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LU4 - HS202 - E2 Microbiology, Parasitology, and Psychiatry > SARAP > Flashcards

SARAP Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Smallest living cell?

a. Virus
b. Bacteria
c. Fungi
d. Protozoan

A

b. Bacteria

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2
Q

Nuclear region of bacteria?

a. Nucleus
b. Mesosomes
c. Nucleoid
d. Nuclear membrane

A

c. Nucleoid

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3
Q

What type of microorganism has only molecular oxygen as the final electron acceptor?

a. Obligate aerobe
b. Obligate anaerobe
c. Strictly anaerobe
d. Facultative anaerobe

A

a. Obligate aerobe

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4
Q

Bacteria that grows at temperatures as high as 500 C to 550 C ?

a. Psychotrophs
b. Thermotrophs
c. Thermophiles
d. Psychrophiles

A

c. Thermophiles

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5
Q

Primary used stain for Gram stain

a. Crystal violet
b. Lugol’s iodine
c. Carbofuschin
d. Safranin

A

a. Crystal violet

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6
Q

If the culture of Staphylococcus were prepared several days ago, what would be the appearance in Gram’s stain?

a. Purple
b. Light purple
c. Pink
d. Rainbow

A

c. Pink

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7
Q

In what stage of growth is there slow loss of cells through death that is just balanced by the formation of new cells through growth and division?

a. Decline
b. Lag
c. Maximal stationary
d. Exponential

A

c. Maximal stationary

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8
Q
  1. Which layer of the endospores’ outer covering/coat is the germ cell layer?

a. Exosporium
b. Thick Cortex
c. Spore membrane
d. Inner core

A

c. Spore membrane

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9
Q

Which statement best describes fimbriae?

a. Most Gram positive bacteria have a set of fimbriae
b. Also known as “common pili”
c. Larger than flagella
d. Facilitates transfer of genetic material

A

b. Also known as “common pili”

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10
Q

Which of the following is true about endotoxin?

a. Commonly referred to as lipopolysaccharide
b. Mostly produced by Gram positive bacteria
c. Staphylococcus aureus produces it
d. Are heat labile compared to heat stable exotoxins

A

a. Commonly referred to as lipopolysaccharide

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11
Q

Some bacteria have protein thread-like appendage called flagella. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Flagella is found exclusively in Gram negative bacteria.
b. The flagella is affixed to the bacteria by a basal body.
c. The flagella is composed of repeating polysaccharide units called flagellin.
d. The bacteria and its flagellin are seen in Gram stain.

A

b. The flagella is affixed to the bacteria by a basal body.

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12
Q

One of the distinguishing features of prokaryotes is its ability to exhange genetic information. Which of the following aids the transfer?

a. Cell wall
b. Surface glycoprotein
c. Adherins
d. Plasmid

A

d. Plasmid

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13
Q

The process of passing the DNA from one bacterium to another in a bacteriophage which is then incorporated into the recipient’s DNA is

a. Transduction
b. Conjugation
c. Transformation
d. Transcription

A

a. Transduction

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14
Q

Which of the following regarding bacteria DNA is correct?

a. It contains histone proteins
b. It is only single-stranded
c. It is a single circular loop
d. Bacteria only has 4 chromosomes

A

c. It is a single circular loop

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15
Q

Cluster of polar flagella

a. Amphitrichous
b. Monotrichous
c. Peritrichous
d. Lophotrichous

A

d. Lophotrichous

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16
Q

Bacterial cell walls are composed of peptidoglycans. What is the other name of this compound?

a. N-acetyl muramic acid
b. N-acetyl glucosamine
c. Murein mucopeptide
d. Mesodiaminopimetic acid

A

c. Murein mucopeptide

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17
Q

What is periplasm?

a. Area between outer and inner cell membranes in Gram positive bacteria
b. Area between outer and inner cell membranes in Gram negative bacteria
c. Area outside the cell membrane exposed to environmental conditions
d. Area within the plasma membrane

A

b. Area between outer and inner cell membranes in Gram negative bacteria

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18
Q

In the growth curve, which is associated with the lag phase?

a. Period of initial adjustment
b. Transitional period
c. Generation time
d. Period of no activity

A

a. Period of initial adjustment

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19
Q

Who proposed the 5-kingdom classification?

a. Koch
b. Whittaker
c. Jenner
d. Pasteur

A

b. Whittaker

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20
Q

Which of the following is absent in Gram positive bacterium?

a. ?
b. Lipopolysaccharide
c. Phospholipid bilayer
d. Penicillin binding protein

A

b. Lipopolysaccharide

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21
Q

The bacteria contain pores to alter the passage of nutrients into the cell. Where are the porins located?

a. Outer membrane of Gram negative bacteria
b. Thick peptidoglycan layer of Gram positive bacteria
c. Plasma membrane of bacterium
d. Nuclear area of bacterium

A

b. Thick peptidoglycan layer of Gram positive bacteria

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22
Q

Microorganisms have characteristics that differentiate them. Which is correct?

a. DNA and RNA are both in virus
b. Fungi and bacteria have peptidoglycans in the cell wall
c. Bacteria and fungi undergo binary fission
d. Virus has independent metabolism activity

A

c. Bacteria and fungi undergo binary fission

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23
Q

Bacterial cell membrane is composed of a phospholipid bilayer. Which statement is true?

a. Basic structure of cell membrane contains proteins and usually sterols
b. Membrane has roles in synthetic, secretory, electron transport processes
c. Cell membrane is not functional comparable to many eukaryotic organelles
d. Cell membrane of Gram positive and Gram negative are different in composition

A

b. Membrane has roles in synthetic, secretory, electron transport processes

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24
Q

Enzyme used by aerobic bacteria to break down toxic forms of oxygen?

a. Coagulase
b. Peroxidase
c. Hyaluronidase
d. ?

A

b. Peroxidase

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25
Q

Which of the following organisms are associated with pili?

a. Virus
b. Fungi
c. Gram positive bacteria
d. Gram negative bacteria

A

d. Gram negative bacteria

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26
Q

How are fungi different from bacteria?

a. Fungi are prokaryotic with true nucleus, 80s ribosomes, mitochondria and ER.
b. Bacteria are prokaryotes, no true nucleus, 70s ribosomes, and no ER.
c. Both fungi and bacteria contain cell wall and cell membrane contain sterols.
d. Fungi are eukaryotic with true nucleus and 50s and 30s ribosomes.

A

b. Bacteria are prokaryotes, no true nucleus, 70s ribosomes, and no ER.

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27
Q

Difference between mold and yeast?

a. Parasitic phase is mold phase.
b. Yeast are single-celled and reproduce by budding.
c. Both have pseudohyphase and blastoconidia.
d. Molds are filamentous and grow by branching pseudohyphae.

A

b. Yeast are single-celled and reproduce by budding.

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28
Q

Sabouraud’s dextrose agar is used to culture fungi because

a. ?
b. Low pH does not allow bacteria to grow
c. ?
d. High dextroe does not allow bacteria to grow

A

b. Low pH does not allow bacteria to grow

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29
Q

Which of the following situations that allow fungal microogranisms to be introduced into the host would not result in dermatophyte infection?

a. Playing with cat
b. Playing in soil
c. Inhaling conidia
d. Walking on soil
e. Sharing a towel

A

c. Inhaling conidia

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30
Q

Dermatophyte infection

a. Not chronic
b. Keratinized
c. ?
d. Diffused alveolar

A

d. Diffused alveolar

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31
Q

Which fungal element is not normally found in the host’s body?

a. Reproductive mycelium
b. Vegetative
c. Yeast
d. Cyst

A

a. Reproductive mycelium

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32
Q

T/F: A mass of intertwined hyphal elements is called a mycelium.

A

TRUE

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33
Q

T/F: Conidia are specialized nonmotile structures with asexual spores formed from hyphal wall.

A

TRUE

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34
Q

T/F: Fungi can alos have sexual sporulation.

A

TRUE

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35
Q

T/F: Asexual fungi are medically significant fungi.

A

TRUE

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36
Q

T/F: Dimorphic fungus exist as yeast during sapropobic phase.

A

FALSE

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37
Q

T/F: The sequence of monosaccharides make up the prokaryotic DNA.

A

FALSE

38
Q

T/F: Plasmids are RNA chromosomes that encode for antibiotic resistance.

A

FALSE

39
Q

T/F: Viruses are destroyed by heat but they can thrive in adverse environments if they are naked.

A

TRUE

40
Q

T/F: Antibacterial capsule is a major virulence characteristic of bacteria.

A

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41
Q

T/F: The aerial mycelia is used for nutrition.

A

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42
Q

7 year old stumbled on wood with protruding nail. He got fever due to infected wound. What type of immunity was developed?

a. innate
b. natural active
c. artificial
d. natural passive

A

a. innate

43
Q

Volunteer got leptospirosis during habagat, what did he develop?

a. innate, inborn immunity
b. natural, active, specific/adaptive immunity
c. artificial, active, specific/adaptive immunity
d. natural, passive, specific/adaptive immunity
e. artificial, passive, specific/adaptive immunity

A

b. natural, active, specific/adaptive immunity

44
Q

What immunity does a baby gain when his mother have him vaccinated with BCG, etc.?

a. Inborn/innate immunity
b. natural active specific immunity
c. natural passive specific immunity
d. acquired active specific immunity
e. acquired passive specific immunity

A

d. acquired active specific immunity

45
Q

Which type of immunity is manifested by a healthy person infected by intracellular bacteria and/or fungi?

a. Humoral cell response
b. Cytotoxic T-cell response and mainly cells of the innate, inborn, non-specific immunity
c. Classical component cascade pathway
d. Alternative complement pathway

A

b. Cytotoxic T-cell response and mainly cells of the innate, inborn, non-specific immunity

46
Q

Which are mainly involved in elimination of extracellular bacteria?

a. Antibodies
b. Cytotoxic T cells
c. Helper T cells
d. Naural killer lymphocytes/LGL

A

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47
Q

Which bacteria is able to produce enzymes for fermentation of aerobic respiration

a. Facultative anaerobes
b. ?
c. ?
d. ?

A

a. Facultative anaerobes

48
Q

Bacterial cell wall is composed of stuff which describes Gram positive and negative bacteria?

a. diffusion barrier
b. ?
c. ?
d. ?

A

a. diffusion barrier

49
Q

Not found in Gram staining of mucus

a. Mycobacterium TB
b. ?
c. ?
d. ?

A

a. Mycobacterium TB

50
Q

Nuclear membrane function

a. Molecular sieve
b. ?
c. ?
d. ?

A

a. Molecular sieve

51
Q

For viruses, CMIR is the major immunity activated to eliminate the pathogen, which of the following is/are the evasive mechanisms/s used by viruses to evade the immune system?

a. Masking of the surface antigen
b. Sialic acid content recognized by immunocompetent cells as “self” since cells have sialic component
c. Release of protease and other enzymes
d. Phase variations of antigen

A

d. Phase variations of antigen

52
Q

Hypersensitivity Type I

a. CD
b. IL 6, 8, 10
c. ?
d. IgE

A

d. IgE

53
Q

Synthesis of antibodies activated by lymphokines.

a. Cytotoxic T-cells
b. T helper 1 cells
c. T helper 2 cells
d. T repressor cells

A

a. Cytotoxic T-cells

54
Q

Effectors of mucosal immunity?

a. Alpha beta T and IgA
b. Alpha beta T and IgE
c. IgG and IgE
d. Gamma delta and IgE
e. Gamma delta and IgA

A

e. Gamma delta and IgA

55
Q

Structural unit of viral capsid

a. Capsomere
b. Protomer
c. Hematogluttin
d. pocholol

A

a. Capsomere

56
Q

What is the term used for the entire infectious unit or complete virus particle?

a. Nucleocapsid
b. Virion
c. Viral envelope
d. Viroid

A

b. Virion

57
Q

T/F: The statement “viruses contain only one type of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA is

A

TRUE

58
Q

T/F: Viruses only infect eukaryotic cells

A

FALSE

59
Q

T/F: Viruses that are not enveloped have external capsid.

A

TRUE

60
Q

T/F: The statement, “viruses are cultivated in cell cultures from animal specimen” is

A

TRUE

61
Q

Defective replication

a. defective virus
b. ?
c. ?
d. ?

A

a. defective virus

62
Q

Structural unit of protein coat

a. Protomer
b. ?
c. ?
d. ?

A

a. Protomer

63
Q

Used to classify virus

a. Genome property
b. ?
c. Type of respiration
d. Type of cell culture

A

a. Genome property

64
Q

Biopsychosocial model:

a. States that health and illness is attributed to physiological fracture which can be determined
b. Uses a systemic approach
c. Is the traditional model
d. A, B and C
e. A and B only

A

e. A and B only

65
Q

The biopsyhosocial model of health and disease:

a. State of illness is a dynamic state
b. It is an interaction of several factors
c. Composed of distinct entities: mind and body
d. A, B and C are correct
e. Only A and B are correct

A

e. Only A and B are correct

66
Q

BPS model of health and illness states that:

a. Personality has genetic make-up
b. Personality is based on internal temperament, breeding and environment
c. Psychopathology is all in the mind.
d. A and B only
e. A, B and C.

A

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67
Q

Mental illness…

a. Psychosocial factors are supreme
b. Address first ther person’s psychological needs
c. Brain defects are NOT important
d. A and B are true
e. All are true

A

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68
Q

The BPS as illustrated in depression

a. It is a combination of psychosocial factors.
b. Management is purely psychosocial.
c. Cause is purely biological.
d. A, B and C are correct.
e. A and B are correct.

A

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69
Q

The BPS model applies:

a. Cardiovascular diseases
b. Depression
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. All of the above
e. A and B only

A

d. All of the above

70
Q

Coping mechanism: A woman with repressed sexual urges insists that all men are preoccupied with sex.

A

Projection

71
Q

Coping mechanism: A preacher who become crusaders against “loose morals” may be struggling with their own sexual impulses

A

Reaction formation

72
Q

Coping mechanism: Daydreaming about winning P100 M in the next lottery draw

A

Fantasy

73
Q

Coping mechanism: A woman has sexual affairs because she is angry at her husband

A

Acting out

74
Q

Coping mechanism: Anger and resentment of the advantages of others can be funneled into obsession to excel in lucrative field

A

Sublimation

75
Q

Coping mechanism: Rape victim unable to recall the details of what happened the night of the crime

A

Repression

76
Q

Coping mechanism: College student says he really didn’t want to go to Bali when he missed the chance to go with his family.

A

Rationalization

77
Q

Coping mechanism: When a teenager cannot express her anger at her parents and begins to hate herself

A

Displacement

78
Q

The following are diseases transmitted by Pedicus humanus humanus:

a. Trench fever
b. Relapsing fever
c. Murine typhus
d. Epidemic typhus

A

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79
Q

Intermediate host of Hymenolepis diminuta

a. Ctenophelis canis
b. Ctenophelis felis
c. Pulex irritans
d. Xenopsylla cheopis

A

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80
Q

Bite causes linear lines:

a. Pulex
b. Culex
c. Cimex
d. ?

A

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81
Q

Refers to infestation of the body by fleas:

a. Dermatoses
b. Canthariasis
c. Myiasis
d. Acaniasis

A

c. Myiasis

82
Q

Sex determination of mosquitoes

a. Proboscis
b. Antennae
c. Compound eyes
d. Legs

A

a. Proboscis

83
Q

The following are human ectoparasites EXCEPT:

a. Body louse adult
b. Crab louse nit
c. Head louse something
d. Itch mite adult

A

d. Itch mite adult

84
Q

Vector of Chikungunya virus?

a. Aedes albopictus
b. Culex
c. Anopheles
d. Culex tritaeniorynchus

A

a. Aedes albopictus

85
Q

All of the following are vectors of Bancroftian elephantiasis EXCEPT:

a. Mansonia
b. Aedes
c. Anopheles
d. None of the above

A

a. Mansonia

86
Q

Following arthropods are night biters EXCEPT:

a. Pediculus capitis
b. Cimex lecturis
c. Triatoma infestans
d. Anopheles flavirostris

A

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87
Q
  1. In the life cycle of the helminth infections, the followinghas free-living adult worm

a. Ascaris
b. Hookworm
c. Trichuris
d. Strongyloides

A

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88
Q

Which of the following drug is used in the Integrated Helminth Control Program of the Philippine Department of Health

a. Albendazole
b. Pyrantel pamoate
c. Praziquel
d. Tinidazole

A

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89
Q

Does not migrate through the human lung during development

a. Ascaris
b. Hookworm
c. Trichuris
d. Strongyloides

A

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90
Q

Adult worm has thin anterior, thick posterior end

a. Ascaris
b. Hookworm
c. Trichuris trichiura
d. Strongyloides

A

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91
Q

Associated with intestinal obstruction and erratic worm migration

a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Hookworm
c. Trichuris trichiura
d. Strongyloides

A

a. Ascaris lumbricoides

LU4 - HS202 - E2 Microbiology, Parasitology, and Psychiatry (1 decks)

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