Sample Test A & B

Question 1

What types of changes are NOT usually included within the scope of change
management?

a) Changes to a mainframe computer
b) Changes to business strategy
c) Changes to a service level agreement (SLA)
d) The retirement of a service

Answer 1

b) Changes to business strategy

Question 2

Which of the following is NOT a purpose of service operation?

a) To undertake testing to ensure services are designed to meet business needs
b) To deliver and manage IT services
c) To manage the technology used to deliver services
d) To monitor the performance of technology and processes

Answer 2

a) To undertake testing to ensure services are designed to meet business needs

Question 3

What does the term IT operations control refer to?
a) Managing the technical and applications management functions
b) Overseeing the execution and monitoring of operational activities and events
c) A set of tools used to monitor and display the status of the IT infrastructure and
applications

d) A service desk monitoring the status of the infrastructure when operators are
not available

Answer 3

b) Overseeing the execution and monitoring of operational activities and events

Question 4

Which process is responsible for recording relationships between service
components?

a) Service level management
b) Service portfolio management
c) Service asset and configuration management (SACM)
d) Incident management

Answer 4

c) Service asset and configuration management (SACM)

Question 5

What is the RACI model used for?
a) Documenting the roles and responsibilities of stakeholders in a process or
activity

b) Defining requirements for a new service or process
c) Analysing the business impact of an incident
d) Creating a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of service
management

Answer 5

a) Documenting the roles and responsibilities of stakeholders in a process or
activity

Question 6

Which of the following is the BEST description of an operational level agreement
(OLA)?

a) An agreement between an IT service provider and another part of the same
organization that assists in the provision of services

b) A written agreement between the IT service provider and their customer(s)
defining key targets and responsibilities of both parties

c) An agreement between two service providers about the levels of service
required by the customer

d) An agreement between a third party service desk and the IT customer about fix
and response times

Answer 6

a) An agreement between an IT service provider and another part of the same
organization that assists in the provision of services

Question 7

What is the MAIN purpose of availability management?

a) To monitor and report availability of components
b) To ensure that all targets in the service level agreements (SLAs) are met
c) To guarantee availability levels for services and components
d) To ensure that service availability meets the agreed needs of the business

Answer 7

d) To ensure that service availability meets the agreed needs of the business

Question 8

Which of the following does service transition provide guidance on?

1. Introducing new services
2. Decommissioning services
3. Transfer of services between service providers

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) All of the above
d) 1 and 3 only

Answer 8

c) All of the above

Question 9

Which one of the following is NOT a stage of the service lifecycle?

a) Service optimization
b) Service transition
c) Service design
d) Service strategy

Answer 9

a) Service optimization

Question 10

Which one of the following statements about a configuration management system
(CMS) is CORRECT?

a) The CMS should not contain corporate data about customers and users
b) There may be more than one CMS
c) There should not be more than one configuration management database
(CMDB)

d) If an organization outsources its IT services there is still a need for a CMS

Answer 10

d) If an organization outsources its IT services there is still a need for a CMS

Question 11

What are the three sub-processes of capacity management?
a) Business capacity management, service capacity management and component
capacity management

b) Supplier capacity management, service capacity management and component
capacity management

c) Supplier capacity management, service capacity management and technology
capacity management

d) Business capacity management, technology capacity management and
component capacity management

Answer 11

a) Business capacity management, service capacity management and component
capacity management

Question 12

Which of the following would be stored in the definitive media library (DML)?

1. Copies of purchased software
2. Copies of internally developed software
3. Relevant licence documentation
4. The change schedule

a) All of the above
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer 12

d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Question 13

Which process is responsible for reviewing operational level agreements (OLAs) on
a regular basis?

a) Supplier management
b) Service level management
c) Service portfolio management
d) Demand management

Answer 13

b) Service level management

Question 14

Which role should ensure that process documentation is current and available?

a) The service owner
b) The chief information officer
c) Knowledge management
d) The process owner

Answer 14

d) The process owner

Question 15

Which of the following does the release and deployment management process
address?
1. Defining and agreeing release and deployment plans
2. Ensuring release packages can be tracked
3. Authorizing changes to support the process

a) 1 and 2 only
b) All of the above
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only

Answer 15

a) 1 and 2 only

Question 16

Which of the following are characteristics of every process?

1. It is measurable
2. It delivers a specific result
3. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above

Answer 16

d) All of the above

Question 17

Which of the following are key ITIL characteristics that contribute to its success?

1. It is vendor-neutral
2. It is non-prescriptive
3. It is best practice
4. It is a standard

a) 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) All of the above
d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer 17

b) 1, 2 and 3 only

Question 18

Who should be granted access to the information security policy?
a) Senior business managers and IT staff
b) Senior business managers, IT executives and the information security
manager

c) All customers, users and IT staff
d) Information security management staff only

Answer 18

c) All customers, users and IT staff

Question 19

Which of the following are valid elements of a service design package (SDP)?

1. Agreed and documented business requirements
2. A plan for transition of the service
3. Requirements for new or changed processes
4. Metrics to measure the service

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) All of the above

Answer 19

d) All of the above

Question 20

Which of the following are examples of tools that might support the service
transition stage of the service lifecycle?
1. A tool to store definitive versions of software
2. A workflow tool for managing changes
3. An automated software distribution tool
4. Testing and validation tools

a) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) All of the above
d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer 20

c) All of the above

Question 21

Which of the following statements about problem management is/are
CORRECT?
1. It ensures that all resolutions or workarounds that require a change to a
configuration item (CI) are submitted through change management
2. It provides management information about the cost of resolving and
preventing problems

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both of the above
d) Neither of the above

Answer 21

c) Both of the above

Question 22

What is the purpose of the request fulfilment process?

a) Dealing with service requests from the users
b) Making sure all requests within an IT organization are fulfilled
c) Ensuring fulfilment of change requests
d) Making sure the service level agreement (SLA) is met

Answer 22

a) Dealing with service requests from the users

Question 23

Which statement about value creation through services is CORRECT?
a) The customer’s perception of the service is an important factor in value
creation

b) The value of a service can only ever be measured in financial terms
c) Delivering service provider outcomes is important in the value of a service
d) Service provider preferences drive the value perception of a service

Answer 23

a) The customer’s perception of the service is an important factor in value
creation

Question 24

Which one of the following statements about internal and external customers is
MOST correct?

a) External customers should receive better customer service because they pay
for their IT services

b) Internal customers should receive better customer service because they pay
employee salaries

c) The best customer service should be given to the customer that pays the
most money

d) Internal and external customers should receive the level of customer service
that has been agreed

Answer 24

d) Internal and external customers should receive the level of customer service
that has been agreed

Question 25

Which one of the following should IT services deliver to customers?

a) Capabilities
b) Cost
c) Risk
d) Value

Answer 25

d) Value

Question 26

Which one of the following activities is part of the service level management
(SLM) process?

a) Designing the configuration management system from a business
perspective

b) Creating technology metrics to align with customer needs
c) Monitoring service performance against service level agreements (SLAs)
d) Training service desk staff how to deal with customer complaints about
service

Answer 26

c) Monitoring service performance against service level agreements (SLAs)

Question 27

Which one of the following BEST summarizes the purpose of event management?
a) The ability to detect events, make sense of them and determine the appropriate
control action

b) The ability to detect events, restore normal service as soon as possible and
minimize the adverse impact on business operations

c) The ability to monitor and control the activities of technical staff
d) The ability to report on the successful delivery of services by checking the
uptime of infrastructure devices

Answer 27

a) The ability to detect events, make sense of them and determine the appropriate
control action

Question 28

Which one of the following should a service catalogue contain?

a) The version information of all software
b) The organizational structure of the company
c) Asset information
d) Details of all operational services

Answer 28

d) Details of all operational services

Question 29

What does “Warranty of a service” mean?
a) The service is fit for purpose
b) There will be no failures in applications and infrastructure associated with the
service

c) All service-related problems are fixed free of charge for a certain period of time
d) Customers are assured of certain levels of availability, capacity, continuity and
security

Answer 29

d) Customers are assured of certain levels of availability, capacity, continuity and
security

Question 30

Which is the first activity of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach?

a) Understand the business vision and objectives
b) Carry out a baseline assessment to understand the current situation
c) Agree on priorities for improvement
d) Create and verify a plan

Answer 30

a) Understand the business vision and objectives

Question 31

Which one of the following is a benefit of using an incident model?

a) It will make problems easier to identify and diagnose
b) It means known incident types never recur
c) It provides pre-defined steps for handling particular types of incidents
d) It ensures all incidents are easy to solve

Answer 31

c) It provides pre-defined steps for handling particular types of incidents

Question 32

Which one of the following is the CORRECT sequence of activities for handling an
incident?

a) identification, logging, categorization, prioritization, initial diagnosis, escalation,
investigation and diagnosis, resolution and recovery, closure

b) prioritization, identification, logging, categorization, initial diagnosis, escalation,
investigation and diagnosis, resolution and recovery, closure

c) identification, logging, initial diagnosis, categorization, prioritization, escalation,
resolution and recovery, investigation and diagnosis, closure

d) identification, initial diagnosis, investigation, logging, categorization, escalation,
prioritization, resolution and recovery, closure

Answer 32

a) identification, logging, categorization, prioritization, initial diagnosis, escalation,
investigation and diagnosis, resolution and recovery, closure

Question 33

Which service lifecycle stage ensures that measurement methods will provide the
required metrics for new or changed services?

a) Service design
b) Service operation
c) Service strategy
d) Service delivery

Answer 33

a) Service design

Question 34

Which of the following processes are concerned with managing risks to services?

1. IT service continuity management
2. Information security management
3. Service catalogue management

a) All of the above
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only

Answer 34

d) 1 and 2 only

Question 35

Which one of the following is NOT a type of metric described in continual service
improvement (CSI)?

a) Process metrics
b) Service metrics
c) Personnel metrics
d) Technology metrics

Answer 35

c) Personnel metrics

Question 36

Which statement about the relationship between the configuration management
system (CMS) and the service knowledge management system (SKMS) is
CORRECT?

a) The SKMS is part of the CMS
b) The CMS is part of the SKMS
c) The CMS and SKMS are the same thing
d) There is no relationship between the CMS and the SKMS

Answer 36

b) The CMS is part of the SKMS

Question 37

What is the role of the emergency change advisory board (ECAB)?
a) To assist the change manager in ensuring that no urgent changes are made
during particularly volatile business periods

b) To assist the change manager by implementing emergency changes
c) To assist the change manager in evaluating emergency changes and to decide
whether they should be authorized

d) To assist the change manager in speeding up the emergency change process so
that no unacceptable delays occur

Answer 37

c) To assist the change manager in evaluating emergency changes and to decide
whether they should be authorized

Question 38

Which of the following statements about the service desk is/are CORRECT?
1. The service desk is a function that provides a means of communication between
IT and its users for all operational issues
2. The service desk should be the owner of the problem management process

a) 2 only
b) 1 only
c) Both of the above
d) Neither of the above

Answer 38

b) 1 only

Question 39

Which one of the following is the CORRECT list of the four Ps of service design?

a) Planning, products, position, processes
b) Planning, perspective, position, people
c) Perspective, partners, problems, people
d) People, partners, products, processes

Answer 39

d) People, partners, products, processes

Question 40

Which one of the following represents the BEST course of action to take when a
problem workaround is found?

a) The problem record is closed
b) The problem record remains open and details of the workaround are
documented within it

c) The problem record remains open and details of the workaround are
documented on all related incident records

d) The problem record is closed and details of the workaround are documented in a
request for change(RFC)

Answer 40

b) The problem record remains open and details of the workaround are
documented within it

Question 41

Input from which processes could be considered by service level management when negotiating service level agreements (SLA)? a) All other ITIL processes b) Capacity management and availability management only c) Incident management and problem management only d) Change management and release and deployment management only

Answer 41

a) All other ITIL processes

Question 42

Which one of the following statements about a standard change is INCORRECT?
a) They are pre-authorized by change management b) They follow a procedure or work instruction c) They are low risk d) They must be implemented as soon as possible

Answer 42

c) They are low risk

Question 43

Which of the following statements about the service desk are CORRECT? 1. It provides a single point of contact between the service provider and users

2. It manages incidents and service requests
3. It is a service management process
4. Service desk staff try to restore service as quickly as possible
   a) All of the above b) 1, 2, and 4 only c) 2 and 4 only d) 2 and 3 only

Answer 43

b) 1, 2, and 4 only

Question 44

Which of the following statements about functions are CORRECT?

1. They may include tools
2. They are groups that use resources to carry out one or more activities
3. One person or group may perform multiple functions
4. They are more costly to implement compared to processes
   a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1, 2 and 4 only c) All of the above d) None of the above

Answer 44

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

Question 45

Which one of the following is the BEST description of the activities carried out by facilities management?

     a) The management of IT services that are viewed as "utilities", such as printers or network access
     b) Advice and guidance to IT operations on methodology and tools for managing IT services
     c) Management of the physical IT environment such as a data centre or computer room
     d) The procurement and maintenance of tools that are used by IT operations staff to maintain the infrastructure

Answer 45

c) Management of the physical IT environment such as a data centre or computer room

Question 46

Which process would assist with the identification and resolution of any incidents and problems associated with service or component performance?
a) Capacity management b) Supplier management c) Technology management d) Change management

Answer 46

a) Capacity management

Question 47

Which one of the following statements about the known error database (KEDB) is MOST correct?

a) The KEDB is the same database as the service knowledge management system (SKMS)
b) The KEDB should be used during the incident diagnosis phase to try to speed up the resolution process
c) Care should be taken to avoid duplication of records in the KEDB. This can be done by giving access to as many technicians as possible to create new records
d) Access to the KEDB should be limited to the service desk

Answer 47

b) The KEDB should be used during the incident diagnosis phase to try to speed up the resolution process

Question 48

Which of the following statements about key performance indicators (KPIs) and metrics are CORRECT?

1. Service metrics measure the end-to-end service
2. Each KPI should relate to a critical success factor
3. Metrics can be used to identify improvement opportunities
4. KPIs can be both qualitative and quantitative
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 and 3 only c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) All of the above

Answer 48

d) All of the above

Question 49

Which one of the following maintains relationships between all service components?
a) The capacity plan b) The definitive media library c) The configuration management system d) A service level agreement

Answer 49

c) The configuration management system

Question 50

Should a customer’s request for a new service ALWAYS be fulfilled? a) Yes – if they are an external customer as they are paying for the service

b) No – if they are an internal customer as they are not always paying for the service
c) No – it is the responsibility of the service provider to carry out due diligence before requests are fulfilled
d) Yes – the service provider should ensure that all requests for new services are fulfilled

Answer 50

c) No – it is the responsibility of the service provider to carry out due diligence before requests are fulfilled

Question 51

Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?

1. Problem management can support the service desk by providing known errors to speed up incident resolution
2. Problem management is the only source of information to service level management about the impact of changes
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both of the above d) Neither of the above

Answer 51

a) 1 only

Question 52

A failure has occurred on a system and is detected by a monitoring tool. This system supports a live IT service. When should an incident be raised?

a) Only when users notice the failure b) An incident should not be raised if the technicians have seen this before and have a workaround
c) Only if the failure results in a service level being breached
d) Immediately, to limit or prevent impact on users

Answer 52

d) Immediately, to limit or prevent impact on users

Question 53

Which of the following could be considered stakeholders in a service management project?

1. Users
2. Customers
3. Suppliers
4. Functions
   a) 1 and 2 only b) 3 and 4 only c) 2 and 4 only d) All of the above

Answer 53

d) All of the above

Question 54

Which of the following activities does service asset and configuration management ensure are performed?

1. Configuration items (CIs) are identified
2. CIs are baselined
3. Changes to CIs are controlled
   a) All of the above b) 1 and 2 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 2 and 3 only

Answer 54

a) All of the above

Question 55

Which of the following aspects of service design should be considered when designing a service solution?

1. Measurement methods and metrics
2. Management information systems and tools
3. Technology architectures
4. The processes required
   a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) All of the above

Answer 55

d) All of the above

Question 56

Which one of the following statements is CORRECT for ALL processes?

a) They define functions as part of their design b) They deliver results to a customer or stakeholder
c) They are carried out by an external service provider in support of a customer
d) They are units of organizations responsible for specific outcomes

Answer 56

b) They deliver results to a customer or stakeholder

Question 57

Which process is primarily responsible for packaging, building, testing and deploying services?
a) Transition planning and support b) Release and deployment management c) Service asset and configuration management d) Service catalogue management

Answer 57

b) Release and deployment management

Question 58

Which one of the following is the BEST example of a workaround?

a) A technician installs a script to temporarily divert prints to an alternative printer until a permanent fix is applied
b) A technician tries several ways to solve an incident. One of them works, although they do not know which one
c) After reporting the incident to the service desk, the user works on alternative tasks while the problem is identified and resolved
d) A device works intermittently, allowing the user to continue working at degraded levels of performance while the technician diagnoses the incident

Answer 58

a) A technician installs a script to temporarily divert prints to an alternative printer until a permanent fix is applied

Question 59

Which of the following areas can be helped by technology?

1. Request management
2. Service catalogue management
3. Detection and monitoring
4. Design and modelling
   a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1, 3 and 4 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) All of the above

Answer 59

d) All of the above

Question 60

Which one of the following is the CORRECT list of stages in the Deming Cycle?
a) Plan, Measure, Monitor, Report b) Plan, Check, Re-Act, Implement c) Plan, Do, Act, Audit d) Plan, Do, Check, Act

Answer 60

d) Plan, Do, Check, Act

Question 61

Which two processes will be involved the MOST in negotiating and agreeing contracts for the provision of recovery capability to support continuity plans?

a) Service level management and capacity management
b) Supplier management and service level management
c) IT service continuity management and service level management
d) IT service continuity management and supplier management

Answer 61

d) IT service continuity management and supplier management

Question 62

Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an incident model? a) The template that defines the incident logging form used for reporting incidents

b) A type of incident involving a standard (or model) type of configuration item (CI)
c) A set of pre-defined steps to be followed when dealing with a known type of incident
d) An incident that is easy to solve

Answer 62

c) A set of pre-defined steps to be followed when dealing with a known type of incident

Question 63

What roles are defined in the RACI model? a) Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed b) Responsible, Achievable, Consulted, Informed c) Realistic, Accountable, Consulted, Informed d) Responsible, Accountable, Corrected, Informed

Answer 63

a) Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed

Question 64

Which stage of the service lifecycle decides what services should be offered and to whom they will be offered?
a) Continual service improvement b) Service operation c) Service design d) Service strategy

Answer 64

d) Service strategy

Question 65

Which of the following does continual service improvement (CSI) provide guidance on?

1. How to improve process efficiency and effectiveness
2. How to improve services
3. Improvement of all stages of the service lifecycle
   a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) All of the above

Answer 65

d) All of the above

Question 66

Which of the following is a type of service level agreement (SLA) described in the ITIL service design publication?
a) Priority-based SLA b) Technology-based SLA c) Location-based SLA d) Customer-based SLA

Answer 66

d) Customer-based SLA

Question 67

Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an event?

a) An occurrence where a performance threshold has been exceeded and an agreed service level has been impacted
b) A change of state that has significance for the management of an IT service
c) A known system defect that generates multiple incident reports d) A planned meeting of customers and IT staff to announce a new service or improvement programme

Answer 67

b) A change of state that has significance for the management of an IT service

Question 68

Which one of the following is the MOST appropriate stakeholder to define the value of a service?
a) Customers b) IT Senior management c) Financial management for IT services d) Suppliers

Answer 68

a) Customers

Question 69

Which of the following should be treated as an incident?

1. A user is unable to access a service during service hours
2. An authorized IT staff member is unable to access a service during service hours
3. A network component fails but the user is not aware of any disruption to service
4. A user contacts the service desk about the slow performance of an application
   a) All of the above b) 1 and 4 only c) 2 and 3 only d) None of the above

Answer 69

a) All of the above

Question 70

Which one of the following statements about a change model is CORRECT?

a) A change model should NOT be used for emergency changes b) A change model should be constructed when a significant change is required
c) A change model defines the steps that should be taken to handle a particular type of change
d) Escalation procedures are outside the scope of a change model

Answer 70

c) A change model defines the steps that should be taken to handle a particular type of change

Question 71

The CSI approach uses a number of techniques. Which one of the following techniques would BEST help a business understand “where are we now?”?
a) Reviewing critical success factors b) Understanding the business vision c) Performing a baseline assessment d) Checking the CSI register

Answer 71

c) Performing a baseline assessment

Question 72

Which service operation processes are missing from the following list?

1. Incident management
2. Problem management
3. Access management
4. ?
5. ?
   a) Event management and request fulfilment b) Event management and service desk c) Facilities management and event management d) Change management and service level management

Answer 72

a) Event management and request fulfilment

Question 73

Which stage of the service lifecycle provides a framework for evaluating service capabilities and risk profiles before new or changed services are deployed?
a) Service strategy b) Continual service improvement c) Service transition d) Service operation

Answer 73

c) Service transition

Question 74

Which of the following activities should a service owner undertake?

1. Representing a specific service across the organization
2. Updating the configuration management system (CMS) after a change
3. Helping to identify service improvements
4. Representing a specific service in change advisory board (CAB) meetings
   a) 2, 3 and 4 only b) All of the above c) 1, 2 and 3 only d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer 74

d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Question 75

Which one of the following is NOT a purpose or objective of availability management?

a) To monitor and report on the availability of components
b) To ensure that service availability matches the agreed needs of the business
c) To assess the impact of changes on the availability plan
d) To ensure that business continuity plans are aligned to business objectives

Answer 75

d) To ensure that business continuity plans are aligned to business objectives

Question 76

Which one of the following is a CORRECT description of the “four Ps” of service design? a) A four-step process for the design of effective service management b) A definition of the people and products required for successful design c) A set of questions that should be asked when reviewing design specifications
d) Four major areas that need to be considered during service design

Answer 76

d) Four major areas that need to be considered during service design

Question 77

Which one of the following BEST describes a major problem review? a) Facilitated by the problem manager, a major problem review is designed to apportion blame after a resolution to the problem has been found

b) A major problem review is run as part of the change advisory board (CAB) by the change manager. It is conducted after the request for change (RFC) to resolve the problem has been accepted
c) A major problem review is facilitated by the service desk manager so that lessons can be learned after a major problem has been resolved
d) Facilitated by the problem manager, the review is conducted so that lessons can be learned from the major problem, and to provide training and awareness for support staff

Answer 77

d) Facilitated by the problem manager, the review is conducted so that lessons can be learned from the major problem, and to provide training and awareness for support staff

Question 78

Which one of the following statements about supplier management is INCORRECT? a) Supplier management negotiates operational level agreements (OLAs) b) Supplier management ensures that suppliers meet business expectations

c) Supplier management maintains information in a supplier and contractor management information system
d) Supplier management negotiates external agreements to support the delivery of services

Answer 78

a) Supplier management negotiates operational level agreements (OLAs)

Question 79

Which one of the following is a primary purpose of business relationship management?

a) Carrying out operational activities to support services b) Ensuring all targets within service level agreements are met c) Maximizing contract value and operational efficiency of the services that are delivered
d) Understanding the customer’s needs and ensuring they are met

Answer 79

d) Understanding the customer’s needs and ensuring they are met

Question 80

Which one of the following statements is an objective of the design coordination process? a) To ensure that service availability targets are met

b) To define, document, agree, monitor, measure and review service levels
c) To provide and maintain a single source of consistent information on all operational services
d) To monitor and improve the performance of the service design lifecycle stage

Answer 80

d) To monitor and improve the performance of the service design lifecycle stage