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[OS 215] OB-GYN E3 > Samplex 2014 B > Flashcards

Samplex 2014 B Flashcards

1
Q

The following is an indication for HRT use as recommended by the FDA:

A. Treatment of osteoporosis
B. Treatment of moderate vaginal dryness
C. Treatment of mild vasomotor symptoms
D. Prevention of cardiovascular disease

A

A

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2
Q

Most common location of prostatic glandular hypertrophy:

A. peripheral
B. central
C. transitional
D. none of the above

A

A

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3
Q

Contraindication for hysterosalpingogram except

A. uterine bleeding
B. uterine surgery within 3 days
C. pregnancy
D. hydrosalpinges

A

B

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4
Q

Disadvantage of sonography over other radiologic modalities:

A. operator dependent
B. cannot penetrate air or bone
C. requires good contact of transducer with skin
D. AOTA

A

D

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5
Q

Now considered the gold standard in the evaluation of infertility and reproductive assistance, ectopic pregnancy and pregnancy related ocnditions during the first trimester:

A. transvaginal ultrasound
B. CT scan
C. MRI
D. PET scan

A

A

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6
Q

Differentials for pregnancy-related thickened hyperechoic endometrial stripe EXCEPT

a. Normal Early Pregnancy
b. Ectopic Pregnancy
c. Complete Abortion
d. Molar Pregnancy

A

C

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7
Q

Cystic lesions of the breast is best visualized using

a. Mammography
b. Sonographic mammography
c. Breast MRI
d. Breast CT scan

A

B

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8
Q

Which of the following breast lesions is typically benign:

a. Cystosarcoma phyllodes
b. Lobular carcinoma
c. Medullary carcinoma
d. Intraductal carcinoma

A

D

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9
Q

patient with non-specific mastalgia, with no palapable breast mass and eythema. Which of the following is the management for the said patient?

a. Analgesics when necessary
b. Hormonal agent
c. Antibiotics
d. Anti-inflammatory agents

A

A

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10
Q

Fibroadenoma usually arises from

a. Malignancy
b. Benign lesion
c. Inflammation
d. Aberration in development

A

C

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11
Q

The biopsy technique that has the advantage of being a curative provided that the eventual biopsy result is a benign tumor

a. FNAB
b. Core needle biopsy
c. Excision biopsy
d. Incision biopsy

A

C

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12
Q

The presence of the BRCA1 gene in the sister of a patient with breast cancer has a lifetime risk of having breast cancer of:

a. 10% - 20%
b. 30%-40%
c. 40%-60%
d. 60%-80%

A

D

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13
Q

The most common cancer among women in the Philippines and worldwide is:

A. lung
B. breast
C. ovarian
D. cervical
A

B

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14
Q

A 29 year old came in for a consult with a movable, non tender, solid breast mass with no palpable axillary lymph nodes. The primary diagnosis is:

A. breast cancer
B. fibrocystic change
C. fibroadenoma
D. phyllodes tumor

A

C

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15
Q

Lesion on the nipple on one breast of a 45 yr old female

A. allergy
B. dermatitis
C. Piaget’s disease
D. human bite
E. infection of Montiglands
A

C

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16
Q

Large/huge multinodular mass with no axillary node infiltration

	A. ductal carcinoma
	B. lobular carcinoma
	C. fibroadenoma
	D. phyllodes
	E. tuberculosis infection
A

D

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17
Q

A lactating female patient palpated a mass on her breast. The mass is about 3 cm in its greatest diameter. There is no erythema. There is no axillary node. The most likely clinical diagnosis is:

	A. fibroadenoma
	B. breast cancer
	C. galactocele
	D. macrocyst
	E. fibrocystic changes
A

C

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18
Q

Breast abscess is usually caused by what organisms?

	A. Staphylococcus aureus
	B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
	C. Streptococcus
	D. Escherichia coli
	E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
A

A

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19
Q

When is the best time to do a breast examination?

A. 7-10 days after the 1st day of menstruation
B. 10-14 days before menstruation
C. day before menstruation
D. any day
A

A

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20
Q

Benign prostatic hypertrophy is commonly found in what area?

A. peripheral Zone
B. transition Zone
C. prostate Center?
D. central Zone

A

B

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21
Q

The hormone that binds to androgen receptors promoting cellular growth in BPH

A. testosterone
B. estrogen
C. estradiol
D. DHT
A

D

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22
Q

The most common histology of penile cancer is:

A. transitional cell carcinoma
B. adenocarcinoma
C. squamous cell carcinoma
D. small cell carcinoma
A

C

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23
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding testicular cancer?

A. Tumors arising on the left side metastasize primarily to the interortocaval region?
B. It more commonly arises on the left side
C. Cryptorchidism is a risk factor in the development of the tumor
D. The most common site of distant metastasis is the liver

A

C

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24
Q

A 60 y/o male complains of 5 month history of LUTS with an IPSS of 15. DRE reveals an enlarged prostate measuring approximately 25 cc, smooth not nodular, non tender. The lab exam is least helpful is:

A. Urinalysis
B. PSA
C. Transrectal ultrasound of the prostate
D. Serum Creatinine

A

D

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25
Q

18 yo male, testicular mass on the left confirmed by ultrasonography. Increased serum hCG but the serum AFP is normal. The most probable histology of the tumor is?

A. choriocarcinoma
B. yolk sac tumor
c. embryonal carcinoma
d. teratoma

A

A

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26
Q

Predisposing factors for the development of penile cancer is/are

A. Poor hygiene
B. Circumcision
C. Gonorrhoea
D. All of the above

A

A

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27
Q

Osseous metastasis from prostate carcinoma are commonly:

A. Osteolytic
B. Osteoblastic
C. Mixedosteolytic-osteoblastic
D. NOTA

A

B

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28
Q

BPH may develop when there is:

A. Increase in Epidermal Growth Factor, decrease in TGF
B. Increase in EGF, increase in TGF
C. Decrease in EGF, decrease in TGF
D. Decrease in EGF, increase in TGF

A

A

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29
Q

Benign cutaneous lesions of the penis except:

A. Zoon’serythroplasia
B. Penile papules
C. Epidermal inclusion cyst
D. Luekoplakia

A

D

30
Q

Cystic lesions in the epididymal head and filled with spermatozoa-containing fluid:

A. spermatocoele
B Hydrocoele
C. Epididymal cyst
D. Varicocoele

A

A

31
Q

At what decade do usually fibrotic inclusions start to appear in the prostate?

A. Third
B. Fourth
C. Fifth
D. Sixth

A

B

32
Q 
Used for imaging of the testes
A. Ultrasound
B. CT scan
C.X-ray
D.All of the above
A

C

33
Q

Secondary messenger that facilitates vasodilation leading to erection.

A. cGMP
B. PGE 1
C. PDE 1
D. PDE 5

A

A

34
Q

The type of cavernous impotence seen in diabetics is:

A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4

A

B

35
Q

Vardenafil is a specific inhibitor of

A. PDE 5
B. PDE 3
C. PDE 2
D. PDE 4

A

A

36
Q

The sexual dysfunction that can be expected in a patient who sustained a penile fracture due to aggressive masturbation is:

A. priapism
B, premature ejaculation
C. anejaculation
D. erectile dysfunction

A

D

37
Q

An endocrinological evaluation is needed for a patient that presents with

A. plaque in the shaft of penis
B. faint pulse in lower extremities
C. gynecomastia
D. HSV infection

A

C

38
Q

Intracavernous penile injection of phenylephrine is for?

A. erectile dysfunction
B. priapism
C. retrograde ejaculation
D. premature ejaculation

A

B

39
Q

Multifocal intraepithelial neoplasia caused by HPV 16, with mild atypia

A. Bowenoid papulosis
B. Erythroplasia of Queyrat
C. Bowen’s disease

A

A

40
Q

A possible complication of blunt injury to the penis.

A. high-flow priapism
B. low-flow priapism
C. premature ejaculation
D. Retro ejaculation

A

A

41
Q

A patient has a true premature ejaculation if he reaches orgasm and ejaculates

a. Within 10 minutes
b. Prior to insertion of penis into vagina
c. Earlier than the partner
d. Without sexual stimulation

A

B

42
Q

A drug for benign prostatic hyperplasia that can decrease men’s libido.

a. tamzulosin
b. alfuzosin
c. terazosin
d. finasteride

A

D

43
Q

A patient with organic erectile dysfunction is characterized by:

A. Acute onset ED
B. Poor early morning erection
C. May have ED in certain situations only
D. There are days when his erections are full

A

B

44
Q

Loss of libido, erectile dysfunction, galactorrhea, gynecomastia, and infertility are present in which of the following conditions?

A. Parkinson’s Disease
B. Diabetes Mellitus
C. Alzheimer’s Disease
D. Pituitary adenoma

A

A

45
Q

Substance that breaks down cGMP resulting in tumescence.

a. PDE 1
b. PDE 3
c. PDE 4
d. PDE 5

A

D

46
Q

Support of the proximal urethra and bladder base are provided by the interaction of the following EXCEPT

A. anterior vaginal wall
B. levator ani muscles
C. arcus tendineus fascia pelvis
D. urogenital diaphragm

A

B

47
Q

CMG is a helpful diagnostic tool except in

A. GSI
B. Detrussor instability
C. Vesicovaginal fistula
D. Overflow incontinence

A

C

48
Q

The most common cause of female urinary incontinence:

a. GSI
b. urge incontinence
c. mixed incontinence
d. overflow incontinence

A

A

49
Q

The anatomical displacement and sagging of the urethra and the and the associated vaginal wall into the vaginal lumen is known as:

A. Cystocoele
B. Enterocoele
C. Urethrocoele
D. Rectocoele

A

B

50
Q

The descent of the uterus and the cervix along the axis of the vaginal canal is known as:

a. cystocoele
b. rectocoele
c. urethrocoele
d. uterovaginal prolapsed

A

D

51
Q

What type of urinary incontinence is caused by a CNS lesion?

a. urge incontinence
b. stress incontinence
c. overflow incontinence
d. mixed urge incontinence

A

A

52
Q

Which of the following is a true hernia?

a. Cystocoele
b. Urethrocoele
c. Rectocoele
d. Enterocoele

A

D

53
Q

The difference in the male and female sexual response is in this stage:

a. Excitation phase
b. Plateau phase
c. Orgasmic phase
d. Resolution phase

A

C

54
Q

the female sexual response is affected by aging due to certain anatomic changes that include the following except:

a. thinning of vaginal walls
b. reduced vaginal size
c. increased clitoral size
d. sensory changes in the nipple

A

C

55
Q

Kiegel’s exercise are recommended to strengthen which muscle?

a. Puborectalis
b. Pubococcygeus
c. ischiocavernosus
d. ischiococcygeus

A

B

56
Q

Which phase of the sexual response cycle is characterized by full development of the orgasmic platform?

a. desire phase
b. arousal/excitement phase
c. plateau phase
d. orgasmic phase

A

C

57
Q

Hormonal changes in perimenopausal women

A. increased FSH, decreased inhibin, normal LH, slightly increased estradiol
B. increased FSH, decreased inhibin, increased LH and estradiol
C. increased FSH, increased inhibin, increased LH and estradiol
D. decreased FSH, increased inhibin, normal LH and estradiol

A

A

58
Q

The transitional years are known to be:

A. Perimenopause
B. Menopause
C. Post menopause
D. Climacteric

A

A

59
Q

The following are benign cutaneous lesions of the penis EXCEPT

A. Zoon’s erythroplasia
B. penile papules
C. epidermal inclusion cyst
D. leukoplakia

A

D

60
Q

Absolute contraindications to the use of HRT include:

A. Endometrial hyperplasia with treatment
B. Controlled HPN
C. Recent MI
D. AOTA

A

C

61
Q

Postmenopausal woman underwent dual energy x-ray absorptiometry. Results show lumbar spine t-score of 1.9 and a hip bone score of 2.8. How would you classify her according to the WHO criteria

A. Normal
B. Osteopenia
C. Osteoporosis
D. Severe osteoporosis

A

B, C

62
Q

ERT decreases the risk of:

A. Endometrial CA
B. Cervical CA
C. Colorectal CA
D. Ovarian CA

A

C

63
Q

The following are side effects of progestational hormones except:

A. Breast tenderness
B. Palpitations
C. Depression
D. Bloating

A

B

64
Q

The advantage of using low dose formulations to start HRT include/s

A. Effective for prevention of vasomotor symptoms
B. Effective for treatment of bone loss
C. Protects endometrium from hyperplasia
D. AOTA

A

A

65
Q

The effects of estrogen deficiency in perimenopause to advanced age:

A. Early – hot flushes, dyspareunia
B. Intermediate – psychological symptosm
C. Late – osteoporosis
D. All of the above

A

C

66
Q

A factor which seems to have an effect on the age of menopause:

A. Weight
B. Use of OCP
C. Number of term pregnancies
D. Smoking
E. Age of menarche
A

D

67
Q

Increase hair in postmenopausal women is a direct consequence of?

A. increase in testosterone
B. increase in androstenedione
C. increase in H…
D. decrease in estrogen/androgen ratio

A

D

68
Q

A 55 year old woman who has hot flushes describes them to you. She is likely to tell you that her hot flushes:

a. have interfered with her activities for 6-7 years
b. occasionally followed by profuse perspiration
c. gradually over a 15-minute period
d. rarely occurs more than once in 24 hours
e. lasts 10-15 minutes

A

B

69
Q

Protective mechanism of estrogen against cardiovascular disease is due to

A. increased HDL
B. decreased LDL
C. decreased serum cholesterol
D. decreased triglycerides

A

A

70
Q

Must be ruled out when patient presents with hot flushes

A. Thyroid
B. Renal
C. Leukemias
D. Carcinoid

A

B

71
Q

Which of the following must be included to make a histologic diagnosis of endometriosis?

A. atypical cell in myometrium
B. presence of trophoblastic cells
C. dysplastic cells at base
D. presence of endometrial glands

A

D

[OS 215] OB-GYN E3 (4 decks)

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