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Pharmacology > Sample Questions > Flashcards

Sample Questions Flashcards

1
Q

When administering the drug senna to a patient, a health care provider must inform the patient of which of the following:
a. this drug is intended to lower BP and is best used in combination with other antihypertensives
b. this drug is not intended for long term use
c. the patient must limit his/her fiber intake
d. advise patient to change positions slowly to limit the risk of orthostatic hypotension

A

b. this drug is not intended for long term use

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2
Q

When giving digoxin (Lanoxin) to a patient, the health care provider notices various signs and symptoms of an overdose. The health care provider knows to give which of the following to reverse digoxin toxicity:
a. Naloxone
b. Vitamin K
c. Digibind
d. Fluemanzil

A

c. Digibind

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3
Q

While providing an ACE inhibitor, the patient asks what the action of the drug is. As a health care provider, you explain that the action of an ACE inhibitor is:
a. to lower BP by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II
b. to inhibit reabsorption of sodium back into the body, ultimately increasing urine output and lowering BP
c. to decrease HR and BP by competing with beta1 and beta2 receptors in the heart and lungs
d. to lower blood glucose by stimulating the release of insulin

A

a. to lower BP by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II

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4
Q

Which of the following types of insulin is “long-acting”?
a. Lispro (Humalog)
b. NPH (Humulin N)
c. Regular insulin (Humulin R)
d. Glargine (Lantus)

A

d. Glargine (Lantus)

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5
Q

Which of the following is used to treat migraine headaches?
a. Beta-blockers
b. Cholinesterase inhibitors
c. ACE inhibitors
d. Anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs)

A

a. Beta blockers

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6
Q

What is the therapeutic use of metformin?
a. lower BP
b. to diminish seizure activity
c. the maintenance of a person’s blood glucose
d. increase HR and decrease gastrointestinal secretions

A

c. the maintenance of a person’s blood glucose

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7
Q

What is the correct definition for absorption of a drug?
a. movement of drug from site of administration to various tissues of the body
b. describes the absorption, distribution, metabolism & excretion of drugs
c. these types of drugs can be taken OTC
d. this addresses how various drugs affect different forms of the body

A

a. movement of drug from site of administration to various tissues of the body

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8
Q

What do you assess for in a patient who is on Vaproate? SATA
a. suicidal thoughts
b. monitor for seizures
c. bipolar disorder
d. migraines

A

a. suicidal thoughts
b. monitor for seizures
c. bipolar disorder
d. migraines

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9
Q

What is true about food and drug precautions? SATA
a. you must limit certain types of food or concurrent administration of certain types of drugs
b. certain combinations of food and drugs can cause adverse reactions
c. precautions may require limiting certain types of food or concurring drugs rather than restricting the drug itself
d. when one drug changes the way, another drug affects that drug

A

a. you must limit certain types of food or concurrent administration of certain types of drugs
b. certain combinations of food and drugs can cause adverse reactions
c. precautions may require limiting certain types of food or concurring drugs rather than restricting the drug itself

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10
Q

ACE inhibitors are used in the treatment of all EXCEPT:
a. HTN
b. HF
c. Hypotension
d. diabetic nephropathy

A

c. Hypotension

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11
Q

When administering a serotonin antagonist it is important to monitor for:
a. intake and output
b. mental status changes
c. respiratory rate
d. anorexia

A

b. mental status changes

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12
Q

Which of the following is the antidote for Heparin?
a. protamine sulfate
b. vitamin K
c. naloxone
d. toradol

A

a. protamine sulfate

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13
Q

Which of the following is NOT an opioid or NSAID?
a. morphine
b. ibuprofen
c. hydromorphone
d. acetaminophen

A

d. acetaminophen

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14
Q

A patient has been taking hydrocodone, an opioid analgesic for their moderate pain, and they have taken over their prescribed dose. What should you give as the antidote if they experience toxicity?
a. naloxone
b. N-acetylcysteine
c. atropine
d. digoxin immune fab

A

a. naloxone

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15
Q

A patient is being educated on taking levothyroxine, a drug used to balance thyroid activity. What should you include in their education?
a. don’t bother your health care professionals if you experience side effects
b. take this at the same time every day
c. thyroid tests are unnecessary while taking this drug
d. it is okay to take this drug if you have recently had a MI

A

b. take this at the same time every day

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16
Q

A patient states he experiences anxiety and has panic attacks at least once a week. What might be helpful for this patient?
a. phenytoin (dilantin)
b. lithium
c. alprazolam (xanax)
d. spironolactone

A

c. alprazolam (xanax)

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17
Q

Why is it important to monitor ins and outs with patients using ACE inhibitors?
a. to assess for renal impairment
b. you must make sure the patient is receiving adequate fluid intake
c. to assess the patient for potential HF
d. you must assess for NSAID use
e. to assess for decreased BP

A

c. to assess the patient for potential HF

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18
Q

Which drug goes through extensive first-pass hepatic metabolism?
a. Heparin
b. Insulin
c. Propranolol
d. Nitroglycerine
e. Warfarin

A

c. Propranolol

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19
Q

What nursing interventions should you do when a patient is on Albuterol SATA
a. Assess lung sounds, pulse, and BP before administering
b. monitor for changes in behavior
c. observe for paradoxical bronchospasms
d. assess for abdominal distention
e. note sputum color and texture

A

a. assess lung sounds, pulse, and BP before administering
c. observe for paradoxical bronchospasms
e. note sputum color and texture

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20
Q

What patient could potentially take the drug Senna?
a. a patient with an eating disorder
b. a patient who has not passed stool in 5 days
c. a patient with anal fissures
d. a patient with a history of hemorrhoids
e. a patient who has hypersensitivity

A

b. a patient who has not passed stool in 5 days

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21
Q

What is the category class of lithium?
a. antidiabetics, biguanides
b. mood stabilizers
c. antiarrhythmics, anticonvulsants
d. vascular headache suppressants

A

b. mood stabilizers

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22
Q

What do you need to teach your patient if they are taking sennosides? SATA
a. laxatives should be used for short-term therapy
b. the medication does not cure hypothyroidism
c. the color of the urine may change to a pink, red, violet, yellow, or brown
d. make sure other forms of bowel regulation are being used

A

a. laxatives should be used for short-term therapy
c. the color of the urine may change to a pink, red, violet, yellow, or brown
d. make sure other forms of bowel regulation are being used

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23
Q

What is the therapeutic use of phenytoin?
a. replacement in hypothyroidism to restore normal hormonal balance
b. diminished accumulation of acid in the gastric lumen with lessened gastroesophageal reflux
c. diminished seizure activity, termination of ventricular arrhythmias
d. prevention of thrombus formation, prevention of extension of existing thrombi

A

c. diminished seizure activity, termination of ventricular arrhythmias

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24
Q

At what amount does Acetaminophen stop controlling pain?
a. Over 1,000 mg
b. 750 mg
c. Over 1,500 mg
d. 150 mg

A

a. Over 1,000 mg

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25
Q

When should the drug Montelukast be taken:
a. use at least two hours before exercise
b. daily in evening
c. use two hours before exercise or daily in evening
d. none of the above

A

c. use two hours before exercise or daily in evening

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26
Q

How should the oral form of albuterol be taken:
a. administer with meals to minimize gastric irritation
b. administer before meals with water
c. administer after meals with water
d. administer in the morning with milk

A

a. administer with meals to minimize gastric irritation

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27
Q

What should a client taking Omeprazole report to the health care provider:
a. black, tarry stools
b. diarrhea
c. abdominal pain
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above: black, tarry stools, diarrhea, & abdominal pain

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28
Q

When administering an antiulcer agents, you should be more cautious when administering it to:
a. a healthy 27 year old patient
b. patient with renal failure
c. elderly patients
d. all of the above
e. choices b & c

A

e. choices b & c: patient with renal failure & elderly patients

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29
Q

What is the common side effect that is normal with the initial therapy of nitroglycerine due to increased vasodilation?
a. abdominal cramps
b. calf pain
c. headache
d. blurred vision

A

c. headache

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30
Q

Two tests should be monitored for a patient currently on Warfarin. What are those two tests? SATA
a. PT
b. aPT
c. INR
d. BMP

A

a. PT
c. INR

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31
Q

Which of the following diuretics inhibits sodium reabsorption in the kidneys while saving K+ and hydrogen ions?
a. Spironolactone
b. Furosemide
c. Hydrochlorothiazide
d. Bumetanide

A

a. Spironolactone

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32
Q

A nurse is about to administer Propranolol to a patient. The nurse takes the patient’s apical pulse and documents it as 58 bpm. How should the nurse continue?
a. administer the medication as normal
b. cut the tablet in half and administer half of the normal dose
c. give the XR form of the medication
d. withhold administration of the medication and notify physician

A

d. withhold administration of the medication and notify physician

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33
Q

Which of the following should be monitored for patients taking diuretics? SATA
a. daily weight
b. intake and output
c. amount and location of edema
d. appetite
e. lung sounds

A

a. daily weight
b. intake and output
c. amount and location of edema
e. lung sounds

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34
Q

Which of the following drugs has a therapeutic effect that increases cardiac output and slows HR?
a. heparin
b. alprazola
c. digoxin
d. levothyroxine

A

c. digoxin

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35
Q

Which of the following is a potassium-sparing diuretic?
a. furosemide
b. spironolactone
c. hydrochlorothiazide
d. bumetanide

A

b. spironolactone

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36
Q

What is the antidote for Warfarin?
a. vitamin D
b. vitamin C
c. vitamin K
d. vitamin B6

A

c. Vitamin K

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37
Q

A nurse is completing discharge teaching for a client who has a new prescription for transdermal patches. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the instructions?
a. “I will clean the site with an alcohol swab before I apply the patch.”
b. “I will rotate the application sites weekly.”
c. “I will apply the patch to an area of skin with no hair.”
d. “I will place the new patch on the site of the old patch.”

A

c. “I will apply the patch to an area of skin with no hair.”

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38
Q

A nurse is teaching a client who has a prescription for a long-term use of oral prednisone for chronic asthma. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
a. weight gain
b. nervousness
c. bradycardia
d. constipation

A

a. weight gain

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39
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient who is taking digoxin. the nurse should instruct the patient to monitor and report which of the following adverse effects? SATA
a. fatigue
b. constipation
c. anorexia
d. rash
e. diplopia

A

a. fatigue
c. anorexia
e. diplopia

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40
Q

Phenytoin is an antiarrhythmic and anticonvulsant that has an unlabeled use for:
a. headaches
b. cold remedy
c. neuropathic pain
d. antianxiety

A

c. neuropathic pain

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41
Q

When taking digoxin, low levels of what can cause toxicity?
a. potassium
b. calcium
c. sodium
d. magnesium

A

a. potassium

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42
Q

What is the category class of Valproate?
a. anticoagulant
b. antianxiety, benzodiazepines
c. anticonvulsant, vascular headache suppressant
d. mood stabilizer

A

c. anticonvulsant, vascular headache suppressant

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43
Q

When taking nitroglycerine (transdermal), you should have how many hours nitrate free each day?
a. 1-2 hours
b. 5-10 hours
c. 3-4 hours
d. 10-12 hours

A

d. 10-12 hours

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44
Q

When administering Phenytoin you should monitor?
a. behavior
b. therapeutic blood levels
c. for Steven Johnson syndrome
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above: behavior, therapeutic blood levels, & for Steven Johnson syndrome

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45
Q

Angiotensin II receptor agent medications usually end in?
a. sar-tan
b. ase
c. olol
d. pril

A

a. sar-tan

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46
Q

What is the therapeutic effects of lithium?
a. prevents/decreases incidence of acute manic episodes
b. maintenance of blood glucose
c. control of hyperglycemia in diabetic patients
d. diminished seizure activity

A

a. prevents/decreases incidence of acute manic episodes

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47
Q

What is the action of Metformin?
a. decrease intestinal glucose absorption
b. increase sensitivity to insulin
c. decrease hepatic glucose production
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above: decrease intestinal glucose absorption, increase sensitivity to insulin, & decrease hepatic glucose production

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48
Q

What is the medication effectiveness of propranolol? SATA
a. decrease in BP
b. prevention of MI
c. decrease tremors
d. decrease in GI pain and irritation

A

a. decrease in BP
b. prevention of MI
c. decrease tremors

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49
Q

What is a common side effect of Albuterol?
a. paradoxical bronchospasm
b. diarrhea
c. seizures
d. vision loss

A

a. paradoxical bronchospasm

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50
Q

What is the therapeutic use of albuterol?
a. bronchodilation
b. anticoagulant
c. antiarrhythmic
d. PPI

A

a. bronchodilation

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51
Q

What medication is a contraindication to nitroglycerin?
a. hydrochloroquinone
b. methylprednisolone
c. phenazopyridine
d. erectile dysfunction drugs

A

d. erectile dysfunction drugs

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52
Q

What is the classification of Ondansetron?
a. antihypertensive
b. antiarrthymia
c. antiemetic
d. antiulcer agent

A

c. antiemetic

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53
Q

Which of the following drugs has a therapeutic effect that prevents thromboembolic event?
a. Warfarin
b. Amlodipine
c. Nitroglycerine
d. Clopidogrel

A

a. Warfarin

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54
Q

When taking iron supplements SATA:
a. one hour before or 2 hours after meal
b. full glass of water/juice
c. no caffeine
d. carry ID card saying you are on iron supplements

A

a. one hour before or 2 hours after meal
b. full glass of water/juice
c. no caffeine

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55
Q

What is the expected outcome for Valproate?
a. decreased fever
b. decreased sense of anxiety
c. decreased BP
d. decreased seizure activity

A

d. decreased seizure activity

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56
Q

Before administering digoxin, the nurse should complete which task?
a. obtain an ECG
b. count apical pulse for 1 minute
c. take temperature
d. obtain I/O

A

b. count apical pulse for 1 minute

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57
Q

What serious adverse reaction can occur with the loop diuretic Furosemide?
a. Stevens-Johnsons syndrome
b. GI bleeding
c. HTN
d. Bradycardia

A

a. Stevens-Johnsons syndrome

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58
Q

If a patient is taking an ACE inhibitor, the nurse should monitor for signs of angioedema which include?
a. vomiting
b. dyspnea
c. constipation
d. epistaxis

A

b. dyspnea

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59
Q

What is the unlabeled use for propranolol?
a. PTSD
b. edema
c. HTN
d. dizziness

A

a. PTSD

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60
Q

Ace inhibitors often end in?
a. -ale
b. -olol
c. -pril
d. -ide

A

c. -pril

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61
Q

What is a side effect for phenytoin?
a. suicidal thoughts
b. dry mouth
c. blood in urine
d. tremors

A

a. suicidal thoughts

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62
Q

Which drug is used to reverse the effects of an opioid overdose?
a. aspirin
b. advil
c. naloxone
d. odansetron

A

c. naloxone

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63
Q

A patient with ______, should stop taking NSAIDS:
a. peptic ulcers
b. headaches
c. cramps
d. nausea

A

a. peptic ulcers

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64
Q

Which is not one of the rights of medication administration?
a. right patient
b. right time
c. right attitude
d. right documentation

A

c. right attitude

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65
Q

Tylenol is classified as:
a. non opioid analgesic
b. opioid analgesic
c. hypoglycemic
d. diuretic

A

a. non opioid analgesic

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66
Q

Your patient is on the medication lithium for bipolar I disorder. What major side effect should you monitor the patient for?
a. cough
b. hypothermia
c. seizures
d. pulmonary edema

A

c. seizures

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67
Q

When administering the opioid Morphine to a patient, it is given in doses of:
a. 2-5 mg every 3-4 hours
b. 10-12 mg every 4 hours
c. 1-2 mg every 8 hours
d. 25 mg every 6 hours

A

a. 2-5 mg every 3-4 hours

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68
Q

If you are treating a patient that has renal failure, what type of pain medications should you avoid?
a. opioids
b. NSAIDs
c. nonopioids
d. short-acting analgesics

A

b. NSAIDs

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69
Q

A common side effect of ACE inhibitors is:
a. suicidal thoughts
b. toxic epidermal necrosis
c. HF
d. cough

A

d. cough

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70
Q

Which of the following is an action of the drug metformin?
a. decreases hepatic glucose production
b. limits seizure propagation by altering ion transport
c. inhibits transport of calcium into myocardial and vascular smooth muscle cells
d. prevent chronic asthma

A

a. decreases hepatic glucose production

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71
Q

Which of the following are common side effects when taking the drug phenytoin SATA:
a. drowsiness
b. increased suicidal thoughts
c. ataxia
d. dry mouth

A

b. increased suicidal thoughts
c. ataxia

72
Q

Samuel, a 65-year-old patient comes into the hospital for an anginal attack. Which of the following is an important nursing intervention when administering nitroglycerin?
a. if the patient has more pain, apply another transdermal patch and keep the others on
b. don’t wash the skin after removing a transdermal patch
c. remove the transdermal patch 10-12 hours every night to prevent tolerance
d. monitor BP only after administration

A

c. remove the transdermal patch 10-12 hours every night to prevent tolerance

73
Q

How can Ondansetron be administered? SATA
a. PO
b. IV
c. Subcutaneous
d. IM

A

a. PO
b. IV
d. IM

74
Q

Albuterol can be given in all but which of these forms:
a. extended release
b. inhalation
c. intravenously
d. orally

A

c. intravenously

75
Q

A side effect given off by omeprazole is:
a. bloody stools
b. change in stomach pH
c. thirst
d. constipation

A

a. bloody stools

76
Q

The classification of digoxin is:
a. antithrombic
b. nitrates
c. antiplatelet agent
d. cardiac glycosides

A

d. cardiac glycosides

77
Q

What decreases the renin angiotensin aldosterone system?
a. angiotensin 2 receptor antagonists
b. beta blockers
c. ACE inhibitors
d. propranolol

A

c. ACE inhibitors

78
Q

Orthostatic hypotension is a common side effect in which of these drugs SATA?
a. ACE inhibitors
b. anticoagulants
c. beta blockers
d. calcium channel blockers
e. antidiarrheal
f. diuretics

A

a. ACE inhibitors
c. beta blockers
d. calcium channel blockers
f. diuretics

79
Q

What is the effect of beta blockers?
a. relief of diarrhea
b. relief of symptoms associated with allergies
c. decreases BP and HR
d. prevents constipation

A

c. decreases BP and HR

80
Q

ACE inhibitors end in what?
a. -olol
b. -pril
c. -statin
d. -ide

A

b. -pril

81
Q

What is the therapeutic levels for digoxin?
a. 0.2-0.5 ng/mL
b. 0.5-2 ng/mL
c. 1.0-1.8 ng/mL
d. 2.0-5.0 ng/mL

A

b. 0.5-2 ng/mL

82
Q

What is the therapeutic effect of montelukast?
a. decreased incidence and severity of nausea and vomiting
b. decreased frequency and severity of acute asthma attacks
c. laxative action
d. protects ulcers with subsequent healing

A

b. decreased frequency and severity of acute asthma attacks

83
Q

Which of these is a platelet aggregation inhibitor?
a. albuterol
b. montelukast
c. clopidogrel
d. ondansetron

A

c. clopidogrel

84
Q

Which of these is a side effect of Sennosides? SATA
a. cramping
b. bruising
c. diarrhea
d. headaches

A

a. cramping
c. diarrhea

85
Q

Amlodipine manages what?
a. constipation
b. HTN
c. migraines
d. hypercholesterolemia

A

b. HTN

86
Q

What is the route of insulin glargine:
a. subcutaneous
b. oral
c. IV
d. sublingual

A

a. subcutaneous

87
Q

What is the classification of heparin:
a. antihypertension
b. anticoagulants
c. antidiabetic
d. laxative

A

b. anticoagulants

88
Q

What is the therapeutic effects of furosemide:
a. diuretics
b. decrease BP
c. prevention of gastric ulceration
d. a and b

A

d. a and b: diuretics & decrease BP

89
Q

Other name for Metformin:
a. skelaxin
b. digoxin
c. glucophage
d. advil

A

c. glucophage

90
Q

Which of the following is an ACE inhibitor?
a. albuterol
b. afatinib
c. captopril
d. spironolactone

A

c. captopril

91
Q

What is the pharmacological action of propranolol?
a. adrenergic
b. beta blocker
c. dopamine agonist
d. opioid agonist

A

b. beta blocker

92
Q

Which of the following is not a way to increase bowel regulation?
a. increase fiber intake
b. increase activity
c. decrease fiber intake
d. increase fluid intake

A

c. decrease fiber intake

93
Q

What is the pharmacologic category for montelukast?
a. anticoagulants
b. antiangials
c. leukotriene antagonists
d. adrenergics

A

c. leukotriene antagonists

94
Q

At what BP would you hold digoxin in an adult?
a. <60
b. >60
c. >80
d. <80

A

a. <60

95
Q

When administering propranolol through an IV, what should be done before?
a. nothing, there is no importance
b. the patient should eat
c. the patient should drink a lot of water
d. have a second practitioner check the original order, calculations, and infusion pump

A

d. have a second practitioner check the original order, calculations, and infusion pump

96
Q

A client forgot to take their levothyroxine when directed. the client should:
a. notify health care professional
b. take the missed dose as soon as possible unless it is almost time for next dose
c. skip the dose
d. stop taking levothyroxine all together

A

b. take the missed dose as soon as possible unless it is almost time for next dose

97
Q

What is a side effect of heparin?
a. nausea
b. diarrhea
c. bleeding
d. bronchospasms

A

c. bleeding

98
Q

What is the therapeutic classification of omeprazole?
a. antiemetics
b. antiulcer agents
c. opioid analgesics
d. antidiabetics

A

b. antiulcer agents

99
Q

A patient is taking digoxin to slow his HR down. The nurse suggests that he take his oral medication:
a. when awakening
b. by itself
c. in the evening
d. with meals

A

d. with meals

100
Q

If a patient overdoses on morphine, the nurse would give him ___ as the antidote to reverse respiratory depression or coma.
a. naloxone
b. atropine
c. vitamin K
d. physostigmine

A

a. naloxone

101
Q

The nurse is administering lithium to her patient. the nurse knows that lithium is used to treat which of the following disorders?
a. HTN
b. nausea
c. thyroid disorders
d. bipolar disorder

A

d. bipolar disorder

102
Q

Common side effects of iron supplements include SATA:
a. constipation
b. drowsiness
c. upset stomach
d. nausea

A

a. constipation
c. upset stomach
d. nausea

103
Q

The nurse is administering penicillin to a patient who has tested positive for strep throat. the nurse knows to look for which of the following adverse effects as a sign of an acute allergic reaction?
a. blurred vision
b. tinnitus
c. skin rash/hives
d. vomiting

A

c. skin rash/hives

104
Q

Propranolol is classified as having which of the following pharmacological actions?
a. beta blocker
b. ACE inhibitor
c. loop diuretic
d. PPI

A

a. beta blocker

105
Q

What is the pharmacological action of metformin?
a. biguanides
b. benzodiazepines
c. nitrates
d. digitalis glycosides

A

a. biguanides

106
Q

What is the evaluation of medication effectiveness of senna?
a. decreased GI pain and irritation
b. healing of ulcers
c. soft, formed bowel movements
d. prevention of nausea and vomiting

A

c. soft, formed bowel movements

107
Q

What is the therapeutic use of levothyroxine?
a. suppression of seizure activity
b. decreased frequency of migraines
c. replacement in hypothyroidism to restore normal hormonal balance
d. treatment of ulcers

A

c. replacement in hypothyroidism to restore normal hormonal balance

108
Q

Prior to administration of levothyroxine, which of the following should the nurse complete? SATA
a. assess degree of numbness in affected area
b. monitor for intensified pain
c. assess weight
d. assess apical pulse
e. assess mental status

A

a. assess degree of numbness in affected area
b. monitor for intensified pain
d. assess apical pulse

109
Q

Which of the following is a common adverse effect of the bronchodilator albuterol?
a. nausea
b. vomiting
c. stomach cramps
d. chest pain

A

d. chest pain

110
Q

When teaching a patient about their new medication montelukast, which of the following statements made by the patient would indicate they are in need of further teaching?
a. “I can skip a dose if I do not feel asthma symptoms”
b. “I should take the medication 2 hours before exercising”
c. “I should not double the dosage”
d. “this medication may increase suicidal thoughts”

A

a. “I can skip a dose if I do not feel asthma symptoms”

111
Q

Which of the following is the most serious side effect of the mood stabilizing drug lithium?
a. fatigue
b. headache
c. seizures
d. abdominal pain

A

c. seizures

112
Q

When educating a patient about Regular Insulin, you should include which instruction:
a. shake the vial vigorously
b. expect the solution to appear cloudy
c. store unopened vials at room temperature
d. inject the insulin subcutaneously

A

d. inject the insulin subcutaneously

113
Q

Which of the following medications would you administer for an overdose of acetaminophen?
a. naloxone
b. vitamin K
c. acetylcysteine
d. atropine

A

c. acetylcysteine

114
Q

Select all the early manifestations of lithium toxicity:
a. nausea
b. hypotension
c. renal failure
d. muscle weakness

A

a. nausea
d. muscle weakness

115
Q

Which of the following describes the action of an agonist on a receptor:
a. destroys the receptor
b. competes with a receptor
c. activates a receptor
d. blocks a receptor

A

c. activates a receptor

116
Q

Which of the following is an antianginal and nitrate?
a. iron
b. ACE inhibitors
c. nitroglycerin
d. heparin

A

c. nitroglycerin

117
Q

What is nitroglycerin’s action?
a. dilates the bronchi
b. reduce blood glucose
c. reduce nausea
d. dilates coronary arteries

A

d. dilates coronary arteries

118
Q

What is the therapeutic action of phenytoin?
a. antidiabetic
b. anticonvulsant
c. mood stabilizer
d. antianxiety agent

A

b. anticonvulsant

119
Q

What does a patient need to avoid while taking angiotensin-converting enzymes?
a. salt subsitutes
b. foods high in potassium
c. foods high in sodium
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above: salt substitutes, foods high in potassium, & foods high in sodium

120
Q

How would you evaluate the medical effectiveness of metformin?
a. assess serum electrolytes, ketones, glucose, blood pH, lactate, pyruvate levels, monitor serum glucose
b. check for resolution of hypothyroidism and normalization of hormone levels
c. check patient for pain reduction
d. assess patient alertness

A

a. assess serum electrolytes, ketones, glucose, blood pH, lactate, pyruvate levels, monitor serum glucose

121
Q

What are the drug natural interactions for phenytoin?
a. echinacea
b. St. Johns Wort
c. valerian
d. Jeff Salernos Wart

A

b. St. Johns Wort

122
Q

What type of diuretic is furosemide?
a. loop
b. potassium sparing
c. thiazide
d. hypertensive

A

a. loop

123
Q

Which of the following are complications of Warfarin? SATA
a. bleeding
b. cramps
c. fever
d. nausea
e. all of the above

A

e. all of the above: bleeding, cramps, fever, nausea

124
Q

What is the category status for the drug Omeprazole?
a. laxative
b. antiulcer agent
c. anti-heartburn
d. antianemic

A

b. antiulcer agent

125
Q

What route is amlodipine taken?
a. PO
b. IV
c. IM
d. None of the above

A

a. PO

126
Q

What is the category class of iron?
a. antiulcer
b. laxative
c. antianemic
d. lipid-lowering agent

A

c. antianemic

127
Q

When a company develops a new drug and gives it an official name, this name is the:
a. brand name
b. generic name
c. prototype
d. prescription

A

b. generic name

128
Q

What is the maximal response a drug can produce?
a. potency
b. agonist
c. efficacy
d. bioavailability

A

c. efficacy

129
Q

What is/are the major adverse/side effects of regular insulin? SATA
a. hypoglycemia
b. hypokalemia
c. drowsiness
d. anaphylaxis

A

a. hypoglycemia
b. hypokalemia
d. anaphylaxis

130
Q

Which of the following drugs can suppress seizure activity and decrease the frequency of migraine headaches?
a. glipizide
b. hydrochlorothiazide
c. atropine
d. valproate

A

d. valproate

131
Q

What is the pharmacological class of metformin?
a. benzodiazepines
b. anticonvulsants
c. biguanide
d. beta blocker

A

c. biguanide

132
Q

Which is the only type of insulin that can be given IV?
a. regular
b. NPH
c. long-acting
d. rapid-acting

A

a. regular

133
Q

What is the therapeutic range for lithium?
a. 3.0-4.6 mEq/L
b. 0.5-2.0 mEq/L
c. 0.2-.07 mEq/L
d. 2.0-3.5 mEq/L

A

b. 0.5-2.0 mEq/L

134
Q

Which drug is the antidote of alprazolam?
a. physostigmine
b. protamine sulfate
c. flumazenil
d. acetylcysteine

A

c. flumazenil

135
Q

What is a severe adverse effect of iron?
a. seizures
b. dry mouth
c. edema
d. serotonin syndrome

A

a. seizures

136
Q

What does it mean when a medication has a half-life?
a. it only lasts for 30 mins after the medication is given
b. how long it takes for half of the dose to be eliminated from the blood stream
c. it is the peak of how effective the medicine is
d. drug is greatly reduced before it reaches the systemic circulation

A

b. how long it takes for half of the dose to be eliminated from the blood stream

137
Q

A patient with HTN is taking an ACE inhibitor to lower his BP. What should the nurse tell the patient to avoid in his diet?
a. vinegar
b. apples
c. salt substitutions
d. tomatoes

A

c. salt substitutions

138
Q

When should a patient taking omeprazole be administered the medication?
a. before bedtime
b. after dinner
c. in the morning on an empty stomach
d. with the patient’s lunch meal

A

c. in the AM on an empty stomach

139
Q

The nurse should teach a patient to take their own pulse with which medication?
a. digoxin
b. lithium
c. montelukast
d. phenytoin

A

a. digoxin

140
Q

What is levothyroxine’s pharmacologic classification?
a. thyroid preparations
b. metabolic inhibitors
c. analgesic
d. loop diuretic

A

a. thyroid preparations

141
Q

What is a serious adverse reaction to penicillin?
a. liver failure
b. anaphylaxis
c. respiratory depression
d. edema

A

b. anaphylaxis

142
Q

What is the most life threatening adverse reaction while taking omeprazole?
a. chest pain
b. constipation
c. C. diff
d. acute interstitial nephritis

A

c. C. diff

143
Q

What symptom would alert the nurse to hold albuterol and notify a healthcare professional immediately?
a. insomnia
b. paradoxical bronchospasm
c. nausea
d. headache

A

b. paradoxical bronchospasm

144
Q

What is one therapeutic use for nitroglycerine?
a. relief or prevention of anginal attacks
b. diuresis and mobilization of excess fluid
c. decrease nausea and vomiting
d. relief of anxiety

A

a

145
Q

What classification of drug is penicillin?
a. antiarrhythmic
b. anticonvulsant
c. anti-ineffective
d. mood stabilizer

A

c

146
Q

What is the peak range of regular insulin?
a. 30-2.5 hours
b. 1-3 hours
c. 6-14 hours
d. 1-5 hours

A

d

147
Q

What is pharmacodynamics?
a. the medical reference summarizing standards of drug purity, strength and directions for synthesis
b. the drugs actions at receptor site and the physiological, chemical, and behavioral effects produced by these actions
c. the maximum response that a drug can produce
d. movements of the drugs throughout the body

A

b

148
Q

Warfarin is an anticoagulant that:
a. prevents the structure of blood clots from being formed
b. dissolves the blood clots that have already formed
c. dilates the coronary arteries in the body
d. is given for as an antiarrhythmic for two rhythm disturbances

A

a

149
Q

Which route should lithium be administered by?
a. IV
b. IM
c. PO
d. sublingual

A

c

150
Q

What is alprazolam therapeutic use?
a. prevent thrombus formation
b. relief of anxiety
c. decrease risk of stroke
d. increase urinary output

A

b

151
Q

What is the expected pharmacological action of propranolol?
a. block stimulation of beta1
b. alter water & electrolyte transport in the large intestine
c. block stimulation of beta2
d. both a and c are correct

A

d

152
Q

What drugs interact with tetracycline? SATA
a. warfarin
b. antacids
c. tamsulosin
d. barbiturates

A

a, b, d

153
Q

What should you monitor when given a patient clopidogrel?
a. signs of thrombotic thrombolytic purpura
b. bleeding during therapy
c. CBC with differential and platelet count
d. all the above

A

d

154
Q

Patients should avoid what drink while taking alprazolam?
a. water
b. grapefruit juice
c. green tea
d. milk

A

b

155
Q

the drug ondansetron action is?
a. decrease constipation
b. decrease HTN
c. blocks effects of serotonin
d. decrease glucose levels

A

c

156
Q

What is a high alert nursing implication for morphine?
a. assessing type of pain
b. assess LOC, BP, pulse, & respiration
c. assess bowel function
d. assess patient for confusion

A

b

157
Q

What is montelukast used for?
a. prevention and tx of asthma
b. lower pain level
c. help with depression
d. improve wakefulness in patient

A

a

158
Q

How would you teach a patient how to prep an inhaler?
a. tell them to spray the inhaler 4 times and discard after 150 puffs
b. tell them to shake the inhaler for 5 seconds
c. tell them to spray the inhaler 4 times and discard after 200 puffs
d. you do not need to prime it

A

c

159
Q

Advise patient to avoid taking antacids or antidiarrheals for how long after taking digoxin?
a. 30 minutes
b. 2 hours
c. 4 hours
d. 3 hours

A

b

160
Q

At what point does atropine hit its peak for IM injections?
a. 15-50 minutes
b. 50-90 minutes
c. 2 hours
d. 15-30 minutes

A

a

161
Q

The health care provider is planning to discontinue a client’s beta blocker. What instruction should the nurse give the client regarding the beta blocker?
a. the beta blocker should be abruptly stopped when another cardiac drug is prescribed
b. the beta blocker should not be abruptly stopped; the dose should be tapered down
c. the beta blocker dose should be maintained while taking another antianginal drug
d. half the beta blocker dose should be taken for the next several weeks

A

b

162
Q

Name a desired outcome of the drug phenytoin:
a. decrease symptoms of PTSD
b. resolution of signs of infection
c. decrease or cessation of seizures without excessive sedation
d. prevention or relief of bronchospasm

A

c

163
Q

The nurse acknowledges that the first-line drug for treating this client’s BP might be which drug?
a. diuretic
b. alpha blocker
c. ACE inhibitor
d. Alpha/beta blocker

A

a

164
Q

A client tells a nurse, “I don’t get the same relief as I used to with this pain medication.” The nurse should recognize that the client is experiencing which of the following?
a. drug addiction
b. physical dependence
c. drug tolerance
d. psychological dependence

A

c

165
Q

What route is montelukast administered?
a. IV
b. IM
c. PO
d. SubQ

A

c

166
Q

What is an adverse reaction to montelukast? SATA
a. stroke
b. Stevens-Johnsons syndrome
c. toxic epidermal necrolysis
d. suicidal thoughts/behaviors

A

b, c, d

167
Q

Which of the following is not a side effect of alprazolam?
a. dizziness
b. drowsiness
c. insomnia
d. lethargy

A

c

168
Q

What is the therapeutic effect of ondansetron?
a. healing of duodenal ulcers
b. decreased incidence and severity of nausea and vomiting
c. increased production of urine
d. laxative action

A

b

169
Q

What is the most common side effect of insulin?
a. hyperglycemia
b. hypoglycemia
c. infection
d. convulsions

A

b

170
Q

What route can ondansetron be given? SATA
a. PO
b. IV
c. rectal
d. IM

A

a, b, d

171
Q

What is an antidote for atropine?
a. flumazenil
b. naloxone
c. physostigmine
d. protamine sulfate

A

c

172
Q

When administering Spironolactone, when is the best time to administer it?
a. evening
b. noon
c. at bedtime
d. AM

A

d

173
Q

What is the pharmacologic classification of amlodipine?
a. beta blocker
b. 5-HT3 antagonist
c. nonopioid analgesic
d. calcium channel blocker

A

d

174
Q

What is the administration route of penicillin in adults?
a. PO
b. IV
c. SubQ
d. sublingual

A

b

175
Q

What drug is given to treat atrial flutters?
a. digoxin
b. propranolol
c. ibuprofen
d. lithium

A

a

176
Q

Metronidazole is effective in the treatment of SATA:
a. vaginal trichomoniasis
b. giardiasis
c. amebiasis
d. bacterial vaginosis

A

a, b, c, d

Pharmacology (2 decks)

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