uncontrolled high blood pressure, should not take the minipill C.

Would you like more information on how to use the minipill correctly or its effectiveness?

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80
Q

The patient with pneumonia completed a course of levofloxacin. What
indicators can determine the effectiveness or Lt progress of the
treatment?
A.WBC
B. K
C. Platelet
D. Hematocrit (HCT)

A

A.WBC

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81
Q

What is the role of k in wound healing?
A. Epithelial
B. Collagen
C. Coagulation
D. Coenzyme

A

C. Coagulation

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82
Q

Which patient will the nurse prioritize seeing first?
A. BP is 190/110
B. The patient is unresponsive to verbal stimuli
C. The patient has frequent premature contractions

A

B. The patient is unresponsive to verbal stimuli

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83
Q

The patient is on Atenolol 20 mg once daily for hypertension. What
instructions should be given to the patient?
A. Measure Bp daily
B. Take the medication with water after a meal
C. Report any occurrences of nausea or headache
D. Do not stop taking the medication abruptly

A

D. Do not stop taking the medication abruptly

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84
Q

The patient with DM informs the nurse that their medication is not
the same. The nurse checks and confirms that the medication name has
been changed. What is the appropriate response from the nurse to the
patient?
A. Medication may have more than one trade name
B. Contact the doctor to double-check
C. Contact the pharmacist

A

A. Medication may have more than one trade name
B. Contact the doctor to double-check

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85
Q

The patient received a blood transfusion. After 30 minutes, the
patient developed neck vein distension, pulmonary edema, increased
blood pressure, tachycardia, and dyspnea. Which of the following nursing
diagnoses is related to blood and occludes the patient’s problem?
A. Hemolytic reaction (Patient and donor incompatibility)
B. Allergic reaction
C. Fluid volume excess

A

C. Fluid volume excess

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86
Q

How can we prevent infections in patients with diabetes mellitus?
A. Keep prominent bone moist
B. Keep skin clear and dry

A

B. Keep skin clear and dry

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87
Q

In a patient with partial placenta previa, which of the following
measures can be taken to decrease the risk of infection or complications?
A. Bed rest
B. Not dealing with people who have respiratory infection

A

A. Bed rest

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88
Q

Which clients has a high risk of obesity and diabetes mellitus?
A. A 45 years- old
B. A 23-year-old
C. A 20-year-old

A

A. A 45 years- old

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89
Q

A nurse is describing the process of fetal circulation to a client during
a prenatal visit. The nurse accurately tells the client that fetal circulation
consists of:
A. Veins carrying deoxygenated blood to the fetus
B. Arteries carrying oxygenated blood to the fetus
C. Two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein
D. Two umbilical veins and one umbilical artery

A

C. Two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein

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90
Q

The charge nurse found a problem in the scheduling and wants to
change it. What is the first step of the change?
A. Set goals
B. Implement
C. Strategies
D. Understand improvement or occurrence

A

D. Understand improvement or occurrence

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91
Q

What is the first step of the change management process?
A. Set goals
B. Identify needs / Determine all stages of the change
C. Implement solution
D. Select change strategy

A

B. Identify needs / Determine all stages of the change

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92
Q

Which is the preferred method of taking a newborn’s temperature?
A. Tympanic.
B. Axillary.
C. Oral.
D. Rectal.

A

B. Axillary.

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93
Q

Which method should be used to check the temperature of a one-
month-old?
A. Tympanic.
B. Axillary.
C. Oral.
D. Rectal.

A

B. Axillary.

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94
Q

From where is human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) secreted in
early pregnancy?
A. Embryo
B. Corpus luteum
C. Ovary
D. Pituitary gland

A

A. Embryo

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95
Q

What does the blastocyst secrete?
A. HCG
B. Estrogen
C. ADH
D. Progesterone

A

A. HCG

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96
Q

The patient presents with symptoms of unilateral weakness and/or
numbness, facial droop, and speech deficits ranging from mild dysarthria
and mild aphasia to global aphasia. Which of the following best describes
this patient’s symptoms?
A. Brain stem
B. Middle cerebral artery damage
D. Posterior cerebral artery

A

B. Middle cerebral artery damage

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97
Q

What is the diet for a patient with Pyelonephritis?
A. Increase fluid intake
B. Increase dietary fiber
C. Low protein in dinner

A

A. Increase fluid intake

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98
Q

A patient is coming with a radiograph and complaining of chest pain.
Which of the following questions should the radiologist ask the patient
first before conducting the radiograph for chest X-ray?
A. Can you hold your breath well or not?
B. Do you have any accessories on or are you wearing any accessories?
C. Ask her if she is pregnant
D. Can you raise your hand to perform a certain action?

A

C. Ask her if she is pregnant

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99
Q

What are the important concerns for laboratory results in a patient
with second-degree burns?
A. WBC
B. RBC
C. PLATELET

A

A. WBC

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100
Q

A parent comments that her infant has had several ear infections in
the past few months. Why are infants more susceptible to otitis media?
A. Infants are in a supine or prone position most of the time.
B. Sucking on a nipple creates middle ear pressure.
C. They have increased susceptibility to upper respiratory tract infections.
D. The eustachian tube is short, straight, and wide

A

D. The eustachian tube is short, straight, and wide

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101
Q

What is Risk factors of otitis media?
A. Breast feeding
B. Vertical position of feeding
C. Feeding formula
D. Short wide ear

A

C. Feeding formula

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102
Q

What is the sign of Cushing Syndrome?
A. Hypertension
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypermagnesemia

A

A. Hypertension

Note:
Option B,C and D are signs of Addison’s disease

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103
Q

A patient with Cushing’s syndrome has been using corticosteroids
for a long time. What are the effects of using corticosteroids for long
time?
A. Hypertension
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypermagnesemia
D. Hypotension

A

A. Hypertension

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104
Q

The patient plans to undergo coronary heart surgery. The post-
anesthesia nurse noted a decrease in urine output from the urinary
catheter, from 50 ml to 30 ml per hour. What is the likely reason for this
decrease?
A. Stimulate Vagus nerve
B. Decreased cardiac output
C. The Effects of anesthesia

A

B. Decreased cardiac output

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105
Q

A patient is schedule for operation from out patient clinic one day
ago came to surgical ward and admitted. Who is responsible to informed
patient about surgery?
A. Nurse
B. Head Nurse
C. Surgeon
D. Anesthesia

A

C. Surgeon

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106
Q

The patient who came to the emergency room presents with a two-
day history of vomiting and abdominal pain that is referred to the right
shoulder after eating fried food. Where should the patient be feeling the
pain?
A. Upper right abdomen
B. Upper left abdomen
C. Lower right abdomen
D. Lower left abdomen

A

A. Upper right abdomen

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107
Q

A 32-year old woman presents with 4-day history of sudden right
upper quadrant abdominal pain that is referred to the right shoulder tip.
Pain was initially colicky, and then became constant. Positive history of
fever, nausea and vomiting. On examination, she’s acutely ill looking,
anicteric, febrile, positive murphy’s sign, right upper quadrant
abdominal tenderness with muscle guarding and rebound tenderness
present. CBC done showed WBC: 13 x 109/L; Serum amylase: 170U/L.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute pancreatitis
B. Acute appendicitis
C. Acute cholecystitis
D. Right basal pneumonia

A

C. Acute cholecystitis

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108
Q

A patient 4 years old needs to receive a doctor-prescribed
medication at a dosage of 10mg/kg/day for one week. The medication is
available in a concentration of 125mg/5ml. The patient’s body weight is
15 kg. How many ml per day should be given to the patient?
A. 2 ml QID
B. 3 ml Bid
C. 5 ml OD
D. 6 ml PRN

A

B. 3 ml Bid

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109
Q

A patient 4 years old needs to receive a doctor-prescribed
medication at a dosage of 10mg/kg/day. The medication is available in a
concentration of 125mg/5ml. The patient’s body weight is 12 kg. How
many ml per day should be given to the patient?
A. 2 ml Bid
B. 3 ml Bid
C. 6 ml PRN

A

A. 2 ml Bid

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110
Q

A patient 4 years old needs to receive a doctor-prescribed
medication at a dosage of 10mg/kg/day. The medication is available in a
concentration of 125mg/5ml. The patient’s body weight is 15 kg. How
many ml per day should be given to the patient?
A. 2 ml QID
B. 2 ml BID
C. 1.5 ml TID
D. 6 ml PRN

A

D. 6 ml PRN

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111
Q

A patient 4 years old needs to receive a doctor-prescribed
medication at a dosage of 12mg/kg/day. The medication is available in a
concentration of 125mg/5ml. The patient’s body weight is 25kg. How
many ml per day should be given to the patient?
A. 4 ml TID
B. 3 ml BID
C. 2 ml QID

A

A. 4 ml TID

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112
Q

A patient 4 years old needs to receive a doctor-prescribed
medication at a dosage of 150 mg for one week. The medication is
available in a concentration of 125mg/5ml. How many ml per day should
be given to the patient?
A. 3 ml BID
B. 3 ml QID
C. 6 ml PRN

A

A. 3 ml BID

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113
Q

Signs of pancytopenia ?
A. RBCs and platelet deficiency

A

A. RBCs and platelet deficiency

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114
Q

In a disaster plan, what priority concerns should you have about the
patient?
A. Hemorrhage patients
B. Elderly and infants
C. Head injury patients

A

A. Hemorrhage patients

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115
Q

Pregnant women are having hyperemesis. Which one of the
following actions should be taken immediately by the nurse?
A. Check daily weight
B. Check urine output and input
C. Support her psychologically

A

B. Check urine output and input

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116
Q

Patient has intracranial pressure. What will you tell the patient to
avoid?
A. Coughing
B. Turning

A

A. Coughing

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117
Q

What is signs indication of left side heart failure?
A. Breathing Sound (Crackles, Wheezes)
B. Swelling
C. Edema
D. Jugular vein distension

A

A. Breathing Sound
NOTE:
B,C and C signs of right heart
failure

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118
Q

What are the most common causes of fetal death or mortality?
A. Asthma
B. Accident
C. Malnutrition disease
D. Cardiac disease

A

D. Cardiac disease

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119
Q

The patient came in ER with prolonged vomiting related gastric
sleeve. What can be expected in his arterial blood gas (ABG) results?
A. Elevated oxygen levels
B. Decreased PH
C. Elevated HCO3

A

C. Elevated HCO3

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120
Q

A patient with diabetes has a morning glucose of 50. The patient is
sweaty, cold, and clammy. Which of the following nursing interventions is
the MOST important?
A. Recheck the glucose level
B. Give the patient 1⁄2 cup (4 oz) of fruit juice
C. Call the doctor
D. Keep the patient nothing by mouth.

A

B. Give the patient 1⁄2 cup (4 oz) of fruit juice

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121
Q

Right hemiparesis (stroke) affected which side of the body?
A. Left side weakness
B. Right side weakness

A

A. Left side weakness

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122
Q

Death rate of disease in proportion to those who are at high risk to
this disease?
A. Specific Mortality
B. Case Fatality
C. Specific Morbidity

A

B. Case Fatality

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123
Q

A Community nurse make Antenatal education for group of
pregnant women, what’s the goal of this program? (NCLEX)
A. Psychological adaptation to parenthood
B. Reducing risks and problems
C. Modes of delivery during childbirth
D. Birth control options

A

B. Reducing risks and problems ✓

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124
Q

Term neonate meconium aspiration which of the following initial
action by the nurse?
A. Give oxygen
B. Suction mouth and nose

A

B. Suction mouth and nose

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125
Q

The surgeon aspirated both tonsils. What is the diagnosis?
A. Bilateral tonsils abscess
B. Laryngitis
C. Tonsillectomy

A

A. Bilateral tonsils abscess

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126
Q

What is Food rich in fiber?
A. Boiled egg with green salad
B. Caeser salade, beef, boiled shrimp
C. Meat, pasta

A

A. Boiled egg with green salad

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127
Q

What is the most common side effects of metoclopramide?
A. Abdominal pain
B. Flatulence
C. Headache
D. Constipation

A

C. Headache

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128
Q

What Anthropometric measurements are included?
A. Weight and Wrist
B. BMI, Wrist and Arm
C. BMI, Wrist and Skinfold thickness

A

C. BMI, Wrist and Skinfold thickness

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129
Q

Clients with gestational diabetes are usually managed by which of
the following therapies?
A. Oral hypoglycemic drugs and insulin
B. Oral hypoglycemic drugs
C. NPH insulin (long-acting)
D. Diet

A

D. Diet

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130
Q

A 26-year old multigravida is 14 weeks’ pregnant and is scheduled
for an alpha-fetoprotein test. She asks the nurse, “What does the alpha
fetoprotein test indicate? The nurse bases a response on the knowledge
that this test can detect?
A. Kidney defects
B. Urinary tract defects
C. Neural tube defects
D. Cardiac defects

A

C. Neural tube defects

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131
Q

Gastric suction lead to PH change:
A. Decrease PH in the serum
B. Increase the H in the serum
C. Acidemia
D. Alkalemia

A

D. Alkalemia

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132
Q

What is the Initial treatment for hyperthyroidism?
A. Radioactive iodine
B. Methimazole
C. Thyroidectom

A

B. Methimazole

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133
Q

A patient had a blood pressure of 180/90. After the nurse
administered an antihypertensive drug, it increased to 195/100. What is
the reason?
A. Allergic reaction
B. Paradoxical hypertension

A

B. Paradoxical hypertension

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134
Q

A patient postoperatively on the chest tube. What type of secretion
should be in the chest tube after three hours?
A. Blood
B. Serous drainage
C. Serious Song drainage
D. Mucous secretion

A

B. Serous drainage

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135
Q

What is the normal lung sound over the sternum?
A. Bronchial
B. Vesicular
C. Bronchovesicular

A

A. Bronchial

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136
Q

To decrease edema in a baby with craniotomy, what medication
would the nurse administer to the client?
A. Diuretic
B. Prednisolone
C. Ceftriaxone

A

A. Diuretic

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137
Q

What is the drug to minimize intracranial pressure?
A. Warfarin
B. Morphine
C. Potassium
D. Bisacodyl

A

D. Bisacodyl

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138
Q

A newborn was admitted to pediatric Ward with pyloric stenosis,
suspected with pyloric stenosis. What is the best diagnostic test?
A. X ray
B. Ct abdomen
C. Enema with barium

A

A. X ray

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139
Q

Which of the following drugs will not be affected by grapefruit?
A. Aspirin
B. Atorvastatin
C. Verapamil
D. Plavix

A

A. Aspirin

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140
Q

The community nurse visits a patient with epilepsy and arranges for
hospitalization to prevent harm to the patient. What type of ethical issue
is this?
A. Malfeasance
B. Negligence
C. Misfeasance
D. Beneficence

A

D. Beneficence

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141
Q

A patient came to the ER after a motor accident. The patient has
severe bleeding with urine output of 30 ml/hr, blood pressure of 90/60,
and a heart rate of 112. The doctor asks the nurse to assess good tissue
perfusion. Which of the following signs detects that?
A. Heart rate
B. Respiration rate
C. Urine output
D. Blood pressure

A

C. Urine output

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142
Q

A 5-year-old has been diagnosed with Wilms tumor. The doctor
discussed the condition and available treatment options with the parents
and provided them with an appointment to make a decision. What is the
description of this action?
A. Inspiring
B. Empower
C. Enabling
D. Encouraging

A

B. Empower

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143
Q

A nurse is teaching a 13- years- old patient how to give an insulin
injection. What is the description of the nurse’s action?
A. Inspiring
B. Empower
C. Enabling
D. Encouraging

A

B. Empower

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144
Q

What is the complication of thalassemia?
A. Hepatomegaly
B. Bleeding
C. Heart Failure

A

A. Hepatomegaly

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145
Q

Hyperemesis gravidarum is a common occurrence for pregnant
women, and there are home remedies that have been proven to relieve
nausea and vomiting. Which one of the following is one of them?
A. Cucumber
B. Ginger
C. Coffee
D. Cinnamon

A

B. Ginger

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146
Q

What is the diet for a patient after cholecystectomy?
A. Grapes and gelatin
B. Cola and macaroni
C. Cheese cake and yogurt

A

A. Grapes and gelatin

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147
Q

A researcher want to conduct a research for measles vaccine at 1
year of age then will remeasure again at age of 6 years in the relation to
healthy child. What is the type of research?
A. Longitudinal/correlation.
B. Longitudinal/ Cross sectional
C. Cross sectional/correlation.

A

B. Longitudinal/ Cross sectional

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148
Q

A 21-year-old female experiences irregular menstruation. Initially,
her periods are unpredictable and painless. The irregularity is
characterized by anovulatory cycles. What does ‘anovulatory’ mean?
A. 1Ovum from ovary
B. 2 Ovum produced from ovary
C. 0 Ovum from ovary
D. Period delay 2 days from expected /1 ovum produced two day later of
ovulation

A

C. 0 Ovum from ovary

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149
Q

Which of the following is not considered as an obstetrical
emergency?
A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. Placenta previa
C. Placenta anterior
D. Eclampsia

A

C. Placenta anterior

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150
Q

What are the two glands inside to the urethral responsible for
moisturizing?
A. Seminal
B. Bartholin
C. Cowper’s glands

A

C. Cowper’s glands

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151
Q

A 12-year-old boy came to the clinic with his mother. He has a warm
body, weight loss, and trouble sleeping. What does the nurse suspect?
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Hyperparathyroidism
D. Hypoparathyroidism

A

A. Hyperthyroidism

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152
Q

What prevents the recurrence of Rheumatic fever?
A. Antibiotic
B. Antibacterial
C. Anti-viral
D. Corticosteroids

A

A. Antibiotic

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153
Q

The child with dehydration and projectile vomiting He diagnosed
with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis what’s the best for feeding?
A. NGT
B. Rehydrate, and continue breast-feeding
C. Rehydrate, and NGT feeding

A

C. Rehydrate, and NGT feeding

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154
Q

154- Why should hypospadias be repaired before three years old?
A. The child’s movement is limited.
B. Decrease risk infection.
C. This is because the child is cooperative.
D. Before the penis/urethra is fully developed

A

D. Before the penis/urethra is fully developed

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155
Q

The child came to the emergency room with a diagnostic of
appendicitis, requiring emergency operation. What nursing interventions
are needed?
A. Giving medication as order and control pain and fever
B. Positioning the patient on abdominal splint

A

A. Giving medication as order and control pain and fever

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156
Q

156- What causes a decrease in respiratory rate in children post-
operatively, leading to alterations in vital signs?

A. Opioid
B. Hypothermia
C. Hyperthermia

A

A. Opioid

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157
Q

157- What causes a decrease in body temperature in children post-
operatively, leading to alterations in vital signs?
A. Shock
B. Environmental causes
C. Infection

A

B. Environmental causes

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158
Q

158- What is the recommended position for a patient with appendicitis
before surgery?
A. Sim’s
B. High fowler
C. Semi fowler
D. Dorsal recumbent

A

C. Semi fowler

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159
Q

159- A newborn having meconium aspiration. What are the appropriate
diagnostic evaluation tests?
A. Chest-Xray
B. Blood gas
C. Ultrasound

A

A. Chest-Xray

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160
Q

160- Which assessment indicates therapeutic effect of mannitol
(Osmitrol)?
A. Decreased intracranial pressure
B. Decreased potassium
C. Increased urine osmolality
D. Decreased serum osmolality

A

A. Decreased intracranial pressure

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161
Q

161- The doctor ordered a blood transfusion for the patient. What will be
the appropriate action to prevent an allergic reaction?
A. Slow rate of blood lower than the ordered rate
B. Proper labeling and patient identification
C. Administer antihistamine before the blood transfusion
D. Administer antipyretic before the transfusion

A

B. Proper labeling and patient identification

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162
Q

162- After a skin graft on the patient’s leg, there was red discharge
leaking from the dressing. What should be the nurse’s first action?
A. Remove the dressing to assess
B. Apply direct pressure for 10 minutes
C. Elevate the leg

A

B. Apply direct pressure for 10 minutes

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163
Q

163- How to check jaundice in dark skin patients?
A. Nail beds
B. Palm of hand
C. Hard palate
D. Lip

A

C. Hard palate

164
Q

164- A 3 days old newborn who is diagnosed with Hirschsprung disease
presents with failure to pass meconium within 24-48 hours of life. What is
the diagnostic test for Hirschsprung disease?
A. Abdominal X-ray
B. Ultrasound
C. MRI
D. Rectal Biopsy

A

D. Rectal Biopsy

165
Q

165- What is the complication of diaphragmatic hernia?
A. Respiratory hypotension
B. Decrease cardiac output

A

B. Decrease cardiac output

166
Q

166- The nurse respects different cultures and beliefs. What is this
considered?
A. Nursing procedure
B. Autonomy
C. Beneficence

A

C. Beneficence

167
Q

A nurse reviewing the drug chart of her patient needs to determine
which of the following medications she must start first?
A. Cefazolin BID
B. Paracetamol Q6hr
C. Vancomycin TID
D. Amlodipine OD

A

C. Vancomycin TID

168
Q

A nurse researcher interviews parents of children who have diabetes
and asks them to describe how they deal with their child’s illness. The
analysis of the interviews yields common themes and stories describing
the parents’ coping strategies. This is an example of which type of study?
A. Historical
B. Qualitative
C. Correlational
D. Experimental

A

B. Qualitative

169
Q

What is the health education for patient with appendectomy?
A. Resume activity gradually and avoid heavy lifting
B. Prevent complications
C. Signs to report

A

B. Prevent complications

170
Q

Which medication can take from local pharmacy?
A. NSAIDs
B. Contraceptives
C. Antibiotics
D. Antipsychoti

A

A. NSAIDs

171
Q

A patient called the Ministry of Health at 937 to report that she lost
her medication. She asked whether she can obtain it over the counter.
What type of medication is allowed to be taken in that manner?
A. Antipsychotic
B. NSAIDs
C. Contraceptive

A

B. NSAIDs

172
Q

The infant with congenital diaphragmatic hernia, who has been
admitted to the NICU, what intervention should be done first?
A. Mechanical ventilation and intubation
B. Feeding via NGT (nasogastric tube)

A

A. Mechanical ventilation and intubation

173
Q

When assessing the genitals of a newborn boy, the nurse notices that
one testicle is larger than the other, what is this condition called?
A. Cryptorchidism
B. Hydrocele

A

B. Hydrocele

174
Q

A nurse is monitoring a pregnant client with pregnancy induced
hypertension who is at risk for Preeclampsia. The nurse checks the client
for which specific signs of Preeclampsia?
A. Increased respirations
B. Negative urinary protein
C. Elevated blood pressure and positive urinary protein
D. Facial edema

A

C. Elevated blood pressure and positive urinary protein

175
Q

A child has third-degree burns of the hands, face, and chest. Which
nursing diagnosis takes priority?
A. Risk for infection related to epidermal disruption
B. Ineffective airway clearance related to edema
C. Disturbed body image related to physical appearance
D. Impaired urinary elimination related to fluid loss

A

B. Ineffective airway clearance related to edema

176
Q

Which month does the government provide vaccinations for
hepatitis B to children?
A. 0,2,4
B. 0,3,6
C. 0,2,3

A

A. 0,2,4

177
Q

A woman comes to the ER with brown vaginal bleeding. After
reviewing the ultrasound, the doctor decided to perform an emergency
Cesarean section (CS). What should be anticipated?
A. Preeclampsia
B. Total placenta previa
C. Partial placenta previa
D. Preterm labor

A

B. Total placenta previa

178
Q

The patient presented with hypertensive stage 1 blood pressure
130/80. What should be the nurse’s advice to the patient?
A. Change lifestyle /Modify lifestyle
B. Administration beta blockers and diuretic

A

A. Change lifestyle /Modify lifestyle

179
Q

Which of the following mothers is most common susceptible for
laceration during labor?
A. 1 para mother for 11hours delivery
B. 3 para mother for 6 hours delivery
C. 2 para mother for 9 hours delivery
D. 2 para mother for 6 hours delivery

A

B. 3 para mother for 6 hours delivery

180
Q

What is diet of Vagotomy?
A. Increase fluid intake and out put to prevent dehydration
B. Increase fiber diet
C. Reduce protein diet before bed time

A

A. Increase fluid intake and out put to prevent dehydration

181
Q

A patient presents with a blood pressure reading of 189/90. What
would patient at high risk for?
A. Stroke
B. Hypertension
C. DVT
F. DM

A

A. Stroke ✓

182
Q

182- A pregnant woman’s last menstrual period began on April 8, 2005,
and ended on April 13. Using Naegele’s rule her estimated date of birth
would be:
A. July 1, 2006
B. January 15, 2006
C. January 20, 2006
D. November 5, 2005

A

B. January 15, 2006

NOTE:
Naegele’s rule requires subtracting 3 months and adding 7
days and 1 year if appropriate to the first day of a pregnant
woman’s last menstrual period. When this rule, is used with April 8, 2005, the estimated date of birth is January 15, 2006.

183
Q

183- The old patient is suffering from hearing problems. What is the best
way to measure their degree of hearing?
A. Asking the family about their hearing level.
B. Standing behind them and speaking loudly.
C. Writing on a piece of paper and asking them to read it.
D. Use verbal communication first and evaluate

A

D. Use verbal communication first and evaluate

184
Q

184- The health education nurse provides instructions to a group of
clients regarding measures that will assist in preventing skin cancer.
Which instructions should the nurse provide?
A. Sunscreen should be applied every 8 hours
B. Use sunscreen when participating in outdoor activities
C. Avoid exposure to the sun in the late afternoon
D. Avoid exposure to the morning sun

A

B. Use sunscreen when participating in outdoor activities

185
Q

185- A 66-year-old patient came to the emergency department with
angina, and the doctor prescribed heparin. Which of the following is a
risk factor for bleeding?
A. Age
B. Hypertension
C. Angina

A

A. Age

186
Q

186- In children suspected to have a diagnosis of diabetes, which one of
the following complaints would be most likely to prompt parents to take
their school-aged child for evaluation? (Nclex)
A. Polyphagia
B. Dehydration
C. Bedwetting
D. Weight loss

A

C. Bedwetting

187
Q

187- Child with type 1 diabetes mellitus. The nurse is instructing mother.
Which of the following signs should be alert?
A. Polyphagia
B. Vomiting
C. Bedwetting
D. Thirsty

A

C. Bedwetting

188
Q

188- The older woman, who hasn’t been doing BSE (Breast Self-
Examination) for 7 years, came to the clinic. What advice should the
nurse give her regarding performing BSE? How frequently should she
perform it?
A. Monthly
B. Annually
C. Quarterly
D. Biannual

A

A. Monthly ✓

189
Q

189- The patient has TB, and the nurse wants to educate him about the
safe way to dispose of secretions. What can she do to ensure that he has
done it correctly?/ What are the instructions during discharge?
A. Washing hands before and after a meal
B. Dispose of the dirty tissue in a plastic bag
C. Instructing to move the head away when coughing

A

B. Dispose of the dirty tissue in a plastic bag

190
Q

190- A patient presented with an aortic aneurysm and requires an urgent
operation. What is the most important investigation to perform?
A. PT
B. PPT
C. Cross match and type blood group
D. Ultrasound

A

C. Cross match and type blood group

191
Q

191- Which one is subjective data?
A. Patient say pain 6/10
B. Oxygen 90%
C. Temperature 36.7
D. HR 90

A

A. Patient say pain 6/10

192
Q

192- While changing the tapes on a tracheostomy tube, the client coughs
and the tube is dislodged. Which is the initial nursing action?
A. Call a respiratory therapist to reinsert the tracheotomy.
B. Cover the tracheostomy site with a sterile dressing.
C. Call the physician to reinsert the tracheotomy.
D. Grasp the retention sutures to spread the opening

A

D. Grasp the retention sutures to spread the opening

193
Q

193- Gracie, the mother of a 3-month-old infant calls the clinic and states
that her child has a diaper rash. What should the nurse advise?
A. Use baby wipes with each diaper change
B. Switch to cloth diapers until the rash is gone
C. Offer extra fluids to the infant until the rash improves
D. Leave the diaper off while the infant sleeps

A

D. Leave the diaper off while the infant sleeps

194
Q

194- The patient visited the clinic to seek treatment for infertility. During
the nurse’s assessment of her medical history, the patient mentioned that
her husband works in the X-Ray department of this hospital. What could
be the cause of infertility?
A. Radiation cause
B. Chemical cause

A

A. Radiation cause

195
Q

195- A mother infected with COVID-19 wants to breastfeed her baby.
What instructions should the nurse provide?
A. Stop breastfeeding
B. Exposed to breastfeeding
C. Switch to bottle
D. Breastfeeding with precautions

A

D. Breastfeeding with precautions

196
Q

196- Contains information that is gathered routinely, such as vital signs,
the frequency of urination and bowel movements, and food and fluid
intake?
A. Medical History
B. Graphic Sheet
C. Recording
D. Nursing History

A

B. Graphic Sheet

197
Q

197- The nurse research study to women eat more salt high risk for
hypertension other group low risk. What is the type of study?
A. Cohort study
B. Randomized control trial
C. Case report

A

A. Cohort study

198
Q

198- Research Study about corona outbreak in period of march 2020
until October 2020. Which types of research?
A. Retrospective
B. Prospective
C. Continue
D. Concurrent

A

A. Retrospective

199
Q

199- A pregnant woman at 38 weeks gestation and in stage 1 active phase.
She presented to the emergency department with signs of labor, and her
cervix is dilated 8 cm. The nurse needs to transfer her to the operating
room (OR), but when she called the OR, they said there are no available
beds. What is the expected action for the nurse to take?
A. Tell her to go to another hospital.
B. Refer to gynecology department
C. Ask to take deep breath to prolong labor
D. They deliver her in the emergency room

A

D. They deliver her in the emergency room

200
Q

200- If un registered nurse apply cannula to the patient?
A. Avoidance
B. Assault
C. Malpractice

A

C. Malpractice

201
Q

201- A patient does not speak the same language as the nurse. How does
the nurse rate the pain scale?
A. Assess nonverbal
B. I ignore the Patience
C. Wait for the patient’s family

A

A. Assess nonverbal

202
Q

202- The patient is bedridden and not allowed to walk. How can the nurse
measure the weight of a bedridden patient?
A. Hoist scale
B. Sitting scale
C. Don’t do weight measure
D. Standing scale

A

A. Hoist scale

203
Q

203- The physician writes an order for Ibuprofen 3 mg/kg by mouth TID
for pain for a child. The child weighs 13 kg. Pharmacy dispenses you with
50 mg/2 ml. How many ml will you administer per dose ?
A. 1.12 ml
B. 1.56 ml

A

B. 1.56 ml

204
Q

204- A postpartum woman in her third week after delivery came to the
emergency room with heavy bleeding. What could be the cause of the
bleeding?
A. Infection or retained of product placenta

A

A. Infection or retained of product placenta

205
Q

206- After experiencing a needle stick injury from a patient in isolation,
what should a nurse do?
A. Squeezing her finger
B. Informing a supervisor
C. Withdrawing the needle
D. Completing the procedure

A

B. Informing a supervisor

206
Q

205- Which of the following is the accurate fluid intake for breastfeeding
mother in first 6 months?
A. 100 ml
B. 400 ml
C. 600 ml
D. 800 ml

A

D. 800 ml

207
Q

207- A patient with renal calculi is undergoing a percutaneous
nephrostomy and asks the nurse to explain the procedure. What should
the nurse’s answer be?
A. Administering a chemical agent to dissolve the stone.
B. Using laser waves
C. Incision in renal pelvic to remove stone
D. Using an incision in the skin with a scope and forceps to remove
stones

A

D. Using an incision in the skin with a scope and forceps to remove
stones

208
Q

208- A 33 week pregnant mother is on her routine medications that
include iron supplement , folic acid , multivitamins and calcium
supplement , despite all medication her hemoglobin has not been increase
since last two month, she is experiencing more fatigue and lethargy since
past few weeks HB 80 ….. HCT 0.22. Which of the following intervention
is the most desired?
A. should separate the iron and calcium for two hours
B. Start injectable multivitamins as per regimen
C. Advise increase intake of organ meat and fortified food
D. Advise increased food intake by frequent small meals and snacks

A

A. should separate the iron and calcium for two hours

209
Q

209- Pregnant women in active labor, how many times the midwife did
vaginal examination?
A. With each contraction
B. As much as pot
C. Every 4 hours
D. Limited vaginal examination

A

D. Limited vaginal examination

210
Q

210- The patient reported having pain and taking morphine, but the pain
increased, leading the patient to request an increase in the dose. What is
the patient experiencing?
A. Drug addiction
B. Drug tolerance

A

B. Drug tolerance

211
Q

211- A nurse in the emergency department receives a report that a man
has arrived, screaming and yelling that his wife is bleeding in the car.
What is the nurse’s first action?
A. Provide emotional support and reassurance to the husband / Calm the
patient
B. Triage the wife
C. Notify the attending physician
D. Gather a team to prepare instruments for examination

A

B. Triage the wife

212
Q

212- Where is the best place to locate systematic reviews? Systemic
reviews, which found located?
A. PubMed
B. Cochrane library
C. MEDLIN

A

B. Cochrane library

213
Q

213- The Wassermann test should be done before maternity for the early
identification of which of the following?
A. Hepatitis C
B. HIV
C. Syphilis
D. Toxicology

A

C. Syphilis

214
Q

214- There is a difference between invasive and non-invasive fetal
assessments. What non-invasive assessment does not harm the mother
and child?
A. Amniocentesis
B. Cordocentesis
C. Non stress test

A

C. Non stress test

215
Q

215- A psychiatric patient received an overdose of benzodiazepine. The
doctor prescribed an antidote. Which adverse effect of flumazenil should
you check before administration?
A. Anxiety
B. Seizure
C. Shivering
D. Chest pain

A

B. Seizure

216
Q

216- A patient came with neck stiffness. He can’t straighten his leg. What
is this called?
A. Kernig’s sign
B. Brudzinski sign
C. Seizure activity sign

A

A. Kernig’s sign

217
Q

217- A woman is diagnosed with gonorrhea, and she is worried about her
diagnosis. Which of the following is the appropriate description of the
disease?
A. Partner test should not be present in
B. Asymptomatic
C. Sexual inactivity

A

B. Asymptomatic

218
Q

218- A Patient with second degree AV block medication (atropine
,adenosine, diltiazem ) After confirmation safety in patient arrest what
second action?
A. Check responsiveness
B. Shout for help
C. Start chest compressions
D. Activate EMR

A

A. Check responsiveness

219
Q

19- 15-years old female needs urgent surgery. The informed consent
should taken from which person?
A. Patient
B. Physician
C. Nurse
D. Legal guardian

A

D. Legal guardian

220
Q

220- What is COPD position?
A. Semi fowler
B. Sitting position ✓
C. 40 degree level position
D. 45 degree level position

A

B. Sitting position

221
Q

221- Child irritable, cry , turning head side to side , which the diagnosis ؟
A. Acute otitis media
B. Otitis media with effusion

A

A. Acute otitis media

222
Q

222- Before giving any patient medication and to avoid medication errors,
what should the nurse check?
A. Code system
B. Drug display
C. Bar code

A

C. Bar code

223
Q

223- 80 years old geriatric patient fell and got injured, what should the
nurse do?
A. Ignore the patient
B. Inform the nurse in the same shift
C. Over hand with the next shift nurse
D. Document this in patient file

A

D. Document this in patient file

224
Q

224- What is used in past in normal delivery?
A. Active management of third stag
B. Use of enema

A

B. Use of enema

225
Q

225- Which of the following signs and symptoms would indicate
malnutrition?
A. Nail patella
B. Dry eyes
C. Pale

A

B. Dry eyes
C. Pale

226
Q

226- Research about medical errors?
A. Grounded
B. phenomenology
C. Ethnography
D. Case studies

A

D. Case studies

227
Q

227- German measles incubation period?
A. 1 week
B. 2 weeks
C. 5 days

A

B. 2 weeks

228
Q

228- A woman first time do mammogram Pap smear testing. Which of
the following is the goal of the nursing practice here?
A. Health promotion
B. Health protection
C. Disease prevention

A

C. Disease prevention

229
Q

229- A 36 weeks pregnant woman went into labor and said that she uses
cocaine. Who should the nurse report it to?
A. Obstetric doctor
B. Hospital police
C. Not tell anyone.
D. Husband or legal guardian

A

A. Obstetric doctor

230
Q

230- A female patient came to the ER two weeks after postpartum and
presented with hemorrhage. What type of postpartum hemorrhage is the
nurse expecting?
A. Late postpartum hemorrhage
B. Early postpartum hemorrhage
C. Atonic
D. Traumatic

A

A. Late postpartum hemorrhage

231
Q

231- A pregnant woman in labor has a cervix dilated to 7cm. What is the
frequency of
contractions?
A. 3-4 minutes
B. 2-3 minutes
C. 1-2 minutes

A

A. 3-4 minutes

232
Q

232- When is abortion allowed in Saudi Arabia?
A. There is a risk to the mother
B There is a risk to the baby

A

A. There is a risk to the mother

233
Q

233- The nurse has a patient whose condition has changed. The patient
had a stroke and an increase in WBC (white blood cell count). They also
developed a skin rash. Chest X-rays were taken, and they came back
normal. The nurse requested the doctor to assess the patient’s condition
and order further tests. what is missing from SBAR?
A. Situation
B. Background
C. Assessment
D. Recommendation

A

D. Recommendation

234
Q

234- What is the purpose of the Brodie-Trendelenburg Test ?
A. DVT
B. Varicose vein
C. Valvular disorder
D. Thrombophlebitis

A

B. Varicose vein

235
Q

235- What are the foods that patients with gout should avoid, and what is
the food that is considered high in protein?
A. Eggs
B. Nuts
C. Red meat
D. Legumes

A

C. Red meat

236
Q

236- In the elderly home, there is a common problem among the elderly,
which is difficulty swallowing and the occurrence of aspiration. What is
appropriate action by the nurse?
A. Time limited meals
B. Keep privacy during meals
C. Implement Chin-tuck method for those with dysphagia

A

C. Implement Chin-tuck method for those with dysphagia

237
Q

237- As parents with three children, which type of food should be
maximized for their kids?
A. Fat
B. Protein
C. Carbohydrate

A

B. Protein

238
Q

238- When a postpartum mother is not showing affection to her newborn,
such as smiling, kissing, and not making eye contact, what assessment
should be used?
A. Newborn initial assessment
B. Newborn transitional assessment
C. Newborn attachment assessment

A

C. Newborn attachment assessment

239
Q

239- A nonstress test is performed on a client who is pregnant, and the
results of the test indicate nonreactive findings. The health care provider
(HCP) prescribes a contraction stress test. The test is performed, and the
nurse notes that the HCP has documented the results as negative. How
should the nurse interpret this finding?
A. A normal test result ✓
B. An abnormal test result
C. A high risk for fetal demise
D. The need for a cesarean delivery

A

D. The need for a cesarean delivery

240
Q

240-Lanugo hair found on?
A. Back
B. holder
C. forehead

A

A. Back

241
Q

241- The child presented with a low-grade fever ,is sneezing and appears
restless, What instructions would you give to the parents?
A. Penicillin for 3 days
B. Antivirus 10 days
C. Antipyretic
D. Cough depressant

A

C. Antipyretic

242
Q

242- A patient has a low- grade fever and is shivering. What is
appropriate action?
A. Analgesic
B. Antipyretic
C. Antibiotic

A

B. Antipyretic

243
Q

243- A newborn presented with mild fever cough, poor feeding, sneezing,
crying and appears restless. What advice did the nurse give to the
mother?
A. Amoxicillin for 3 days
B. Antiviral for a week
C. Give antipyretic for mild fever and discomfort
D. Cough depressant

A

C. Give antipyretic for mild fever and discomfort

244
Q

244- Pediatric patient with low temperature what should the mother do?
A. Give an antipyretic
B. Administer an antibiotic course of 3 days
C. Administer an antibiotic course of 5 days

A

A. Give an antipyretic

245
Q

245- A 2-months old infant was brought to the health center for
immunization, during assessment the infant temperature registered at
38.1C. Which is the best course of action that you will take?
A. Go on with the infant immunization
B. Give paracetamol and wait for his fever to subside
C. Refer the infant to the physician for further assessment
D. Advise the infant mother to bring him back for immunization when he is
well

A

A. Go on with the infant immunization

246
Q

246- A patient with diabetes has high blood sugar. The nurse informed
the doctor over the phone that he was busy in an operation, and then the
doctor asked the nurse to administer orders for NPH insulin over the
phone. What is the reason for the nurse to administer the medication?
A. Emergency situation
B. Physician is busy
C. Trust between nurse and doctor
D. Phone order , the same witness

A

A. Emergency situation

247
Q

247- What are the most common causes of maternal mortality?
A. Puerperal sepsis
B. Hemorrhage
C. Pre-eclampsia
D. Diabetes mellitus

A

B. Hemorrhage

248
Q

248- A patients mania ,delusion and hallucinations what is the most likely
nursing diagnosis?
A. Impaired thought processes
B. Risk of direct violence
C. Disturbances of sensory perception

A

A. Impaired thought processes

249
Q

249- A patient will go to rectal surgery, doctor ask the nurse to bath him
for the surgery which kind of bath the nurse will do?
A. Bed bath
B. Sitz bath
C. Partial bath
D. With Cleansed

A

B. Sitz bath

250
Q

250- Which of the following is not alif threating cause of chest pain?
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. M l (myocardial infarction)
C. Acute coronary syndrome
D. Esophageal rupture

A

D. Esophageal rupture

251
Q

251- Patient came in ER when the nurse checked the temperature found
febrile 40 . Which of the following refill should be?
A. ICU
B. CCU
C. Medical
D. Communicable disease pavilion

A

D. Communicable disease pavilion

252
Q
A
253
Q

252- What is 4th degree perineal tear?
A. Perineal and external anal sphincter
B. Perineal anal sphincter mucosa

A

A. Perineal and external anal sphincter

254
Q

253- The doctor is conducting an assessment while the patient is
uncomfortable and asks, What should the nurse do?
A. Cover the unassessed area
B. Stop the assessment and write a report
C. Ignore the patient
D. Complete the assessment

A

A. Cover the unassessed area

255
Q

254- What is the recommended diet for gout disease?
A. High fiber
B. Potassium modified
C. Low calcium
D. Low-purine diet

A

D. Low-purine diet

256
Q

255- The vegetarian people that not eat red meat. Which of deficiency is
high risk?
A. Vitamin D
B. Vitamin C
C. Folic Acid
D. Riboflavin

A

D. Riboflavin

257
Q

256- A child came into the ER presenting with diarrhea and vomiting.
Which of the following can be considered signs of improvement in an
infant?
A. Decreased fontanelle
B. Tears when the infant cries
257- Before administering NG

A

B. Tears when the infant cries

258
Q

257- Before administering NGT feeding, what should the nurse do?
A. Aspirate 30 cc to check for residual feeding from the last time
B. Check the consistency of the food
C. Ensure the NGT is correctly placed

A

C. Ensure the NGT is correctly placed

259
Q
  1. A 12- year- old boy was brought to the Emergency respiratory arrest due to drowning. Cardiac resuscitation
    what is the major complication that might happen if treated after drowning quickly?
    A. Sepsis
    B. Alkalosis
    C. Acidosis
    D. Hypothermia
A

C. Acidosis

260
Q
  1. An ICU nurse reviews the chart of a 47-year-old man patient mechanical ventilator for a long time. Arterial
    blood gas result see lab results).
    Test Result Normal Values
    ABG HCO3 24 22-28mmd/L
    ABG PCO3 10.66 4.7-6.0KPa
    PH 7.16 7.36-7.45
    ABG PO2 6.13 10.6-14.2 KPa
    SA O2 81 95-100 %
    What condition the patient is experiencing presently?
    A. Metabolic acidosis
    B. Metabolic alkalosis
    C. Respiratory acidosis
    D. Respiratory alkalosis
A

C. Respiratory acidosis

261
Q
  1. Gastric suction can cause :
    A. Metabolic acidosis
    B. Respiratory acidosis
    C. Metabolic alkalosis
    D. Respiratory alkalosis.
A

C. Metabolic alkalosis

262
Q
  1. ABG reading was low PH ,HIGH PCO2 , NORMAL Hco3 what the interpretation ?
    A. Compensated respiratory acidosis
    B. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
    C. Metabolic acidosis
    D. Metabolic alkalosis
A

B. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis

263
Q
  1. Patient with ABG PH 7.33 و HCO3 30 , PCO2 50
    A. Compensate respiratory
    B. Compensate metabolic
    C. Uncompensated respiratory
    D. Uncompensated metabolic
A

C. Uncompensated respiratory

264
Q
  1. The nurse assesses a client with an ileostomy for possible development of which of the following acid-base
    imbalances?

A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis

A

B. Metabolic acidosis

265
Q
  1. The nurse is assigned to care for the a patient with Cushing syndrome on adrenal corticoid hormones syndrome
    on adrenal corticoid hormones Ph 7.2 Which of the following condition should nurse expect to patient
    A. Respiratory alkalosis
    B. Respiratory acidosis
    C. Metabolic alkalosis
    D. Metabolic acidosis
A

D. Metabolic acidosis

266
Q
  1. A nurse reviewed a chart of a 42 year-old man whose ABG analysis report is shown PH 7.20 PCO2 35 HCO3
  2. Which of the following I the most likely interpretation of the findings in the report?
    A. Respiratory alkalosis
    B. Metabolic acidosis
    C. Respiratory acidosis
    D. Metabolic acidosis
A

D. Metabolic acidosis

267
Q
  1. A 20 year old woman, a case of panic attacks, comes to the emergency department. An arterial blood gas
    analysis is done PH 7.53 7.35-7.45 HCO3 22 22-26 PCO2 27 35-45 what is most likely?
    A. Metabolic acidosis
    B. Metabolic alkalosis
    C. Respiratory acidosis
    D. Respiratory alkalosis
A

D. Respiratory alkalosis

268
Q
  1. A client was admitted in the Emergency Room due to mild metabolic acidosis associated with dehydration and
    potassium the doctor administered Hartmann’s (lactated Ringer’s) intravenous fluid and electrolyte
    replacement. Which of the following elements of the lactated Ringer’s solution highest value?
    A. Calcium
    B. Sodium
    C. Potassium
    D. Magnesium
A

B. Sodium

269
Q
  1. Ringer Lactate consider as which type of IV solution?
    A. Hypotonic
    B. Hypertonic
    C. Isotonic
    D. Hyper alimentation
A

C. Isotonic

270
Q
  1. physician orders an intravenous fluid of D5NS at 100cc/hr. This is an example of which of the solution?
    A. hyper alimentation
    B. hypertonic
    C. hypotonic
    D. isotonic
A
271
Q
  1. 13-year-old patient is admitted for diarrhoea and vomiting. He looks pale and lethargic. A nurse is preparing to
    give IV hypotonic solution.
    Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg
    Heart rate 76 /min
    Respiratory rate 18 /min
    Temperature 36.1°C
    Which IV solution is most appropriate?
    A. 0.9% saline
    B. Lactated ringers
    C. 10% dextrose in water
    D. 0.45% sodium chloride
A

D. 0.45% sodium chloride

272
Q
  1. CPR Technique IS :
    A. 30:2 120
    B. 15:2 100
A

A. 30:2 120

273
Q
  1. You are performing CPR on an infant when a second rescuer appears. What is the next step in management?
    A. Immediately transport the patient
    B. Wait until exhausted, then switch
    C. Have the second rescuer help with CPR, to minimize fatigue
    D. Have the second rescuer begin ventilations; ratio 30:2
A

C. Have the second rescuer help with CPR, to minimize fatigue

274
Q
  1. What should be your first concern at the scene where a person has been seriously burned?
    A. Checking the scene for safety.
    B. Checking the victims breathing and pulse.
    C. Calling your local emergency phone number.
    D. Cooling the burned area.
A

A. Checking the scene for safety.

275
Q
  1. While performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on a 5-year-old child, the nurse palpates for a pulse.
    Which of the following sites is best for checking the pulse during CPR in a 5-year-old child?
    A. Femoral artery
    B. Carotid artery.
    C. Radial artery
    D. Brachial artery
A

B. Carotid artery.

276
Q
  1. After activating the emergency call system, what should be the next immediate action?
    A. Initiate ventricular pacing
    B. Administer a bolus of lidocaine as prescribed
    C. Defibrillate the patient
    D. Open the patient’s airway
A

C. Defibrillate the patient

277
Q
  1. A nursing instructor teaches a group of students about basic life support. The instructor asks a student to
    identify the most appropriate location to assess the pulse of an infant under 1 year of age. Which of the
    following if stated by the student, would indicate that the student understands the appropriate procedure:
    A. Carotid
    B. Popliteal
    C. Radial
    D. Brachial
A

D. Brachial

278
Q
  1. A nurse is transferring a patient with chest tube the X-ray department for chest X-ray. Which location should the
    nurse place chest tube
    A. Directly on the stretcher in an upright
    B. On the side of stretcher next to patient
    C. Hanged on IV pole that is attached to the
    D. Attached to the stretcher and hanged
A

D. Attached to the stretcher and hanged

279
Q
  1. 69 year-old man is admitted to the intensive care unit following cardiac surgery. Two hours after admission, the
    nurse performs a routine assessment and notes the patient’s chest tube drainage is 200 milliliters and a dark red
    color. He has had 60 milliliters output from the indwelling urinary catheter
    Blood pressure 138/68 mmhg
    Heart rate 76/min
    Respiratory rate 16/min
    Body temperature 37.0C oral
    Oxygen saturation 94% 6L/min nasal cannula
    Which finding should be reported to the doctor?
    A. Dark red chest tube drainage
    B. Urinary output
    C. Oxygen saturation
    D. Chest tube output volume
A

C. Oxygen saturation

280
Q
  1. 40 year-old male patient has a chest tube and properly fixed following cardiac surgery. The chest tube is patent
    and functioning. When the nurse removes the dressing the tube falls out of the chest. Which is the most
    appropriate initial intervention the nurse should take?
    A. Reinsert the chest tube and notify the surgeon
    B. Apply an occlusive dressing to the insertion site
    C. Place the open end of the tube in 20 cm of water
    D. Administer O2 at 10L/min via non-rebreather mask
A

B. Apply an occlusive dressing to the insertion site

281
Q
  1. While attempting to get of the bed a patient accidentally disconnects the chest tube from the pleura evac
    drainage system which of the following actions should the nurse take first
    A. Insert the end of the chest tube in a container of sterile solution
    B. Raise the end chest tube above the level of insertion of the chest tube
    C. Clamp the chest tube near pleura evac drainage system
    D. Apply pressure dressing to chest tube insertion site
A

A. Insert the end of the chest tube in a container of sterile solution

282
Q
  1. The nurse is caring for a client who has just had a chest tube attached to a water seal drainage system. To ensure
    that the system is functioning effectively the nurse should:
    A. Observe for intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber
    B. Flush the chest tubes with 30-60 ml of NSS every 4-6 hours
    C. Maintain the client in an extreme lateral position
    D. Strip the chest tubes in the direction of the client
A

A. Observe for intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber

283
Q
  1. A client chest tube is connected to a chest tube drainage system with a water seal . The nurse noted that the
    water seal c is fluctuating with each breath that client takes . The fluctuation mwans that
    A. There is an obstruction in the chest tube
    B. The client is developing emphysema
    C. The chest tube system is functioning properly
    D. There is leak in the chest tube system
A

C. The chest tube system is functioning properly

284
Q
  1. 20-Your patient has a chest tube. Your assessing the water seal chamber and you note ).11 that the water moves
    up as the patient inhales and then moves down when the patient ?exhales. What may be causing this to happen
    A. This is normal and expected
    B. The chest tube has a leak
    C. The left chest tube is occluded
    D. The water seal suction should be increased 2-5 mmHg
A

A. This is normal and expected

285
Q
  1. 21-You are assisting a MD with the removal of a chest tube. What activity may the MD have ?the patient
    perform while the chest tube is being removed
    A. Valsalva maneuver.
    B. Leopold Maneuver
    C. Chest Physiotherapy
    D. Huff Cough Technique
A

A. Valsalva maneuver.

286
Q
  1. A 67 year-old man is admitted to the Post-anesthesia Recovery unit following chest surgery. The patient has a
    right chest tube that is attached to low suction. Three hours after admission to the unit, the nurse observes the
    drainage output from the chest tube is 300 milliliters. What is the most appropriate initial intervention?
    A. Notify the doctor
    B. Reduce IV infusion rate
    C. Strip tube with roller device
    D. Re-position in left lateral decubitus
A

A. Notify the doctor

287
Q
  1. The nurse is caring for a client who has had a chest tube inserted and connected to water seal drainage. The
    nurse determines the drainage system is functioning correctly when which of the following is observed:
    A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
    B. Fluctuation in the water seal chamber
    C. Suction tubing attached to a wall unit
    D. Vesicular breath sounds throughout the lung fields
A

B. Fluctuation in the water seal chamber

288
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of epidemic point source?
    A. Tuberculosis
    B. Public health agency
    C. Contaminated water source
    D. Communicable disease pavilion
A

C. Contaminated water source

289
Q
  1. A 32 years old man develops chronic productive cough. He has not been feeling hungry and has lost three
    kilograms body weight in the past three weeks. On examination of his lung
    fields, there was diminished breath sound and widespread crackles. An early
    morning sputum culture was sent to the lab.
    A. Droplet
    B. Contact
    C. Airborne
    Rationale TB chest XRAY
A

C. Airborne

290
Q
  1. 8 year-old man is diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) and negative pressure room. Which of the following should
    wear a facemask?
    A. Patient’s health care providers
    B. All people who enter the patient’s room
    C. Person has close contact with the patient
    D. Family members who are at risk for infection
A

B. All people who enter the patient’s room

291
Q
  1. A nurse working in medical unit is preparing to with droplet precaution measures in place. The following
    personal protective equipment; eyewear. What is the correct sequence foe putting the equipment on?
    A. Face Mask, Gown, Eyewear, and Gloves
    B. Gown, Face Mask, Eyewear, and Gloves
    C. Eyewear, Cloves, Face Mask, and Gown
    D. Gloves, Gown, Face Mask, and Eyewear
A

B. Gown, Face Mask, Eyewear, and Gloves

292
Q
  1. A nurse working in medical unit is going out (removing) with droplet precaution measures in place. The following
    personal protective equipment; eyewear. What is the correct sequence foe putting the equipment off?
    A. Face Mask, Gown, Eyewear, and Gloves
    B. Gown, Face Mask, Eyewear, and Gloves
    C. Eyewear, Cloves, Face Mask, and Gown
    D. Gloves, Eyewear , Gown, , and Face Mask
A

D. Gloves, Eyewear , Gown, , and Face Mask

293
Q
  1. Mr X attended in outpatient clinic with symptoms of shortness of breath, diarrhea and severe respiratory
    distress Which of the following is the best diagnosis of Mrs. A case?
    A. Corona virus
    B. Swine Flue
    C. Zika virus
    D. Hepatitis
A

A. Corona virus

294
Q
  1. A nurse receives a telephone call from the admission office of the hospital and is told that a patient with
    streptococcal meningitis will be admitted to the Medical Unit. The nurse is planning to apply infection control
    measures for the patient. Which type of isolation precaution the nurse must observe?
    A. Droplet precautions
    B. Contact precautions
    C. Airborne precautions
    D. Standard precautions
A

A. Droplet precautions

295
Q
  1. A 35 year old patient was admitted to a medical ward with confirmed agnosies f meningococcal infection.
    Which of the following infection control preventions the nurse should implement?
    A. Droplet precaution
    B. Contact precaution
    C. Airborne precaution
    D. Standard precaution
A

A. Droplet precaution

296
Q
  1. A 16 month old child is hospital in the intensive care unit with multi resistant sepsis. On the 3rd day. She had
    explosive diarrhea. A stool sample was sent to the laboratory for C. difficle investigation. Which of the following
    transmission based precaution is most appropriate?
    A. Combination airborne and droplet
    B. Contact
    C. Droplet
    D. Airborne
A

B. Contact

297
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most effective infection control precaution to prevent nosocomial infection?
    A. Hand washing before and after patient contact
    B. Wearing gloves and mask for direct patient care
    C. Isolation precaution
    D. Broad spectrum antibiotic
A

A. Hand washing before and after patient contact

298
Q
  1. Mantoux test done for a patient result was 6.5cm it consider?
    A. Latent
    B. Suspected
    C. Active
A

B. Suspected

299
Q
  1. When planning discharge teaching for a patient hospitalized for treatment of the 3rd burns over 30% of the
    body, a nurse knows it is most important to include instructions regarding the loss of large amounts of serum
    occurring with burns and the resulting loss of immune function. Which of the following instructions should be
    include?
    A. Wash hands frequently each day
    B. Wear supplemental oxygen at night
    C. Wear masks while in public spaces
    D. Take a multiple vitamin tablet night
A

A. Wash hands frequently each day

300
Q
  1. An infection control nurse notices purulent exudates , redness and tenderness on the surgical wound site for
    few post –operative patients in a surgical unit , She discussed with the ward nurse and emphasized that wound
    infection after the surgery can be prevented. Which of the following is the best possible action to minimize the incidence of wound infection ?
    A. Perform assessment of pain on the wound site
    B. Wash hand before and after each patient activity
    C. Encourage adequate intake and early ambulation
A

B. Wash hand before and after each patient activity

301
Q
  1. A patient in surgical was transferred to isolation room after the wound swab confirmed to have methicillin
    Resistant staphylococcus Atreus MRSA. Which of the following measures should the nurse take to prevent
    infection in the ward?
    A. Clean the would three times a day
    B. Discard all soiled dressing into waste bag
    C. Instruct the patient to wash hands regularly
    D. Wear gloves and gown on every entry into the room
A

D. Wear gloves and gown on every entry into the room

302
Q
  1. Medical asepsis requires which of the following hand washing techniques?
    A. Use hot water to ensure that pathogens are killed
    B. Use circular motion washing from clean to dirty areas
    C. Rinse soap off keeping hands and forearms lower than downs
    D. Hands shall be held higher than elbows and scrub
A

D. Hands shall be held higher than elbows and scrub

303
Q
  1. A 45-year-old patient admitted with pulmonary tuberculosis. The unit nurse placed the patient in an isolation
    room with negative air pressure and prepared all the personal protective equipment at the entrance of the
    room. What type of precaution measure has the nurse activated?
    A. Contact
    B. Droplet
    C. Airborne
    D. Standard
A

C. Airborne

304
Q
  1. To reduce the risk of transmitting methicillin-resistant staphylococcus auras (MRSA) from an infectious wound,
    which of the following precautions should be implemented?
    A. Airborne
    B. Contact
    C. Droplet
    D. Reverse isolation
A

B. Contact

305
Q
  1. A 45 year old patient is admitted with pulmonary tuberculosis. The unit nurse placed the patient in isolation
    room with negative air pressure and prepared all PPE at the entrance of the room. Which of the following PPE is
    the most important for the nurse when caring for this patient?
    A. Hair cover
    B. Sterile gloves
    C. N95 respirator
    D. Protective goggle
A

C. N95 respirator

306
Q
  1. 8 month-old child diagnosed with bronchiolitis due to respiratory ncytial virus (RSV) is admitted to the pediatric
    hospital. The nurse should initiate which of the following isolation precaution?
    A. Contact
    B. Airborne
    C. Standard
    D. Droplet
A

A. Contact

307
Q
  1. A 5-year-old child is seen in the primary care clinic with mild fever, headache, and malaise for about 2 days and
    today he has a rash filled with fluids. which of the following is the best suggested diagnosis?
    A. Chicken pox
    B. German measles
    C. Measles
    D. Scarlet fever
A

A. Chicken pox

308
Q
  1. A eight year-old boy present to the pediatric clinic with his mother who complains that the child has developed a
    skin rash. There is a clear drainage from the nose and he appears tired. The rash first appeared on the face and
    then spread over the trunk and is now beginning to appear over the hands. Some lesions show open ulcerations
    and other have crusted over. There are scratch marks over the skin. Which finding would indicate the child is
    ready to return to school
    A. Normal body temperature
    B. Dry and scabbed lesions
    C. Nares of free of drainage
    D. Absence of rash over trunk
A

B. Dry and scabbed lesions

309
Q
  1. A patient with measles (rubella) is on airborne precautions. Which of the following precaution techniques would
    be essential to implement for non-immune persons entering the room?
    A. Gloves
    B. Gowns
    C. Masks
    D. Face shields
A

C. Masks

310
Q
  1. A home health nurse has entered a home to complete an admission assessment on a patient who has a
    methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) urinary tract infection. The patient will receive intravenous
    anti-infective via a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) for 3 weeks. Which of the following actions
    should the nurse take FIRST?
    A. Shake the patient’s hand
    B. Place the nursing supply began a clean, dry surface.
    C. Obtain the patient’s written consent for home health care
    D. Perform hand hygiene per the agency protocol
A

D. Perform hand hygiene per the agency protocol

311
Q
  1. You have just admitted a patient with bacterial meningitis to the medical-surgical unit. The patient complains of
    a severe headache with photophobia and has a temperature of 102.60 F orally. Which type of isolation should be
    suitable for the patient?

A. Air borne
B. Contact
C. Droplet

A

C. Droplet

312
Q
  1. In order to reduce the risk of disease transmission from a patient with diphtheria, which of the following
    standard precautions would the nurse implement?
    A. Airborne
    B. Contact
    C. Droplet
    D. Ventilatory
A

C. Droplet

313
Q
  1. Patient with a colostomy complains of itching of the peris tornal skin. On assessment, the skin is covered in a red
    rash with white patches visible. What is the most likely cause of this condition?
    A. Not changing the pouch regularly
    B. Candidiasis
    C. Consuming acid-producing foods
    D. Dehydration
A

B. Candidiasis

314
Q
  1. A 33-year-old woman has come to the outpatient clinic for treatment of a vaginal infection. Physical assessment
    reveals yellowish excessive, thin offensive and frothy discharge. Which of the following is the most likely
    diagnosis?
    A. Candidiasis
    B. Trichomoniasis
    C. Bacterial vaginosis
    D. Chlamydia
A

B. Trichomoniasis

315
Q
  1. The nurse is assessing a 65-year-old patient, who reports the fatigue, weight loss, night sweats, and a productive
    cough with thick sputum The nurse should immediately initiate isolation precautions for which of the following?
    A. Influenza
    B. Pertussis
    C. Bacterial pneumonia
    D. Pulmonary tuberculosis
A

D. Pulmonary tuberculosis

316
Q
  1. Which of the following diagnostic tests is definitive for TB?
    A. Chest x-ray
    B. Mantoux test
    C. Sputum culture
    D. Tuberculin test
A

C. Sputum culture

317
Q
  1. A patient presented with high fever, headache, vomiting and neck stiffness for the past 3 days, which of the
    following is the first diagnostic intervention for this patient:
    A. Urine and stool analysis
    B. lumber puncture with CSF aspiration
    C. Complete blood count
    D. Chest and abdomen x-ray
A

B. lumber puncture with CSF aspiration

318
Q
  1. When a patient is admitted with acute influenza, what type of isolation is MOST appropriate?
    A. Reverse isolation
    B. Contact isolation
    C. strict isolation
    D. Respiratory isolation
A

D. Respiratory isolation

319
Q
  1. What precautions are necessary when caring for a patient with Hepatitis A?
    A. Gowning before entering the room
    B. Wearing gloves for direct care
    C. Wearing a mask at all times
    D. Placing the patient in a private room
A

B. Wearing gloves for direct care

320
Q
  1. The nurse is assigned to care for the a patient with Ebola virus disease. Which of the following is the most
    common mode of transmission for Ebola virus?
    A. Vector
    B. Airborne
    C. Direct contact
    D. Common vehicle
A

C. Direct contact

321
Q
  1. A nurse is caring a patient diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis and she has to wear N95 mask when she
    enters to the parent room. Based on the cycle of infection, which of the following is the reason to use the mask?
    A. Break the transmission chain at the portal of entry.
    B. Break the transmission chain at the portal exit
    C. Kill the agent exits in the patients room.
    D. Eliminate the reservoir of the bacteria
A

A. Break the transmission chain at the portal of entry.
B. Break the transmission

322
Q
  1. After receiving the initial treatment of TB , a 27 years old woman in the chest disease ward was given discharge
    instruction on dietary management , medication, regimen, hygiene care and follow up visits. What is the
    instructions need to be emphasized the most?
    A. Increase protein diet to promote healing
    B. More rest and relaxation to restore therapy
    C. Maintain daily exercise schedule to improve health
    D. Dispose sputum as guided to avoid spread of disease
A

D. Dispose sputum as guided to avoid spread of disease

323
Q
  1. A patient is admitted to the emergency room with an unknown infection disorder. Which of the following is the
    most important measure a nurse implement to reduce the risks of transmitting these microorganisms other?
    A. Hand hygiene
    B. Wearing gloves
    C. Wearing a mask
    D. Wearing a gown
A

A. Hand hygiene

324
Q
  1. A nurse is assigned to care for a patient with small that needs to be placed on airborne precaution. Which of the
    following item should be used before entering the patient room?
    A. Gloves and gown
    B. Gloves and goggles
    C. Gloves and mask
    D. Gloves , gown N 95
A

D. Gloves , gown N 95

325
Q
  1. Which of the following is the primary level of prevention?
    A. Detect and treat existing disease
    B. Prevent illness or injury occurring
    C. Reduce the extent and severity of health problem
    D. Minimize disability and restore to prevent function
A

B. Prevent illness or injury occurring

326
Q
  1. A Nurse is surgical unit prepares for a wound dressing. While she is preparing. She sneeze over the dressing
    trolley without wearing a facemask. Which of the following is the most appropriate action should the nurse
    take?
    A. set up a new sterile field
    B. put on a mask and continue working
    C. continue working the most sterile field
    D. Replace the equipment she thinks is contaminated
A

A. set up a new sterile field

327
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most effective infection control precaution to prevent nosocomial infection?
    A. Hand washing before and after patient contact
    B. Wearing gloves and mask for direct patient care
    C. Isolation precaution
    D. Broad spectrum antibiotic
A

A. Hand washing before and after patient contact

328
Q
  1. A 16 month old child is hospital in the intensive care unit with multi resistant sepsis. On the 3rd day. She had
    explosive diarrhea. A stool sample was sent to the laboratory for C. difficle investigation. Which of the following
    transmission based precaution is most appropriate?
    A. Combination airborne and droplet
    B. Contact
    C. Droplet
    D. Airborne
A

B. Contact

329
Q
  1. When planning discharge teaching for a patient hospitalized for treatment of the 3rd burns over 30% of the body,
    a nurse knows it is most important to include instructions regarding the loss of large amounts of serum occurring
    with burns and the resulting loss of immune function. Which of the following instructions should be include?
    A. Wash hands frequently each day
    B. Wear supplemental oxygen at night
    C. Wear masks while in public spaces
    D. Take a multiple vitamin tablet night
A

A. Wash hands frequently each day

330
Q
  1. A 20 year old woman is hospitalized with a strong and uncontrollable cough and has difficulty breathing while
    coughing. A doctor writes an order for the patient to be transported from the medical surgical department to
    the radiology department for an xray examination. The nurse prepares to transfer the patient and considers
    standard precautions and additional transmission precautions. Who of the following would be required to wear
    a mask?
    A. Radiology staff
    B. Nurse and patient
    C. Patient
    D. Nurse
A

B. Nurse and patient

331
Q
  1. A patient returned to the Surgical Unit from the thyroidectomy. The nurse observed that the arousable. Blood
    pressure 90/60 mmHg Heart rate 108 /min What immediate action should the nurse take?
    A. Recheck pulse and blood pressure
    B. Administer intravenous fluids as ordered
    C. Place client in modified Trendelenburg’s
    D. Assess the back of neck surgical dressing for bleeding
A

D. Assess the back of neck surgical dressing for bleeding

332
Q
  1. Complication of thyroidectomy
    A. Distension
    B. Bleeding
    C. Vocal cord injury
A

B. Bleeding

333
Q
  1. progressive enlargement of a multi-nodular go tracheal compression including pain at the site of the ear and jaw, difficulty swallowing, change of pf breath by compressing the oesophagus. There is in otherwise the
    patient is at risk. What is the preferred treatment?
    A. Iodine treatment
    B. Thyroid hormone treatment
    C. Radioactive iodine treatment
    D. Surgical resection of abnormal thyroid
A

D. Surgical resection of abnormal thyroid

334
Q
  1. A Post thyroidectomy patient transferred to ward and developed tetany the nurse suspected that patient has ?
    A. Hypokalemia
    B. Hypocalcemia
    C. Hyponatremia
A

B. Hypocalcemia

335
Q
  1. A nurse Wayne is aware that a positive Chvostek’s sign indicate
    A. Hypocalcemia
    B. Hyponatremia
    C. Hypokalemia
    D. Hypermagnesemia
A

A. Hypocalcemia

336
Q
  1. Patient is being admitted to the Recovery Room following a thyroidectomy. The back of the neck wound is
    covered with dressing. During the first 15 minutes, the patient started working and having diarrhea . A general
    assessment is performed with special attention given for the high risk for haemorrhage . Where would bleeding
    most likely occur?
    A. Stool
    B. Vomitus
    C. Dressing
    D. Back of neck
A

D. Back of neck

337
Q
  1. A 29 year-old man is in the Surgical Ward on his first post-operative thyroidectomy. He appears drowsy but the
    he is able to respiration by nodding head. He is developing mild restlessness. What is the initial recommended
    goal of care?
    A. Monitor vital signs of thyroid storm
    B. Assess for bilateral vocal fold mobility
    C. Monitor for swelling on the neck
    D. Monitor for vocal cord paralysis
A

A. Monitor vital signs of thyroid storm

338
Q
  1. A nuclear plant experienced a leakage, and all involved workers were brought to the Emergency Department for
    treatment . the medical team prescribed potassium iodide for the workers to block radioactive iodine to be
    absorbed by an organ in the body. Which of the following organs is the most sensitive to radioactive iodine?
    A. Brain
    B. Lungs
    C. Kidney
    D. Thyroid
A

D. Thyroid

339
Q
  1. The nurse care for a 60 year old woman who history hypertension, hypothyroidism and elevated cholesterol
    levels. She takes tablets daily for each of the health problem. The doctor orders a routine dual- x-ray
    absorptiometry test that shows decrease bone density. Which medication most likely contributed the test
    result?
    A. Statins
    B. Anti-hypertensive
    C. Synthetic thyroid hormones
    D. Cholesterol absorption inhibitors
A

C. Synthetic thyroid hormones

340
Q
  1. A 36 years old man ha undergone a subtotal thyroidectomy ago. he Is suspected to develop tetany after the
    surgery. Which of the following symptoms best indicates tetanus?
    A. Tingling in the fingers
    B. Pain in hands and feet
    C. Tension on the suture lines
    D. Bleeding on the back of the dressing
A

A. Tingling in the fingers

341
Q
  1. The nurse is assessing 50 year old woman whose thyroid enlarged. A blood sample was collected and an analysis
    confirm diagnosis.
    TSH 0.12 normal 0.4-6.5
    Free 210 normal 50-140.
    Thyroxin T4 normal 4.5-11.2
    A. Thyroidectomy
    B. Incision and drainage
    C. polythyroidectomy
    D. adrenalectomy
A

A. Thyroidectomy

342
Q
  1. 3-year-old child with an elevated body temperature is administered oral aspirin. The nurse records the body
    temperature of the child two hours an The American Academy of pediatrics
    suggests that removal of the tonsils under certain conditions. Which of the
    following meets these conditions?
    A. times viral tonsillitis per year
    B. Infrequent snoring and nasal quality
    C. Three times bacterial tonsillitis per year
    D. Tonsillitis accompanied by adenoid inflammation
A

D. Tonsillitis accompanied by adenoid inflammation

343
Q
  1. 5year-old child is postoperative after tonsillectomy. The nurse should ask the parents to give the child which of
    food after discharge from the hospital?
    A. Meat and rice
    B. Hot dog and potato chips
    C. Mashed potatoes and soup
    D. Cucumbers and tomato salad
A

C. Mashed potatoes and soup

344
Q
  1. The nurse is receiving a child postoperative tonsillectomy. Which of the following nursing assessment is suitable
    for the postop care?
    A. Encourage the child to cough spontaneously
    B. Observe for subtle signs of haemorrhage
    C. Place the child in the prone position
    D. Suction the mouth to clear the airway Because of violent behaviour
A

B. Observe for subtle signs of haemorrhage

345
Q
  1. The nurse is receiving a child postoperative tonsillectomy. Which of the following nursing action is suitable for
    the postoperative care?
    A. Encourage the child to cough spontaneously
    B. Observe for subtle signs of hemorrhage
    C. Place the child in the prone position
    D. Suction the mouth to clear the airway Because of violence
A

C. Place the child in the prone position

346
Q
  1. After tonsillectomy, a child begins to vomit bright red blood .the Initial nursing action is to?
    A. Notify the physician
    B. Turn the child to the side
    C. Maintain an NPO status
    D. Administer the prescribed antiemetic
A

B. Turn the child to the side

347
Q
  1. A client presents with Hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia, muscle cramps, and positive Trousseau’s sign. What
    diagnosis does this support?
    A. Diabetes insipidus
    B. Conn’s syndrome
    C. Hypoparathyroidism
    D. Acromegaly
A

C. Hypoparathyroidism

348
Q
  1. The nurse cares for a client who has undergone a tonsillectomy. The nurse is most concerned about which post
    operative finding?
    A. Lack of appetite
    B. Throat pain
    C. Frequent swallowing
    D. Nausea
A

C. Frequent swallowing

349
Q
  1. 18-year-old man college student was rushed fainted at the school. He complained of severe quadrant. Upon
    palpation, he jerks even with sample was obtained. What is the most likely diagnosis of this patient?
    A. Appendicitis
    B. Liver Cirrhosis
    C. Kidney stones
    D. Duodenal ulcer
A

A. Appendicitis

350
Q
    • year-old child was admitted with suspected appendicitis. A nurse was evaluating the child’s condition and the
      mother stated that the child did have his bowel movement for the past two days and requested for natives.
      What is the risk of giving laxative to patient with appendicitis?
      A. Pain
      B. Fever
      C. Rupture
      D. Diarrhea
A

C. Rupture

351
Q
  1. A woman patient is admitted for abdominal pain. She complain generalized plan nausea vomiting and
    constipation rebound tenderness and abdominal rigidity the past hour her localized on right side
    BP 130/68 HR 92 RR 18 TEM 38.6 What should the nurse suspect
    A. Intestinal obstruction
    B. Influenza
    C. Appendicitis
    D. Pyloric stenosis
A

C. Appendicitis

352
Q
  1. A man is to be discharged from the General appendectomy. The precautionary measures, plans are discussed
    with him. What is the most important desired outcome after discharge
    A. Remain free of post-surgical complications
    B. Report fever, redness or drainage from the wound site
    C. Use pain management techniques appropriate
    D. Resume gradual activities and avoid weight
A

A. Remain free of post-surgical complications

353
Q
  1. A 17 year-old arrived to the Emergency Room complaining abdominal pain on right lower quadrant. Pain was
    rated as 9 numeric scale with positive rebound tenderness over the pain
    Blood pressure Heart rate Respiratory rate Température
    120/70 mmHg 95 /min
    20 /min 39.2
    Which of the following interventions has the highest priority?
    A. Keep NPO
    B. Secure an IV access
    C. Prepare for ultrasound
    D. Prepare for abdominal surgery
A

A. Keep NPO

354
Q
  1. The nurse would increase the comfort of the patient with appendicitis by:
    A. Having the patient lie prone
    B. Flexing the patient’s right knee
    C. Sitting the patient upright in a chair
    D. Turning the patient onto his or her left side
A

B. Flexing the patient’s right knee

355
Q
  1. A 10-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Room (ER) with pain. On assessment, you noticed that when
    you pa101. A 10-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Room (ER) with pain. On assessment, you noticed that when
    you palpate the right lower quadrant of the child’s abdomen, the child feels pain in the rig quadrant.
    Which of the following is the name of this sign?
    A. Rebound tenderness
    B. McBurney sign
    C. Roving’s sign
    D. Obdurate signlpate the right lower quadrant of the child’s abdomen, the child feels pain in the rig quadrant.
    Which of the following is the name of this sign?
    A. Rebound tenderness
    B. McBurney sign
    C. Roving’s sign
    D. Obdurate sign
A

A. Rebound tenderness

356
Q
  1. A 10-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Room (ER) with pain. On assessment, you noticed that when
    you palpate the left lower quadrant of the child’s abdomen, the child feels pain in the rig quadrant.
    Which of the following is the name of this sign?
    A. Rebound tenderness
    B. McBurney sign
    C. Roving’s sign
    D. Obdurate sign
A

C. Roving’s sign

357
Q
  1. Treatment of nephritic syndrome is corticosteroids
A
358
Q
  1. Isoniazid for TB side effect numbness , hepatitis symptoms , stomach upset ,rashes
A
359
Q
  1. A 66 year old woman with a history of unstable angina and hypertension present to the emergency
    department with a dull chess pain that she describes as similar to heartburn. The pain radiates down the left
    arm. She had taken sublingual nitro-glycerine tablets with any relief any electrocardiograph is perform and
    shows elevated S T segments. Which medication is most likely to given to dissolve the thrombus?
    A. Heparin
    B. Warfarin
    C. Streptokinase
    D. Aspirin
A

C. Streptokinase

360
Q
  1. A 62 year man with a history of intracerebral bleeding three months ago, was referred primary health care
    following acute starch symptoms. Brain CT scan is normal and the patient is receiving oxygen by nasal cannula at
    4LPM BP 185/105 HR 82 RR 18 TEM 36.6 SO2 93%
    Which of the following medication would be ordered first?
    A. RtPA
    B. Aspirin
    C. Dopamine
    D. Nicardipine
A

B. Aspirin
Rational :Probable acute ischemic stroke; consider fibrinolytic therapy. If the CT scan shows no sign of hemorrhage, it
is probable that the patient experienced an ischemic stroke and is a candidate for fibrinolytic therapy. Check for
fibrinolytic exclusions such as significant head trauma or stroke in the previous 3 months, history of intracranial
hemorrhage, elevated blood pressure, active internal bleeding, or a blood glucose concentration less than 50
milligrams per deciliter. Then repeat the neurologic exam.Consult neurologist or neurosurgeon. If the CT scan
indicates hemorrhage, consult neurologists and neurosurgeons, and begin the stroke or hemorrhage
pathway. Administer aspirin. If the patient is not a candidate for fibrinolytic therapy, administer aspirin and begin the
stroke or hemorrhage pathway

361
Q
  1. A nurse checks the medication chart of a patient, which has the following order, nitroglycerin Tab sublingual.
    Which of the following medication administration routes should the nurse use?
    A. In the nose
    B. In the eyelid
    C. Under the skin
    D. Under the tongue
A

D. Under the tongue

362
Q
  1. A 28 year man admitted to orthopedic ward complaining of throbbing pain in casted leg. Which of the
    following nursing intervention should be taken first?
    A. Remove the cast
    B. Notify a doctor
    C. Assess pedal pulse
    D. Administer PRN medication
A

C. Assess pedal pulse

363
Q
  1. A 62 year old woman presents to the clinic with a primary compliant of fatigue. An assess shows a smooth
    and reddened tongue with a loss of papillae and pallid mucous membranes. She complaints of a sense of
    constant fullness of the stomach, with a decreased appetite and two three loose bowel movement per day. A
    neurological assessment shows numbness in the feet and lower legs. The patient type of test would the most
    likely?
    A. Schilling
    B. Erythropoietin
    C. Folic acid levels
    D. Vitamin B12 levels
A

D. Vitamin B12 levels

364
Q
  1. A mother of a patient who is on antipsychotic drug asked a doctor about some more detail about the drug.
    The doctor told the mother that her son is taking an atypical antipsychotic drug. Which of the following is an
    examples of this type of drug?
    A. Thioridazine
    B. Clozapine
    C. Chlorpromazine
    D. Haloperidol
A

B. Clozapine

365
Q
  1. A nurse is preparing scheduled medications due at 6 pm. If a doctor orders paracetamol tab 1g QID, and it
    was supplied from the pharmacy in 250 mg tablets. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing
    actions?
    A. Ask the pharmacy to provide 1g tablets
    B. Call the doctor to recheck the dosage
    C. Give the patient four 250 mg tablets
    D. Hold the medication and document in nursing notes
A

C. Give the patient four 250 mg tablets

366
Q
  1. A patient with a history of atrial fibrillation has an order for 25 milligrams of drug (X), the available
    supply/dose is 0.25 milligrams. Which of the following doses in correct?
    A. Dispense two tablets to the patient
    B. Administer one tablet twice daily
    C. Dispense one half tablet to the patient
    D. Return tablets to the pharmacy and re-order
A

D. Return tablets to the pharmacy and re-order

367
Q
  1. A patient with a history of atrial fibrillation has an order for 0.25 milligrams of drug (X), the available
    supply/dose is 0.125 milligrams. Which of the following doses in correct?
    A. Dispense two tablets to the patient
    B. Administer one tablet twice daily
    C. Dispense one half tablet to the patient
    D. Return tablets to the pharmacy and re-order
A

A. Dispense two tablets to the patient

368
Q
  1. 13-year-old patient is admitted for diarrhea and vomiting. He looks pale and lethargic. A nurse is preparing
    to give IV hypotonic solution.
    Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg
    Heart rate 76 /min
    Respiratory rate 18 /min
    Temperature 36.1°C
    Which IV solution is most appropriate?
    A. 0.9% saline
    B. Lactated ringers
    C. 10% dextrose in water
    D. 0.45% sodium chloride
A

D. 0.45% sodium chloride

369
Q
  1. A nurse is assigned to care for a group of patient in the medion expected to review the medical records of
    these patient. What patient is at risk for excess fluid volume?
    A. Patient with ileostomy
    B. Patient taking a loop diuretic
    C. Patient with chronic renal failure
    D. Patient hooked to gastrointestinal
A

C. Patient with chronic renal failure

370
Q
  1. physician orders an intravenous fluid of D5NS at 100cc/hr. This is an example of which of the solution?
    A. hyper alimentation
    B. hypertonic
    C. hypotonic
    D. isotonic
A

B. hypertonic

371
Q
  1. When a patient was first diagnosed with schizophrenia, one of his family members asked the nurse about the
    possible causes. The nurse said that one reason is that he may have had an excess secretion of a
    neurotransmitter. Which of the following neurotransmitters?
    A. serotonin
    B. dopamine
    C. glutamate
A

B. dopamine

372
Q
  1. The nurse administered a dose of morphine sulfate as prescribed to a patient who is in the post anesthesia
    care unit (PACU). The patient appears to be resting comfortably, the respiratory rate is 8 and the O2saturation is
    21 oxygen via cannula is 86%. The nurse should IMMEDIATELY administer:
    A. Flumazenil(Romazicon)
    B. Medazolum(versed)
    C. Naloxone (Narcan)
    D. Ondansetron (Zofran)
A

C. Naloxone (Narcan)

373
Q
  1. Digoxin not given to pàtient who has which of the following ?
    A. tachycardià
    B. hypertension
    C. tachypnea
    D. bradycardia
A

D. bradycardia

374
Q
  1. Atropine is indicated for increase
    A. Heart rate
    B. Respiratory rate
A

A. Heart rate

375
Q
  1. Morphine side effect ?
    A. tachycardià
    B. hypertension
    C. tachypnea
    D. bradypnea
A

D. bradypnea

376
Q
  1. patient with ongoing magnesium sulfate the nurse should be alert to ?
    A. temperature
    B. respiratory rate
    C. heart rate
A

B. respiratory rate

377
Q
  1. Soldier was brought to triage area after being exposed to chemical weapons. Signs and symptoms of nerve
    gas exposure were noticed. A nurse prepares for medical management. Which medication should the nurse
    prepare for the patient?
    A. Atropine
    B. Adrenaline
    C. Sodium nitrate
    D. Sodium thiosulphate
A

A. Atropine

378
Q
  1. Nitroglycine administration route :
    A. Intramuscular
    B. Sublingual
    C. Subcutaneous
    D. Oral
A

B. Sublingual

379
Q
  1. A nurse checks the medication chart of a part, which has the following order; Nitroglycerin tab Buccal at stat.
    Which of the following medication administration routes should the nurse use?
    A. In the ear
    B. Intravenous
    C. Under the skin
    D. Between cheek and gum
A

D. Between cheek and gum

380
Q
  1. A nurse is caring for a patient who had Coronary Artery bypass Graft Surgery (CABG) four hours ago. The
    nurse notices that the patient has increased confusion and is restless. The patient reports nausea, weakness and
    paresthesia in the extremities (see lab results)
    Normal Values
    Result Test
    134-146 mmol/L
    145 Sodium
    3.5-5.2 mmol/L 6.8 Potassium
    2.15-2.62 mmol/L 2.50 Calcium
    Which of the following is the best medication?
    A. Naloxone (Narcan)
    B. Hydralazine (Apresoline)
    C. Potassium chloride (KCI)
    D. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate
A

D. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate

381
Q
  1. Which of the following statement by the nurse about the clomid as an ovulation inducing drug?
    A. Given for the first 15 days in each cycle
    B. Maximum dose is 50 mg daily for a month
    C. It increases the risk of birth defects
    D. It increase the risk of multiple pregnancies
A

D. It increase the risk of multiple pregnancies

382
Q
  1. Clomiphene citrate (Clomid) is prescribed for a 32-year-old infertility treatment. The nurse should
    understand that this medication is used for following actions?
    A. induce ovulation
    B. Decrease prolactin level
    C. Reduce endometriosis
    D. Stimulate the release of Follicle-Stimulating Hormone
A

A. induce ovulation

383
Q
  1. A nurse is caring for a client with bipolar disorder, who is receiving Lithium carbonate. Before Administration
    of the next dose, the client complains of nausea and vomiting and the nurse finds that the client’s lithium blood
    level 1.5mEq/lL. Which of the following actions is considered Apriority?
    A. call the client’s physician immediately
    B. withhold the next dose.
    C. Administer IV fluids
    D. Repeat the blood lithium level testing
A

B. withhold the next dose.

384
Q
  1. A patient was on a regular dose of lithium carbonate. The nurse noticed he has hand tremor, polyuria,
    diarrhea and vomiting. What immediate action should be taken by the nurse?
    A. Diuretics
    B. Withholding lithium
    C. Calling the psychiatrist
    D. Monitoring serum lithium level
A

B. Withholding lithium

385
Q
  1. A patient was on a course of lithium carbonate drug. During the nurse found that he complained from
    nystagmus visual hallucination, and oliguria Which of the following drug related complications best symptoms?
    A. Overdose
    B. Mild toxicity
    C. Severe toxicity
    D. Moderate toxicity
A

C. Severe toxicity

386
Q
  1. 49-year-old women presented to the Emergency Department complaint of severe chest pain. The ECG
    showed that the patient myocardial infarction. The doctor ordered the nurse to give the 800 mg of aspirin. What
    is the primary indication of aspirin in this case?
    A. Breaks down the thrombus
    B. Decreases the formation of platelet plugs
    C. Inhibits the conversion of prothrombine to
    D. Interferes with vitamin k to maintain
A

B. Decreases the formation of platelet plugs

387
Q
  1. which of the following condition is a Contraindication for a woman oral Contraceptives?
    A. Dysmenorrhea
    B. Menorrhagia
    C. Thrombophlebitis
    D. Toxic shock syndrome
A

C. Thrombophlebitis

388
Q
  1. A patient was on a course of lithium carbonate drug. During the nurse found that he complained from
    nystagmus visual hallucination, and oliguria Which of the following drug related complications best symptoms?
    A. Overdose
    B. Mild toxicity
    C. Severe toxicity
    D. Moderate toxicity
A

C. Severe toxicity

389
Q
  1. A 45-year-old distressed and restless patient in the Psychiatric Ward was unable to sleep during the nights
    for the last two days. He was ordered sleep medication which was to be administered at 10 pm. At the time
    medicine administration, the patient was found asleep in bed Which of the following action should the nurse
    take regarding the dictation?
    A. Discard medicine and cancel the order
    B. Leave it at the bed side for the patient
    C. Wake him up and administer
    D. Hold, record and report
A

D. Hold, record and report

390
Q
  1. 13- nurse is given health education to the parent how to reduce febrile avulsion in the child at home. Which
    of the following medication in the safest intervention?
    A. Analgesic
    B. Antipyretic
    C. Antibiotic
    D. Antiemetic
A

B. Antipyretic

391
Q
  1. Doctor order to give Ofloxacin Otic route the nurse understand that medication will be given :
    A. Nasal
    B. Eye
    C. Ear
    D. Sublingual.
A

C. Ear

392
Q
  1. A home care patient with chronic Obstructive reports an upset stomach. The patient is taking and
    triamcinolone acetonide (azmacort). Which of the following counselling should be given
    A. Theo-dur on an empty stomach
    B. Theo-dur and azmacort at the same time
    C. Theo-dur and azmacort 12 hours apart
    D. Theo-dur with milk or crackers
A

D. Theo-dur with milk or crackers

393
Q
  1. Which of the following vitamins is necessary for wound healing process?
    A. Vitamin A
    B. Vitamin C
    C. Vitamin D
    D. Vitamin K
A

B. Vitamin C

394
Q
  1. Which of the following vitamin supplements can decrease the incidence of Neural tube defects such as
    anencephaly and spina bifida new-borns ?
    A. Vitamin A
    B. Riboflavin
    C. Folic Acid
    D. Vitamin K
A

C. Folic Acid

395
Q
  1. A 78-year-old woman who lives in a long-term care facility has been ving repeated episodes of urinary tract
    infections. She is prescribed then amine mandelate one gram to be taken by mouth four times per before meals
    and at bedtime. The nurse advises the patient that she need to remove milk from the diet while taking the
    medication. What is the primary purpose for this dietary advice?
    A. To prevent mal absorption of medication
    B. Decrease risk of gastrointestinal upset
    C. Reduces effectiveness of medication
    D. To make the urine acidic
A

D. To make the urine acidic

396
Q
  1. A nurse received the serum digoxin level result for the patient the day and notes that the result is
    2.6 ng/mL (see lab result)
    Test result normal value
    Digoxin (men) 2.6 0.8-2ng/mL Which of following
    nursing actions is the most important?
    A. Notify the physician
    B. Check previous vital signs of patient
    C. Record normal value on nursing note
    D. Administer scheduled dose of medication
A

A. Notify the physician

397
Q
  1. A patient is being admitted in medical unit and has orders for fluid restriction of 1400ml / 24 hours. He is
    receiving IV medications in 50ml solutions QID. How much fluid should the caring nurse allocate for cra intake in
    24 hours?
    A. 400 ml
    B. 800 ml
    C. 1000 ml
    D. 1200 ml
A

D. 1200 ml

398
Q
  1. A nurse is preparing a medication order of 100 mg IV stat. The available hydrocortisone is 200mg per 5 ml
    distilled water for injection. Which of the following is the correct administered?
    A. 4.5 ML
    B. 3.5 ML
    C. 2.5 ML
    D. 1.5 ML
A

C. 2.5 ML

399
Q
  1. A nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous infusion of 2000 ml of Ringer’s lactate over 12
    hours. The administration set has a chamber that delivers 15 drops per ml. How many drops per
    minute should be administered?
    A. 14
    B. 24
    C. 42
    D. 56
A

C. 42

400
Q
  1. Doctor order to give medication x 300mg and available is 900mg/6ml how many ml the nurse will give
    A. 1.2
    B. 2
    C. 4
    D. 6
A

B. 2

401
Q
  1. A 56-year-old man was admitted with complaint working for three days. The nurse is preparing to administer
    infusion of saline 1000 ml over six hours. What is the hourly infusion rate that the nurse needs to infusion
    therapy in mL/hour?
    A. 155
    B. 167
    C. 190
    D. 217
A

B. 167

402
Q
  1. Doctor Order: Heparin 10000 units OD S/C Standard Solution 40000 units/ml How many ml would you
    administer?
    A. 0,25.ml
A
403
Q
  1. A Physician has ordered clindamycin phosphate 300 mg to be administered intravenously the available stock
    was labelled . clindamycin phosphate 900mg mg in 6 ml what is the correct dose to be administered by the nurse
    ?
    A. 2 ml
    B. 4 ml
    C. 6 ml
    D. 8 ml
A

A. 2 ml

404
Q
  1. A nurse check the medication chart of a patient, which has the following order; Paracetamol 500mg P.O.
    QID. How many times a day should the nurse administer the medication?
    A. Once
    B. Twice
    C. Three times
    D. Four times
A

D. Four times

405
Q
A