Sample Q 2018b Flashcards

1
Q

What are the eye diseases for which retinal implants are being developed?

A

RETINITIS PIGMENTOSA (RP)

  • an inherited visual disorder that results in tunnel vision initially and eventually cause complete blindness
  • progressive degeneration of rods (and eventually cones)

AGE-RELATED MACULAR DEGENERATION (AMD)

  • damage to photoreceptors in the macula (high resolution central vision)
  • we rely on our macula to do most tasks eg. recognise faces, drive, etc
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2
Q

What are the common types of retinal implants (depending upon their placements)?

A

EPIRETINAL PLACEMENT
- electrodes placed on top of the ganglion cells on the inner surface of the eye

SUBRETINAL PLACEMENT
- electrode placed where the phororeceptors were, on the outer layer of the retina

SUPRACHOROIDAL PLACEMENT
- electrode placed between the sclera (outer protective layer of the eye) and the choroid (vascular layer)

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3
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of the different retinal implants?

A

EPIRETINAL PLACEMENT
Advantages:
• Very close contact between electrodes and retinal
ganglion cells.
• It potentially offers higher visual acuity compared to
suprachoriodal/subretinal placement because the
electrodes are so close to the target tissue.
Disadvantages:
• Surgery is more complex than for suprachoroidal as a
full vitrectomy is required.
• All components are inside the eye, making removal
difficult if necessary.
• Placement has proved so far to be less stable over
time.

SUBRETINAL PLACEMENT
Advantages:
• implants are stable
Disadvantages:
• Retinal ganglion cells are a long way from the electrodes, so spatial resolution is poor.
• Surgery requires a retinal detachment (using air) and re-attachment. Very complex and dangerous.

SUPRACHOROIDAL PLACEMENT
Advantages:
• the surgical procedure is short and placement is stable over time
Disadvantages:
• the retinal ganglion cells are a long way from the electrodes, so spatial resolution is poor.

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4
Q

Describe the electoretinogram and its potential uses.

A

ELECTRORETINOGRAM (ERG):

  • measure entire retina’s electrical response to light
  • bright flash ERG can identify diseases affecting the whole retina
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5
Q

How do the electroretinogram and the visual evoked potential differ?

A

ELECTRORETINOGRAM (ERG):
- measure entire retina’s electrical response to light

ELECTROENCEPHALOGRAM (EEG):
- measure electrical activity of our brains to various types of stimuli
VISUAL EVOKED POTENTIALS:
- the potential measured from EEG that correspond with visual system
- record how well light gets to the ipsilateral and contralateral side of brain (measure integrity of visual pathways up to V1)

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6
Q

Describe similarities between the retina and brain that may make it a useful place to study the central nervous system.

A
  • retina is part of the CNS because it’s an embryological extension of the diencephalon
  • retina is highly metabolically active like the brain (photoreceptors are actually the most metabolically active tissue by weight in the body)
  • retina contains glia and uses neurotransmitters/ receptors like glutamate, glycine, dopamine, NMDA and GABA
  • retina experiences similar neurodegenerative diseases due to aging
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7
Q

Describe the two-stage decision-making model of Carpenter, Reddi &
Anderson (2009) and compare it with single-stage decision making models.

A

RANDOM WALK:

  • detection of stimulus
  • accumulation of noisy sensory info

LATER (Linear Approach to Threshold with Ergodic (random) Rate:

  • decision based on evidence, which allows it to progress
    1. expectation (starting point)
    2. rate of information arrival (steepness)
    3. Urgency (threshold line)
  • once the 1st stage finishes, it provides a constant input signal to the 2nd stage
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8
Q

What determines the limits to spatial resolving capacity of the visual system?

A

SPATIAL RESOLVING CAPACITY:

  • resolution limit at the fovea is around 40-60 cycles per degree
  • Retinal factor- as you move away from the centre of the eye, this gets exceptionally worse because the photoreceptors are less dense

Defocus:
- Optical factor- the amount of discrepancy there is with regards to light focusing on the retina

Sampling:

  • discrete measurement (in space or time) of a continuous function
  • increased sampling frequency= more faithful representation of original signal
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9
Q

Describe the relevance of ‘Nyquist limit’ to perception of gratings that are coarser or finer than the resolution limit.

A

Aliasing:

  • results from inadequate sampling of the signal (eg. undersampling)
  • signal reconstructed will differ significantly from original, continuous signal

NYQUIST LIMIT:
- aliasing can be avoided by remaining below the Nyquist limit
f=N/2 or N=2f
- Sampling frequency (N) must be at least twice the highest spatial frequency (f) to faithfully represent the signal

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10
Q

Describe the pupillary light reflex pathway and the neurotransmitters involved.

A

Pupillary constriction

Pupillary dilation

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11
Q

Describe the clinical picture and the basic defect in internuclear ophthalmoplegia.

A

MEDIAL LONGITUDINAL FOSCICULUS (MLF)
- tract bringing signals from the 6th cranial nerve (abducens) nucleus to the contralateral 3rd cranial nerve (oculomotor) such that both eyes can move in synchrony

INTERNUCLEAR OPHTHALMOPLEGIA (INO)

  • when the MLF is lesioned on one side, then he affected individual will have trouble adducting their eyes on that side
  • the eye on the other side can still adduct and vergence can still occur in both eyes
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12
Q

What are the different types of eye movements and their functions?

A

Adduction- towards the nose
Abduction- away from the nose
Intorsion- rotation towards the midline (nose)
Extorsion- rotation away from the midline
Elevation- upwards
Depression- downwards

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13
Q

What are the different types of eye movements and their functions?

A
  • Adduction- towards the nose
  • Abduction- away from the nose
  • Intorsion- rotation towards the midline (nose)
  • Extorsion- rotation away from the midline
  • Elevation- upwards
  • Depression- downwards
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14
Q

What are the extra-ocular muscles that control each eye movement and what are their respective innervations?

A

• MEDIAL RECTUS

  • adductor
  • 3rd cranial nerve

• LATERAL RECTUS

  • abductor
  • 6th cranial nerve

• SUPERIOR RECTUS

  • elevator
  • 3rd cranial nerve

• INFERIOR RECTUS

  • depressor
  • 3rd cranial nerve

• SUPERIOR OBLIQUE

  • intorsion
  • 4th cranial nerve

• INFERIOR OBLIQUE

  • extorsion
  • 3rd cranial nerve
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15
Q

Describe the neural control of saccades.

A

Superior colliculus- initiates saccades and orientates our gaze

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16
Q

Describe the vestibular sense organs and visual-vestibular interactions.

A

VESTIBULAR SENSE ORGANS
Two types of chambers (5 total), protected in the petrous portion of the bone (dense part of skull):

• 2 OTOLITH ORGANS (ear stones):

  • sacule and utricle- fluid filled chambers at the centre of the vestibular labyrinth
  • as you tilt your head, the force on the otoliths changes and puts different forces on the hair cells

• 3 SEMICIRCULAR CANALS:

  • 3 long, paired semicircular tubes containing endolymph that senses angular acceleration ie. head rotation
  • ampulla- a bulge at the end of each canal that senses rotation
  • cupula- sits on the crista (thick zone of hair cells in the ampulla)
  • when you turn your head, the fluid pushes on the cupulas, hence the hair cells and senses angular acceleration