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National Board Sample Questions > Sample Questions 2006 > Flashcards

Sample Questions 2006 Flashcards

1
Q

As a dental amalgam restoration ages in the oral cavity, microleakage decreases because of:

a) fluoride release.
b) galvanic currents.
c) increase in surface flow.
d) increase in edge strength.
e) formation of corrosion products.

A

E) FORMATION OF CORROSION PRODUCT.

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2
Q

A fall in blood pressure could occur when a patient is experiencing each of the following conditions EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a) Shock
b) Syncope
c) Anxiety
d) Allergic reaction
e) Addison’s disease

A

C) ANXIETY.

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3
Q

While applying pit & fissure sealants, a dental hygienist will condition the tooth with an acid etchant. Which one of the following does this procedure serve to increase?

a) Strength
b) Viscosity
c) Retention
d) Permeability
e) Polymerization

A

C) RETENTION.

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4
Q

Which of the following is most sensitive to the effects of radiation?

a) Neurons
b) Optic lens
c) Muscle cells
d) Bone marrow
e) Mature erythrocytes

A

D) BONE MARROW

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5
Q

Tongue piercing is associated with each of the following intraoral conditions EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

a) Gingival recession
b) Airway obstruction
c) Aspiration of jewelry
d) Intraoral pigmentation
e) Chipping of incisal edges

A

D) INTRAORAL PIGMENTATION

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6
Q

The generalized release of histamine can cause each of the following EXCEPT one? Which one is this EXCEPTION?

a) Edema
b) Pallor
c) Urticaria
d) Bronchospasm
e) Increased capillary permeability

A

B) PALLOR

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7
Q

Which of the following represents the muscle that protrudes the mandible?

a) Masseter
b) Temporalis
c) Lateral pterygoid
d) Medial pterygoid
e) Anterior belly of digastric

A

C) LATERAL PTERYGOID

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8
Q

Which of the following drugs acts upon the anaerobic organisms of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis?

a) Nystatin (Mycostatin)
b) Penicillin (Pen-Vee)
c) Griseofulvin (Fulvicin)
d) Metronidazole (Flagyl)
e) Amoxicillin ( Amoxil)

A

D) METRONIDAZOLE (FLAGYL)

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9
Q

Which of the following cells is most active in antibody production?

a) Monocyte
b) Mast cell
c) Lymphocyte
d) Plasma cell
e) Polymorphonuclear leukocyte

A

D) PLASMA CELLS

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10
Q

A patient presents with a well-defined, scalloped, red area along a gingival margin. This redness is adjacent to a base-metal crown. Each of the following could have caused the redness EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

a) Subgingival crown margin
b) Nickel allergy
c) Poorly contoured crown
d) Poor oral hygiene
e) Galvanic reaction

A

E) GALVANIC REACTION

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11
Q

A dental hygienist notices a 4-mm probing depth changed to 2-mm at the 4-week evaluation after periodontal debridement. The most likely reason for this is:

a) increase in collagen production.
b) decrease in edema within the tissue.
c) formation of a long junctional epithelium.
d) decrease in vasculitis in the connective tissue.
e) gain in periodontal attachment to the tooth surface.

A

B) DECREASE IN EDEMA WITHIN THE TISSUE.

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12
Q

Which of the following defects in restoration could be recontoured?

a) Flash
b) Fracture
c) Open margin
d) Under-contoured restoration
e) Deficient proximal contact

A

A) FLASH

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13
Q

Objectives of individual health instruction must be designed in accordance with each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a) Values of the patient
b) Available time and resources
c) Age & sex of the patient
d) Cultural beliefs of the patient
e) Values of the dental health provider

A

E) VALUES OF THE DENTAL HEALTH PROVIDER

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14
Q

If an acid etch is used in preparation for a sealant, then the most effective etch is achieved using which of the following?

a) Boric acid
b) Acetic acid
c) Citric acid
d) Phosphoric acid
e) Hydrochloric acid

A

D) PHOSPHORIC ACID

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15
Q

Each of the following statements correctly describes the absorbed dose of radiation EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

a) Applies to all types of ionizing radiation.
b) Measurement is taken at the skin surface.
c) Describes the maximum permissible dose.
d) Rad is the traditional unit of measurement.
e) Measures quantity of radiation dose received.

A

C) DESCRIBES THE MAXIMUM PERMISSIBLE DOSE

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16
Q

Tylenol with codeine falls into which Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) schedule of controlled substances?

a) Schedule I
b) Schedule II
c) Schedule III
d) Schedue IV
e) Schedule V

A

C) SCHEDULE III

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17
Q

General sensation on the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is supplied by which of the following nerves?

a) Lingual
b) Hypoglossal
c) Chorda tympani
d) Glossopharyngeal
e) Lesser petrosal

A

A) LINGUAL

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18
Q

The etiology of myxedema is:

a) hyposecretion of the parathyroid.
b) hyposecretion of the thyroid gland.
c) hyposecretion of the adrenal gland.
d) hypersecretion of the thyroid gland.
e) hypersecretion of the adrenal gland.

A

B) HYPOSECRETION OF THE THYROID GLAND.

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19
Q

Which of the following represents the most efficient mechanism by which antibodies induced bacteriolysis?

a) Release of lymphokines
b) Stimulation of macrophages
c) Neutralization of bacterial toxins
d) Activation of the complement system
e) Stimulation of bacteriophages

A

D) ACTIVATION OF THE COMPLEMENT SYSTEM

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20
Q

In comparison to manual instrumentation, which of the following ultrasonic techniques is necessary to remove calculus?

a) Increased grasp pressure, rapid movement
b) Decreased grasp pressure, rapid movement
c) Increased grasp pressure, continuous movement
d) Decreased grasp pressure, continuous movement
e) Moderate grasp pressure, slow movement

A

D) DECREASED GRASP PRESSURE, CONTINUOUS MOVEMENT

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21
Q

Gingival tissues that are inflamed bleed upon probing because of certain changes taking place in the pocket epithelium. Which of the following represents these changes?

a) Invasion
b) Hyperplasia
c) Proliferation
d) Keratinization
e) Microulceration

A

E) MICROULCERATION

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22
Q

Each of the following describes generalized tetracycline stain EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a) Initiated in adolescence
b) Acquired in early childhood
c) Considered intrinsic endogenous
d) Acquired through fetal circulation
e) Can be shades of green, yellow, and gray

A

A) INITIATED IN ADOLESCENCE

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23
Q

Which of the following represents the most appropriate daily OTC fluoride rinse?

a) 0.5% APF
b) 0.63% SnF2
c) 0.05% NaF
d) 0.2% NaF
e) 1.19% NaF

A

C) 0.05% NaF

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24
Q

Which of the following most directly influences the retention of a sealant?

a) Age of the patient
b) Technique of the operator
c) Morphology of the tooth surface
d) Amount of fluoride in the surface enamel
e) Time span between the eruption of the tooth and sealant placement

A

B) TECHNIQUE OF THE OPERATOR

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25
Q

Each of the following describes the appearance of cervical burnout EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

a) Demonstrates lateral root edge
b) Radiolucent on dental radiographs
c) Has distinct rounded inner border
d) Often confused with a root caries lesion
e) Phenomenon of x-ray penetration of the cementoenamel junction (CEJ)

A

E) PHENOMENON OF X-RAY PENETRATION OF THE CEMENTOENAMEL JUNCTION (CEJ)

26
Q

What type of immunity is conferred by administration of the hepatitis B vaccine?

a) Innate
b) Natural active
c) Natural passive
d) Artificially acquired active
e) Artificially acquired passive

A

D) ARTIFICIALLY ACQUIRED ACTIVE

27
Q

In a prescription, warnings to the patient regarding the proper use of the drug are found in the:

a) signa.
b) heading.
c) inscription.
d) subscription.
e) superscription.

A

A) SIGNA.

28
Q

Each of the following can appear as white-surface lesions of the oral mucosa EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a) Mucocele
b) Lichen planus
c) Chemical burn
d) Solar cheilitis
e) Geographical tongue

A

A) MUCOCELE

29
Q

Which of the following alterations is associated with progression from a healthy gingival sulcus to gingivitis?

a) Appearance of staphylococci in the sulcus
b) Predominance of yeasts in subgingival plaque
c) Increase in demonstrable gram-negative anaerobic rods in plaque
d) Predominance of spirochetes in supragingival plaque
e) Rapid toxin synthesis preceding crestal bone loss

A

C) INCREASE IN DEMONSTRABLE GRAM-NEGATIVE ANAEROBIC RODS IN PLAQUE

30
Q

Which of the following is the most common post-operative complication of root planing?

a) Hemorrhaging
b) Hypersensitivity
c) Periodontal abscess
d) Gingival inflammation
e) Displacement of restoration

A

B) HYPERSENSITIVITY

31
Q

Which of the following represents the major advantage of using foam-based APF rather than gel APF?

a) Requires less frequent application
b) Requires less time for application
c) Penetrates deeper into enamel surface
d) Reduces risk of accidental fluoride ingestion
e) Has superior enamel uptake of topical fluoride

A

D) REDUCES RISK OF ACCIDENTAL FLUORIDE INGESTION

32
Q

Which of the following best describes the difference between a papule & a nodule? A papule:

a) is smaller in size than a nodule.
b) contains pus & a nodule is solid.
c) is pedunculated & a nodule is sessile.
d) is more irregular in shape than a nodule.
e) contains blood & a nodule contains clear fluid.

A

A) IS SMALLER IN SIZE THAN A NODULE.

33
Q

Which of the following OTC mouthrinses is accepted by the Council on Dental Therapeutics of the American Dental Association?

a) Plax
b) Scope
c) Listerine
d) Cepacol
e) Viadent

A

C) LISTERINE

34
Q

Which of the following methods of personal plaque control is contraindicated during supportive therapy involving dental implants?

a) Soft toothbrush
b) Singletuft brush
c) Rubber-tip stimulator
d) Proxybrush with wire center
e) Motorized interproximal brush

A

D) PROXYBRUSH WITH WIRE CENTER

35
Q

Each exposure of a tooth surface to sucrose or other cariogenic foods in a meal increases the amount of acid on the tooth.

The amount of cariogenic food consumed is as important to the caries process as is when & how often a tooth is exposed.

a) Both statements are TRUE.
b) Both statements are FALSE.
c) The 1st statement is TRUE; the 2nd is FALSE.
d) The 1st statement is FALSE; the 2nd is TRUE.

A

C) THE 1ST STATEMENT IS TRUE; THE 2ND IS FALSE.

36
Q

Antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended for each of the following conditions EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a) Heart valve prosthesis
b) Congenital cardiac malformations
c) Mitral valve prolapse with regurgitation
d) Previous coronary artery bypass graft
e) Previous rheumatic fever with valvular dysfunction

A

D) PREVIOUS CORONARY ARTERY BYPASS GRAFT

37
Q

Which of the following immunoglobulins is the largest & is found in the primary immune response?

a) IgA
b) IgD
c) IgM
d) IgG
e) IgE

A

C) IgM

38
Q

Certain amino acids are termed essential because they:

a) have the ability to be converted into hormones.
b) are required for the clotting of blood.
c) cannot be synthesized by the body.
d) are needed for the formation of high energy complexes.

A

C) CANNOT BE SYNTHESIZED BY THE BODY.

39
Q

If focal collections of ameloblasts cease functioning during the apposition stage of tooth development, then a tooth could be formed that exhibits:

a) erosion.
b) anodontia.
c) hypoplasia.
d) dens-in-dente.
e) hypocalcification.

A

C) HYPOPLASIA.

40
Q

The finishing & polishing of amalgam restorations can eliminate each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

a) Surface tarnish
b) Marginal deficiencies
c) Surface stains
d) Marginal flashes
e) Surface roughness

A

B) MARGINAL DEFICIENCIES

41
Q

A composite resin restoration has a gingival overhang. This defect can most easily be identified by:

a) exploration.
b) radiographs.
c) transillumination.
d) visual inspection.
e) disclosing solution.

A

A) EXPLORATION.

42
Q

Localized antibiotic delivery systems are used most successfully in the treatment of which of the following?

a) HIV peridontitis
b) Hyperplastic gingivitis
c) Desquamative gingivitis
d) Two-wall infra bony pockets
e) Localized deep periodontal pockets

A

E) LOCALIZED DEEP PERIODONTAL POCKETS

43
Q

Which of the following types of hepatitis is most likely transmitted by person-to-person contact, generally through fecal contamination, and is facilitated by poor personal hygiene?

a) HAV
b) HBV
c) HCV
d) HDV
e) HEV

A

A) HAV

44
Q

Patients with removable dental appliances are more likely to develop candidiasis.

Treatment of candidiasis must include the oral cavity, as well as, the denture to decrease the chance of recurrence.

a) Both statements are TRUE.
b) Both statements are FALSE.
c) The 1st statement is TRUE; the 2nd is FALSE.
d) The 1st statement is FALSE; the 2nd is TRUE.

A

A) BOTH STATEMENTS ARE TRUE.

45
Q

Radiation caries demonstrates each of the following characteristics EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

a) Develop secondary to radiation-induced xerostomia.
b) Progression is rampant & aggressive.
c) Lesions encircle the cervical aspect of the crown.
d) Crowns readily fracture, leaving root fragments in bone.
e) Radiographically, lesions have triangular shape at contact point.

A

E) RADIOGRAPHICALLY, LESIONS HAVE TRIANGULAR SHAPE AT CONTACT POINT.

46
Q

Tumors are most often found in which of the following salivary glands?

a) Parotid
b) Minor
c) Sublingual
d) Submandibular
e) Von Ebner’s

A

A) PAROTID

47
Q

Which of the following structures is derived from ectoderm?

a) Pulp
b) Dentin
c) Enamel
d) Cementum
e) Periodontal ligament

A

C) ENAMEL

48
Q

In mature bacterial plaque (aged 3 weeks or more), the predominant bacteria are:

a) anaerobic.
b) spirochetes.
c) staphylococci.
d) gram-(-) cocci.
e) gram-(+) cocci.

A

A) ANAEROBIC

49
Q

Which of the following constitutes the major buffer in saliva?

a) Mucin
b) Amylase
c) Protein
d) Phosphate
e) Bicarbonate

A

E) BICARBONATE

50
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of chronic gingivitis?

a) Pain
b) Bleeding
c) Mobility
d) Bone loss
e) Loss of periodontal attachment

A

B) BLEEDING

51
Q

The eugenol that is incorporated into some periodontal packs could do which of the following?

a) Irritate tissue
b) Induce fibrinolysis
c) Inhibit clot formation
d) Cause secondary hemorrhage
e) Provide bacteriostatic properties

A

A) IRRITATE TISSUE

52
Q

To allow for proper healing, re-evaluation probing should be conducted how long after periodontal debridement?

a) 4 days
b) 1 week
c) 2 weeks
d) 3 weeks
e) 4 weeks

A

E) 4 WEEKS

53
Q

In an emergency situation involving a 6-yr. old child, which of the following is the artery of choice for checking pulse rate?

a) Carotid
b) Femoral
c) Radial
d) Brachial
e) Subclavian

A

A) CAROTID

54
Q

Patients with mitral valve prolapse with regurgitation who are allergic to penicillin should be premeditated, 1 hour prior to appointment, with which of the following?

a) Amoxicillin, 2 grams
b) Clindamycin, 600 mg
c) Erythromycin, 2 grams
d) Tetracycline, 2 grams
e) Gentamicin, 600 mg

A

B) CLINDAMYCIN, 600 mg

55
Q

The wooden-interdental cleaner is a 2-inch long device made of basswood or birchwood and is triangular in cross-section.

During application, the end of the interdental cleaner should be splayed to effectively remove bacterial plaque.

a) Both statements are TRUE.
b) Both statements are FALSE.
c) The 1st statement is TRUE; the 2nd is FALSE.
d) The 1st statement is FALSE; the 2nd is TRUE.

A

C) THE 1ST STATEMENT IS TRUE; THE 2ND IS FALSE.

56
Q

Each of the following is a pharmacologic effect of narcotic agents EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

a) Euphoria
b) Sedation
c) Analgesia
d) Antitussive action
e) Anti-inflammatory effect

A

E) ANTI-INFLAMMATORY EFFECT

57
Q

Non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium is found on the:

a) hard palate.
b) attached gingiva.
c) interdental papilla.
d) dorsum of the tongue.
e) internal aspect of the lip

A

E) INTERNAL ASPECT OF THE LIP

58
Q

Each of the following characteristics is typical of benign neoplasm EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

a) Metatasis
b) Slow growth
c) Encapsulated
d) Normal mitoses
e) Well-differentiated cells

A

A) METATASIS

59
Q

Which of the following roots is the widest and strongest root of the mandibular 1st molar?

a) Distal
b) Mesial
c) Lingual
d) Mesiobuccal
e) Distobuccal

A

B) MESIAL

60
Q

Which of the following substances is recommended for sterilizing heat-sensitive materials?

a) Iodophors
b) Chlorhexidine
c) Ethylene oxide
d) Chemical vapor
e) Sodium hypochlorite

A

C) ETHYLENE OXIDE

National Board Sample Questions (2 decks)

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