Sample Exam #1 Flashcards

Practice AICP Questions

1
Q

The planning director of a small city is worried about gentrification in a historically diverse neighborhood where property values are rising quickly, displacing many of the long-term residents. Which of the following would be the least effective method of addressing gentrification?

a. Encourage equitable development.

b. Conduct a social impact assessment.

c. Distribute parks more evenly throughout the city

d. Take a comprehensive approach to mitigation.

A

While the equitable distribution of parks is important, it is a better method for addressing the effects of environmental racism than the effects of gentrification. Taking a comprehensive approach to mitigation by conducting a social impact assessment and encouraging equitable development are best suited to addressing gentrification in the neighborhood.

The correct answer is: Distribute parks more evenly throughout the city

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1
Q

The Planning Director has asked you to oversee a new project to develop additional sidewalks in a previously un-walkable neighborhood. How does social justice affect this area of planning?

I. Elderly populations are at a greater risk of being killed by a car while walking
II. Native American men are four times more likely to be killed while walking than white men
III. Minority households are more likely to be without a vehicle and thus walk more
IV. Children are likely to use the sidewalks to walk to school

A

The disparity in elderly and minority fatalities is important to consider in overseeing this project because it directly pertains to social justice: the ability of people to realize their potential in the communities they live in. That children will use the sidewalks is an important consideration, but not as directly connected to social justice.

The correct answer is:
I, II, and III

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2
Q

Which Supreme Court Case found that a regulation is a taking if it can be shown that it deprives a property of all economic viability and fails to advance a legitimate governmental interest?

A

In Agins v. City of Tiburon (1980), the Supreme Court held that the test for determining whether a zoning ordinance will be considered a taking is the “substantially advances” a legitimate state interest test. This test has since been overruled by the Lingle v. Chevron (2005) case finding that the “substantially advances” test would no longer be used to determine regulatory takings, reverting to the precedent of Penn Central v. New York City (1978) of a “reasonable return” on investment.
The correct answer is: Agins v. City of Tiburon

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3
Q

Which statement is not true regarding the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)?
Select one:

a. There is no significant parallel between the ADA and the Civil Rights Act.

b. ADA disabilities include both mental and physical medical conditions.

c. It prohibits disability discrimination in all public housing.

d. It is a civil rights law providing similar protections against discrimination to Americans with disabilities as the Civil Rights Act of 1964 did for race.

A

The ADA, passed in 1990, requires that facilities must be accessible to the public, including public housing. It is a civil rights law in that it provides similar protections against discrimination to Americans with disabilities (both mental and physical) as the Civil Rights Act of 1964 did for persons on the basis of race, religion, sex, national origin, and other characteristics. But unlike the Civil Rights Act, the ADA also requires covered employers to provide reasonable accommodations to employees with disabilities.

The correct answer is: There is no significant parallel between the ADA and the Civil Rights Act.

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4
Q

What percentage of U.S. citizens do not have access to broadband at home?

a. Less than 5%

b. About 25%

c. 40%

d. The SEC does not track this information

A

About a quarter of adults do not have access to broadband at home, which can prevent citizens from learning about or participating in the planning process.

The correct answer is:
About 25%

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5
Q

Clarence Perry’s Neighborhood Unit Concept proposes an ideal neighborhood that creates walkability and access. Which of the following best describes the size of the neighborhood unit?
Select one:

a. 2,500 - 5,000 residents

b. 15,000 - 20,000 residents

c. 5,000 - 9,000 residents

d. 10,000 - 15,000 residents

A

Clarence Perry’s Neighborhood Unit concept identifies 5,000-9,000 residents with a density of ten units per acre, a school at the center, and buildings around the edges for shopping.

The correct answer is: 5,000 - 9,000 residents

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6
Q

You have just received the contract to prepare a waterfront master plan for a small town along a river. As you work with the town to prepare a detailed scope of work, which of the following should you consider?

Select one:

a. Examining opportunities for public space ad access

b. Ensuring that public goals remain the primary objective

c. Building on existing assets and site contexts

d. All of these are correct

A

All of these should be considered in developing a waterfront plan. In the November 2011 issue of Planning Magazine Tim Beatley wrote a piece “On the Waterfront” discussing issues of waterfront planning.

The correct answer is: All of these are correct

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7
Q

Deaths, Births, Migration, and Fertility rates are components of which of the following population projection methods?
Select one:

a. Linear Method

b. Symptomatic Method

c. Step Down Ratio Method

d. Cohort Survival Method

A

Deaths, Births, Migration, and Fertility rates are components of Cohort Survival Method.

The correct answer is: Cohort Survival Method

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8
Q

What feature characterizes Columbia, Maryland?
Select one:

a. Self-contained villages and neighborhood clusters

b. Prior land assembly

c. Jobs-housing balance

d. All of the above

A

In 1963, the Rouse Company began the development of Columbia, Maryland. The 14,000-acre master planned development was developed to provide jobs, recreation, shopping, health care, and a mix of housing at different price points. The development was designed to create a jobs-housing balance.

The correct answer is: All of the above

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9
Q

“Our county shall include small villages surrounded by farmland, open space, and nature preserves.” This statement is an example of:
Select one:

a. Strengths Weaknesses Opportunities and Threats Analysis

b. Objective of the Comprehensive Plan

c. Text from an Ordinance

d. Community Vision Statement

A

The correct answer is a Community Vision Statement. The sentence explains what the community would like the county to look like.

The correct answer is: Community Vision Statement

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10
Q

The city plans to invest $25 million towards the redevelopment of a blighted area near Plannersville State University. The city will be acquiring land through eminent domain, clearing the sites, and installing new infrastructure. The city will then work out a deal with private developers to redevelop the sites. Citizens are concerned about the investment of this much in tax dollars for private redevelopment projects. One major concern is how the area will look when the project is complete. Which of the following planning tools would be least appropriate to use in this situation?
Select one:

a. An open data portal

b. UrbanSim

c. GIS

d. CommunityViz

A

CommunityViz and UrbanSim are 3D visualization and modeling tools. GIS is also capable of 3D visualization depending on how it’s utilized. Open data portals are about the provision of data, not 3D modeling.

The correct answer is: An open data portal

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11
Q

The city of Plannersville has recently completed the city’s comprehensive plan. What is the typical planning time period the comprehensive plan is likely to cover?
Select one:

a. 50 years

b. five years

c. ten years

d. 20 years

A

Twenty years is the typical time period for a comprehensive plan to cover. The plan is to be long range in nature (covering more than five years), however not so long that immense change is likely to occur.

The correct answer is: 20 years

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12
Q

How does the Concentric Zone Theory differ from the other theories of urban development?
Select one:

a. Concentric zones are nodes of activity

b. The use of “invasion-succession” in describing dynamics

c. Concentric zones were formed along major transportation lines

d. Land uses are based on the surrounding land values

A

The correct answer is invasion and succession. Concentric Circle theory, developed by Earnest Burgess in 1925, finds that growth happens by land uses expanding outward from one area to another. For example, downtown office towers expanding into a warehouse district.

The correct answer is: The use of “invasion-succession” in describing dynamics

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13
Q

Crime has been on the rise in the eastern part of your community. The neighborhood crime stoppers and community leaders have come together to try to come up with solutions to the problem. The neighborhood is working with the city planning department to improve the design of the neighborhood, using the Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design principles.

The plan includes:
I. Natural Surveillance
II. Territoriality
III. Connectivity to Nature
IV. Natural Access Control

Select one:

a. I and II

b. I, II, and III

c. I, II, and IV

d. I, II, III, and IV

A

The APA Policy Guide on Security reported that Crime Prevention through Environmental Design includes natural surveillance, territoriality, and natural access control.

The correct answer is: I, II, and IV

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14
Q

You work for an Affordable Housing Corporation that is building a 22-unit rowhouse development in an area consisting mostly of single-family homes. The 7.3-acre site was approved by the city and building permits were issued. Because the property was zoned to allow for multifamily housing, there were no public hearings. However, once the construction began and neighbors realized the development was creating subsidized housing, they started a petition drive asking the City Council to revoke the building permit. You are preparing a presentation to the City Council in opposition of the downzoning of the property. Which of the following legal issues should you raise?
Select one:

a. The city cannot intervene in ongoing projects of the Affordable Housing Corporation

b. The Affordable Housing Corporation has a vested right to complete the project that is underway based on city’s expectations of the property.

c. The Affordable Housing Corporation can stop the development if the community pushes back against it enough

d. The community cannot protest the development due to its zoning as multifamily housing

A

The Affordable Housing Corporation has a vested right to complete the project that is underway based on the city’s existing ordinance. If the city were to rezone the property that would interfere with the corporation’s investment expectations of the property. A vested right has occurred because the building permit was issued for the project and the property was zoned for the use which is being constructed.

The correct answer is: The Affordable Housing Corporation has a vested right to complete the project that is underway based on city’s expectations of the property.

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15
Q

A[n] ___________________ is the right to use a property owned by another person for specific purposes.
Select one:

a. Easement

b. Buffer

c. Subdivision

d. Zoning

A

An easement is the right to use a property owned by another person for specific purposes.

The correct answer is: Easement

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16
Q

Economic development typically involves collaboration among various entities. Which of the following could be involved in collaboration focused on economic development?
Select one:

a. University research parks, artist organizations and business incubators

b. University research parks and artist organizations

c. University research parks and business incubators

d. University research parks, artist organizations, defense communities, and business incubators

A

Economic Development requires collaboration among institutions focused on advancing mutual gain for the public and the private sector. Good examples of collaboration in economic development are university research parks, arts organizations, defense communities, and business incubators.

The correct answer is: University research parks, artist organizations, defense communities, and business incubators

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17
Q

Which of the following problems would most likely be addressed by a state planner?
Select one:

a. Siting a new industrial park

b. Zoning regulations for recreational vehicles

c. Economic development incentives

d. Expanding an airport

A

State planners can be involved in economic development incentives for bringing major employers to the state. State planners would not be involved in zoning regulations, and the siting of an industrial park and expansion of an airport are typically the jurisdiction of local governments.

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18
Q

The city of Plannersville is a growing city of 5,000 people. You have just been hired as the Director of Economic Development. Your first task is to develop an economic development strategy. Below is a list of suggestions you have received from your Economic Development Task Force. Which of the following would be the most successful strategy?
Select one:

a. Work with existing businesses to expand

b. Attract a major employer with more than 1,000 employees

c. Development of a research park

d. Attract small start-up biotechnology companies

A

Existing businesses have a commitment and ties to the community. The other suggestions are unlikely to be successful because of the high cost (developing a research park), inappropriate scale (attract a major employer with more than 1,000 employees) or likely do not build on an existing business base (attract small start-up biotech companies).

The correct answer is: Work with existing businesses to expand

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19
Q

Which of the following would least describe effective neighborhood planning?
Select one:

a. Comprehensive plans provide the framework for neighborhood planning and should be done within the context of the broader community

b. A comprehensive plan should reflect neighborhood plans and neighborhood plans should support the broader needs of the community

c. Neighborhood should be encouraged to seek the best organizational structure to achieve their goals and objectives

d. Neighborhoods should focus on the needs inside their neighborhood without consideration of what occurs beyond their boundaries

A

The APA Policy Guide on Neighborhood Collaborative Planning identifies A, B, and C as policies that should be pursued in neighborhood planning.

The correct answer is: Neighborhoods should focus on the needs inside their neighborhood without consideration of what occurs beyond their boundaries

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20
Q

___________ is the discharge of pollutants into the environment in an untreated, partially treated, or completely treated state.
Select one:

a. Effluent

b. Emission

c. Stormwater

d. Pollution

A

Effluent is the discharge of pollutants into the environment in an untreated, partially treated, or completely treated state.

The correct answer is: Effluent

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21
Q

What is the name of a fund established to manage the revenues and expenditures of a minor league baseball park?
Select one:

a. Capital improvement fund

b. Bond fund

c. Enterprise fund

d. General fund

A

The correct answer is enterprise fund. An enterprise fund is an account that manages the revenues and expenditures of a self-sufficient activity such as a minor league baseball park, parking garage, or zoo.

The correct answer is: Enterprise fund

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22
Q

The U.S. Department of Transportation requires consideration of environmental justice issues during the preparation of an Environmental Impact Statement. What might this entail?

I. Identification of minority or low-income populations
II. Ensuring an inclusive public participation process
III. Numeric analysis of public health data
IV. Alternatives and Mitigation
Select one:

a. I, II, III and IV

b. I and III only

c. I, II and III only

d. II and IV only

A

Under the U.S. Department of Transportation’s process, consideration of environmental justice issues must be considered during preparation of an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS). General principles required as part of the EIS analysis are: Identification of Minority or Low-Income Populations, Public Participation, Numeric Analysis (that agencies should consider relevant demographic, public health and industry data), and Alternatives and Mitigation.

The correct answer is: I, II, III and IV

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23
Q

A request for a rezoning has been submitted to allow for a medical waste disposal facility in a low-income neighborhood in the community. You are aware this will be a controversial rezoning. Which of the following would be the best course of action?
Select one:

a. Host a neighborhood meeting allowing community members to learn about the project in advance of a public hearing

b. Ask the police to attend the public hearing to ensure all participants behave in a civil manner

c. Tell the property owner that there will likely be angry residents and that they should go out into the community and talk to neighborhood leaders

d. Prepare a presentation for the public hearing that clearly explains the pros and cons of the zoning application.

A

For a complicated and controversial zoning case it can be wise to hold community meetings in advance of any public hearing to allow the community to learn about the proposed project. This meeting would include both the property owner or developer as well as neighborhood residents. While Answers B and C are also reasonable, A offers the best approach.

The correct answer is: Host a neighborhood meeting allowing community members to learn about the project in advance of a public hearing

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24
Q

Which of the following is not a foundational environmental justice policy measure?

a. pro-bono planning solutions

b. deferring to local, indigenous planning knowledge

c. collaborative hyperlocal problem solving

d. pursuing private-public partnerships (PPPs)

A

While private-public partnerships can be part of justice-oriented planning, PPPs are not inherently beneficial to underserved communities experiencing environmental justice issues. The four recommended environmental justice policies are as follows: encourage triple bottom-line outcomes; give deference to local knowledge; encourage collaborative problem-solving; organize and support pro-bono planning efforts.

The correct answer is:
pursuing private-public partnerships (PPPs)

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25
Q

Question 26
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Question text
The Planning Director of a large city resigns to start a small consulting firm. After becoming frustrated with the way the planning commission votes, the former director asked to be appointed to the commission. The City Council approves the appointment. Is this a violation of the AICP Code of Ethics?
Select one:

a. Is against the law.

b. Violates the AICP Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct

c. Violates the APA Ethical Principles

d. Does not violate the AICP Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct

A

The correct answer is that it does not violate the code of ethics. The AICP Code of Ethics does not preclude a former public-sector planner from running for elected office.

The correct answer is: Does not violate the AICP Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct

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26
Q

You are a planner in a large city and you have been made aware that your boss has illegally disclosed information to a community organization. Which of the following actions would not be practical to pursue?
Select one:

a. Report the problem to your Human Resources office.

b. Seek the counsel of an attorney who has expertise in employment law.

c. Prepare a concise memo for your attorney setting out the verified facts and issues.

d. Discuss the case with your co-workers.

A

It would not be practical to discuss this incident with co-workers. It would be better to go to the Human Resources office and the AICP Ethics Officer for advice.

The correct answer is: Discuss the case with your co-workers.

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27
Q

As an AICP planner, you are interviewing a candidate for a planner position with your consulting firm. The candidate holds an AICP certification. As part of the interview, he notes a series of requests for proposals that the city will likely issue in the next six months for which the firm could be competitive. He tells you that he has saved to his personal computer files related to the RFPs that he could share to provide the ability to begin drafting responses immediately. What should you do?

Select one:

a. Hire the candidate and ask that they share the files immediately

b. Decline the candidate’s offer for the files

c. Call the AICP Ethics Officer and report the incident

d. Explain to the candidate that it would be unethical to share this information

A

The AICP Code of Ethics states, “We shall not use to our personal advantage, nor that of a subsequent client or employer, information gained in a professional relationship that the client or employer has requested be held inviolate or that we should recognize as confidential because its disclosure could result in embarrassment or other detriments to the client or employer.” In this case, both answers C and D are appropriate actions. The best course of action is to address the issue immediately by informing the candidate why this would violate the Code of Ethics. This would prevent the sharing of information. If the information were shared it would be a violation of the Code of Ethics.

The correct answer is: Explain to the candidate that it would be unethical to share this information

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28
Q

With whom should a charge of misconduct against an AICP member should be filed?
Select one:

a. The regional representative of AICP

b. President of AICP

c. The Executive Director of APA and AICP ethics officer

d. Your supervisor

A

The correct answer is the Executive Director of APA and AICP Ethics Officer. The ethics officer is the executive director of APA/AICP. According to the AICP Code of Ethics, a violation should be reported to the AICP Ethics Officer.

The correct answer is: The Executive Director of APA and AICP ethics officer

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29
Q

An ethics complaint has been filed against you. What will happen first?

Select one:

a. Ethics Officer provides the complaint to the Certified Planner and requests a detailed response

b. Certified planner responds to the complaint with supporting documentation

c. Ethics Officer reviews the complaint

d. Ethics Officer deems it necessary to make a preliminary determination

A

According to the AICP Code of Ethics, the Ethics Officer reviews the complaint, makes a preliminary determination, provides the complaint to the Certified Planners and then the planner responds to the complaint.

The correct answer is: Ethics Officer reviews the complaint

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30
Q

A planner is made aware that an AICP coworker inappropriately disclosed information that was not public to a developer. Which of the following actions should she pursue?

a. Discuss the problem with the Human Resources Director

b. Confront the planner directly about this issue.

c. Report the violation to the AICP Ethics Officer

d. Discuss the problem with her Planning Director

A

TThe best answer is discuss the problem with the Planning Director. The AICP Code of Ethics requires disclosure of public information, but in this situation it is best handled within the department. The AICP Code states “We shall not use to our personal advantage, nor that of a subsequent client or employer, information gained in a professional relationship that the client or employer has requested be held inviolate or that we should recognize as confidential because its disclosure could result in embarrassment or other detriment to the client or employer. Nor shall we disclose such confidential information except when (1) required by process of law, or (2) required to prevent a clear violation of law, or (3) required to prevent a substantial injury to the public.” If the problem is not resolved internally, then it might be appropriate to report the problem to AICP. While not required to pursue an internal remedy before taking action, it’s the right management and leadership approach to the issue.

The correct answer is:
Discuss the problem with her Planning Director

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31
Q

You are a planner in a medium sized city. You have been accused of a violation of the AICP Code of ethics. You may be disciplined by a majority vote of which of the following?
Select one:

a. American Institute of Certified Planners Executive Committee

b. American Planning Association Executive Board

c. American Institute of Certified Planners Ethics Committee

d. All members of the AICP

A

After review by the Ethics Officer, the Ethics Committee can be convened to make a decision.

The correct answer is: American Institute of Certified Planners Ethics Committee

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32
Q

As a transportation planner in a consulting firm, you are working on a traffic impact assessment for a new regional shopping center. You have determined that extensive improvements will be needed. The city code requires the developer to incur the expense of transportation improvements required to service new development. Your supervisor tells you that he thinks you are overestimating the daily traffic counts and asks you to revise your estimates so that fewer transportation upgrades will be required. What is your next step?

Select one:

a. Respond that it would be a violation of your professional ethics to change your figures to meet the client’s needs

b. Respond that you will revise the figures as requested to minimize the transportation improvements

c. Check your work and prepare a memo to your supervisor outlining your method and your findings, confirming that the results you shared earlier are accurate

d. Start looking for a new job

A

The discussion occurred casually over lunch. While the supervisor thought your estimates are high, this is your cue to check your work and make sure your results are accurate. If, after preparing the memo and sharing this with your supervisor, you are asked to change the numbers then you would respond that this would be a violation of your professional ethics.

The correct answer is: Check your work and prepare a memo to your supervisor outlining your method and your findings, confirming that the results you shared earlier are accurate

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33
Q

One of your employees was convicted of a serious crime and their AICP certification was revoked. After serving their sentence they will be rehired. You have asked that the employee pursue reinstatement of their AICP. Who may reinstate membership in AICP?
Select one:

a. Ethics Committee

b. AICP President

c. Ethics Officer

d. APA President

A

Ethics Committee. One must notify the Ethics Officer of any conviction of a serious crime. However, only the AICP Ethics Committee may reinstate an AICP Member, pursuant to the procedures in Section E of the AICP Code of Ethics.

The correct answer is: Ethics Committee

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34
Q

One weekend after a friend’s birthday party, you drove home and got into a serious accident where you hit a pedestrian. You lied about the cause of the accident, indicating that the pedestrian jumped into the street when, in fact, you had looked down to answer a phone call. Phone records were used by the plaintiff to prove that you lied. You are now convicted of manslaughter. What is your responsibility to the AICP?

Select one:

a. Report this conviction to AICP

b. You do not need to report this conviction because it had nothing to do with your fitness as a planner

c. You do not need to report this conviction to AICP, but you do not need to report this conviction to your employer

d. You do not need to report this conviction because it was not related to theft

A

Report this conviction to AICP because your conviction, in part, involves false swearing. The AICP Code requires, “We shall not fail to immediately notify the Ethics Officer by both receipted Certified and Regular First Class Mail if we are convicted of a ‘serious crime’ as defined in Section D of the Code; nor immediately following such conviction shall we represent ourselves as Certified Planners or Members of AICP until our membership is reinstated by the AICP Ethics Committee pursuant to the procedures in Section D of the Code.”

The correct answer is: Report this conviction to AICP

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35
Q

An AICP Planner is found to have been in violation of the AICP Code of Ethics. Which of the following is a form of discipline that can be applied?
Select one:

a. Suspension of AICP Membership

b. Revocation of AICP Membership

c. Public Letter of Censure

d. All of these forms of discipline can be applied.

A

According to the AICP Code of Ethics, all of these forms of discipline are possible. In addition “The Ethics Officer or the Ethics Committee may attach conditions to these disciplinary actions, such as the writing of a letter of apology, the correction of a false statement or statements, the taking of an ethics course, the refunding of money, or any other conditions deemed just in light of the conduct in question.”

The correct answer is: All of these forms of discipline can be applied.

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36
Q

Recently you had an issue arise at a planning commission meeting where you believe a commissioner engaged in an activity that was not ethical. What would be the most appropriate course of action?

Select one:

a. Have a frank and open discussion around the ethical issue in a closed door session with the commissioners. And follow this with training on ethics.

b. Ask the planning commissioner to step off of the planning commission.

c. Privately call the planning commissioner to discuss the matter.

d. None of these are appropriate.

A

Fostering an ethical environment means that there is open dialogue and active training. While a private call with the planning commissioner could be appropriate, this does not raise awareness among the other commissioners, nor does it ensure that everyone has the training they need.

The correct answer is: Have a frank and open discussion around the ethical issue in a closed door session with the commissioners. And follow this with training on ethics.

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37
Q

The senior planner in a county planning department argued successfully against any further development within the town’s aquifer recharge areas. Six years later, as a consultant to a residential developer, he is requesting a rezoning of 1,000 acres of land within the town’s public water supply recharge areas for residential use. Is this action unethical?
Select one:

a. No. It does not violate the AICP Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct.

b. It is illegal.

c. Yes. It violates the AICP Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct.

d. Yes. It violates the APA Ethical Principles.

A

The correct answer is no. It does not violate the Code of Ethics. While the request may be hypocritical, it is not a violation of the Code of Ethics.

The correct answer is: No. It does not violate the AICP Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct.

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38
Q

At the end of your women’s social club meeting, a member approaches you with concerns about the proposed expansion of the regional mall, which her neighborhood group wants to stop. You listen to the woman’s concerns, but you are aware that her neighborhood was built after the mall was in place. Initially, what should you do to respond to her concerns?

Select one:

a. Suggest that she and other members of the organization attend the next City Council meeting to voice concerns.

b. Explain that your job is simply to review the site plan to ensure that the expansion meets all of the city’s requirements. Given that you believe the developer will meet these requirements, tell her that there is no way to stop the project.

c. Ask the woman to call your office the following Monday morning and you will provide her with the developer’s contact information, as well as the contact information for the economic development director. Both of these people should be able to provide the woman with more information on the proposed project.

d. Thank her for her comments and tell her there will likely be a public hearing on the project in several months. Encourage her and other members of the neighborhood organization to attend the meeting.

A

Providing public information on a case is appropriate.

The correct answer is: Ask the woman to call your office the following Monday morning and you will provide her with the developer’s contact information, as well as the contact information for the economic development director. Both of these people should be able to provide the woman with more information on the proposed project.

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39
Q

As an AICP planner, you are passionate about social justice issues. You learn that the city is planning to recommend against the rezoning of a property for affordable housing. You know that if you share this information with a colleague at a non-profit housing advocacy organization then this colleague will rally and organize a letter writing campaign to the city council and plan to appear at the planning commission meeting. What should you do?
Select one:

a. Inform the colleague that the city is considering a case.

b. Inform the colleague of the recommendation in the case.

c. Do not contact the colleague.

d. Inform your supervisor that you think it is inappropriate to recommend against affordable housing.

A

The AICP Code of Ethics states “We shall not use to our personal advantage, nor that of a subsequent client or employer, information gained in a professional relationship that the client or employer has requested be held inviolate or that we should recognize as confidential because its disclosure could result in embarrassment or other detriment to the client or employer.” It would be inappropriate to share the recommendation as it is not yet public information. In this case, you do not have information on why the city might recommend against affordable housing, so D may not be the best option. It would be okay to let interested parties know that there is a matter before the city which may be of interest.

The correct answer is: Inform the colleague that the city is considering a case.

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40
Q

As a planner that works for a federal agency, you have been elected to your city council. In your role with the federal agency, you know that the Environmental Protection Agency will be seeking to undertake an enforcement action against the city. During an executive session of the City Council, you advise the city council members and city attorney about options to quickly intervene to avoid an enforcement action. Does this raise an ethical concern?
Select one:

a. Yes, you should wait for the enforcement action to be issued before advising the city on how to best fight the action

b. No, you are sharing information that can later become public

c. No, you are free to share information between organizations

d. Yes, you may not use the power of any office to seek or obtain a special advantage

A

The AICP Code of Ethics states “We shall not use the power of any office to seek or obtain a special advantage that is not a matter of public knowledge or is not in the public interest.” In this case you are seeking a special advantage for the city.

The correct answer is: Yes, you may not use the power of any office to seek or obtain a special advantage

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41
Q

A planner worked for a city five years ago and then moved on to a consulting firm. Working at the consulting firm, the planner is responsible for preparing variance cases before cities in the region. Recently, the planner had a variance case before her former employer. The variance was denied. The client has asked her to appeal the decision in court. She agrees to prepare the case. She is not a licensed attorney. Is she acting ethically?
Select one:

a. No. She is violating the AICP Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct.

b. Yes. She is not violating the AICP Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct.

c. No. She is violating the APA Ethical Principles.

d. She is acting illegally.

A

The AICP Code of Ethics prevents planners from performing work beyond their professional competence, such as practicing law. In this case, the planner has not said they will present the case in court, but simply help prepare the case.

The correct answer is: Yes. She is not violating the AICP Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct.

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42
Q

Which of these is NOT an evaluation design option for assessing the effectiveness and lessons learned from community engagement?

a. Ripple Effect Mapping (REM)

b. Process

c. Impact

d. Outcome

A

REM is a method used in evaluation, not a form of evaluation design.

The correct answer is:
Ripple Effect Mapping (REM)

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43
Q

What is the primary question that outcome evaluation answers in the community engagement process?

i. To what extent are people in the community engaged?
ii. To what extent has the process of community engagement been inclusive?
iii. To what extent can community change be attributed to community engagement?
iv. To what extent do the planners represent the community?

a. II.

b. I & II

c. I, III, & IV

d. I.

A

Options ii.) and iv.) relate to process evaluation about the planning and implementation phases of community engagement. Option iii.) relates to impact evaluation which examines causality. Option i.) is the question that outcome evaluation answers because it assesses the change resulting from community engagement without seeking a causal explanation.

The correct answer is:
I.

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44
Q

You are calculating the floor area ratio of a proposed development project in downtown to make sure it is code compliant. Which of the following is not part of the calculation?
Select one:

a. Calculate the total lot area minus all accessory units

b. Calculate the total area of the building on all floors

c. Divide the total area of the building by the total lot area

d. Divide building square footage by lot area

A

To calculate the floor area ratio the total area of the building is divided by the total area.

The correct answer is: Calculate the total lot area minus all accessory units

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45
Q

You are in an agricultural county that is beginning to experience exurban development pressure. There have been a number of development requests for large lot subdivisions with lots sizes ranging from two to ten acres. The County Commissioners have recognized that this is the beginning of a trend. They have asked you as the County Planner to bring forward one or more strategies that would protect agriculture in the county. Which of the following would best protect and preserve agricultural land?

Select one:

a. Pass a state Right to Farm law

b. Development of a purchase of development rights program

c. Development of a transfer of development rights program

d. Adoption of an agricultural zoning district

A

Development of a purchase of development rights program. While the other answers would protect agricultural land, a purchase program guarantees that land will be preserved in perpetuity.

The correct answer is: Development of a purchase of development rights program

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46
Q

Which of the following is NOT a goal of the Fixing America’s Surface Transportation Act?

Select one:

a. Enhancing legal protections for land banking

b. Achieving a significant reduction in traffic fatalities and serious injuries on all public roads

c. Achieving a significant reduction in congestion on the National Highway System

d. Improve the national freight network

A

The Fixing America’s Surface Transportation Act has seven goals including safety, infrastructure condition, congestion reduction, system reliability, freight movement & economic vitality, environmental sustainability and reduced project delivery delays.

The correct answer is: Enhancing legal protections for land banking

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47
Q

Which of the following would a federal government planner not be involved in?
Select one:

a. National jobs planning

b. Federal land uses

c. Air pollution control

d. Regulating local land uses

A

The correct answer is regulating local land uses. This is a responsibility of local governments, not federal governments. Because states are sovereign, the federal government would not have a say in this issue.

The correct answer is: Regulating local land uses

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48
Q

Which city was the first to adopt a comprehensive plan?
Select one:

a. Cincinnati

b. New York

c. San Francisco

d. Washington, D.C.

A

Alfred Bettman collaborated with Ladislas (Laci) Segoe on executing the studies for the Plan of Cincinnati.

The correct answer is: Cincinnati

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49
Q

In addition to transect-based code and transit oriented development, a community built following the principals of New Urbanism would use which of these?
Select one:

a. cluster zoning

b. form-based zoning

c. floating zones

d. exclusive zoning

A

Form-based zoning emphasizes form over use.

The correct answer is: form-based zoning

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50
Q

As a planner for the Metropolitan Planning Organization, you have been working with the state’s Department of Transportation and local governments to address a substantial increase in freight traffic as a result of a recent port expansion in the county. Which of the following issues should this group of stakeholders be discussing?

Select one:

a. Air and noise pollution

b. Climate change Impacts

c. Freight efficiency

d. All of these issues should be discussed.

A

The APA Policy Guide on Surface Transportation states “APA encourages planners to develop integrated freight strategies that both improve freight efficiency and address air and noise pollution and climate change impacts. APA and its Chapters and Divisions support planning and development efforts to increase transportation efficiencies, including the development of technology and infrastructure that support the expansion and use of alternative fuel vehicles, and the increased use of other more energy-efficient freight transportation modes.”

The correct answer is: All of these issues should be discussed.

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51
Q

While much of urban planning has remained gender-blind, these key differences between genders are relevant to planning:

i. Women have different uses of transportation than men
ii. Women have different safety needs than men
iii. There are more women over the age of 65 than men
iv. Single men-headed households are becoming increasingly common

a. All of these are correct.

b. II and III

c. I and II

d. I, II, and III

A

Single woman-headed households are still much more common than single man-headed households.

The correct answer is:
I, II, and III

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52
Q

What is the name of the generation of children born to baby boomers between 1980 and 1995?
Select one:

a. Baby boomers

b. Generation Z

c. Generation X

d. Generation Y

A

Generation Y, also known as Millennials, are the demographic cohort between Generation X and Generation Z. Generation Y is generally understood to have been born between 1980 and 1995.

The correct answer is: Generation Y

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53
Q

You received a grant to restore a wildlife area by removing invasive species. Which of the following would NOT be needed to get the project going?
Select one:

a. Determine ownership of parcels in the wildlife area

b. Review aerial imagery to assess conditions in the wildlife area

c. Initiate fines for property owners who refuse to participate

d. Identify the best methods for removal of invasive species

A

Fining property owners would not be appropriate in this case. This is a grant project, not a regulatory requirement.

The correct answer is: Initiate fines for property owners who refuse to participate

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54
Q

As a planner for the state of Wyoming, you have been appointed to work with a legislative task force looking into land use regulation in the state. In preparing for the first meeting of the task force, you want to bring forward relevant research and materials that could aid the task force. Which of the following documents produced by the APA would be most appropriate to provide?
Select one:

a. The Smart Growth Guide

b. The New Urbanism Handbook

c. The Revised Standard State Zoning Enabling Legislation

d. The Growing Smart Legislative Guidebook

A

The correct answer is The Growing Smart Legislative Guidebook. This 2002 document by Stuart Meck, FAICP provides state and local governments with tools for better growth.

The correct answer is: The Growing Smart Legislative Guidebook

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55
Q

Which of the following is not an example of a growth management program?
Select one:

a. Development impact fees

b. Urban growth boundary

c. Regional tax sharing

d. Subdivision regulations

A

Subdivision regulations primary purpose is for recording land and ensuring the health and safety of residents. While it can be a tool as part of growth management, it is not in and of itself a growth management tool.

The correct answer is: Subdivision regulations

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56
Q

The state’s Department of Development is charged with creating an educational campaign centered around healthy living. Which of the following are elements of healthy living?
I. Walking and cycling as alternative transportation
II. Interactions with neighbors
III. Children engaging in active recreation outside
IV. Smaller houses
Select one:

a. I and II only

b. I and IV only

c. I, II, and III only

d. I, II, and IV only

A

Healthy living is not depend on house size.

The following are elements of healthy living:
I. Walking and cycling as alternative transportation
II. Interact with neighbors
III. Children engaging in active recreation outside
The correct answer is: I, II, and III only

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57
Q

Your city is faced with an increased problem of rat infestations. You have access to 311 call records that give the location of rat sightings. In order to optimally target the limited resources for remediation, which of the following types of GIS methods would be appropriate?

Select one:

a. Heat map

b. Buffer analysis

c. Overlay analysis

d. All of the above

A

The rat sightings would be represented as points on a map. A heat map (or kernel density map) shows areas of elevated concentrations. Those would be the highest priority targets for remediation.

The correct answer is: Heat map

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58
Q

Consider the following case study. You are a planner in a disinvested community with a historic manufacturing district. Which of the following is an appropriate first step for a heritage preservation project?

a. Design an adaptive reuse plan for the district.

b. Organize a community forum to open a dialogue about cultural and historic assets.

c. Consider state and federal tax credit programs.

d. Register all buildings as local landmarks.

A

While all choices are valid parts of heritage preservation efforts, planners should first establish a way for community members to voice their concerns and ideas for historic districts. It is also important for planners to communicate a community’s history to its residents so they can make informed decisions and raise informed questions.

The correct answer is: Organize a community forum to open a dialogue about cultural and historic assets.

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59
Q

In order to improve sample reliability, which of the following should you do?
Select one:

a. Decrease the sample size

b. Repeat the test

c. Use a homogeneous population

d. Increase the sample size

A

A large sample size improves sample reliability because there are more observations, and thus a better chance of discovering the full heterogeneity of the population.

The correct answer is: Increase the sample size

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60
Q

You are drafting a sustainable energy policy for the county. Which of the following would have the highest albedo?
Select one:

a. Snow

b. White roof

c. Asphalt

d. Shingled Roof

A

Snow would have the highest albedo. Albedo is the portion of solar energy reflected from the Earth back into space, measuring the reflectivity of the earth’s surface. Ice and snow has a high albedo with most of the sunlight hitting the surface bounces back toward space.

The correct answer is: Snow

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61
Q

According to the Highway Capacity Manual, if a roadway has a service level of B it can be described as:
Select one:

a. Stable flow, longer delays and speed determined by traffic

b. Stable flow, short delays, and speed somewhat restricted

c. Unstable flow, low speeds, frequent stoppages

d. Free flow, high operating speed with no delays

A

The correct answer is stable flow, short delays and speed somewhat restricted. The Highway Capacity Manual, published by the Transportation Research Board, provides concepts, guidelines, and procedures for computing highway capacity and quality of service based on road type. Levels of Service (LOS) range from A to F. An LOS of A means free flowing traffic and F means heavy traffic congestion with severely reduced traffic speeds.

The correct answer is: Stable flow, short delays, and speed somewhat restricted

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62
Q

According to Aristotle, who is considered the pioneer of urban planning because of his plan for a city of 50,000 that addressed administrative structure, social structure, and land subdivision?
Select one:

a. Xenophanes of Ionia

b. Thales of Miletus

c. Hippodamus of Miletus

d. Pythagoras

A

Hippodamus of Miletus was an ancient Greek urban planner who created grid plans for cities during the 5th century BC. His plans focused on creating order that both physically and socially ordered the city.

The correct answer is: Hippodamus of Miletus

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63
Q

Which of the following is the least important element of a historic preservation program?
Select one:

a. Zoning regulations

b. Tax incentives to encourage renovation

c. Educational materials for historic building owners

d. Design guidelines for historic building renovations

A

Of these choices, zoning regulations are the least important in a historic preservation program.

The correct answer is: Zoning regulations

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64
Q

As a planner working for the city of Belleville, you have been put in charge of updating the city’s comprehensive plan. At one of the public meetings about the plan update, the issue of homelessness is brought up and several concerned citizens voice the opinion that the comprehensive plan should tackle the problem. You explain that:

I. The subject of homelessness is typically outside the scope of local comprehensive plans, but can be addressed through other policy documents
II. While the comprehensive plan is not the place to address homelessness, there is a mayor-appointed task force that is looking into the issue
III. It would be appropriate to include the subject of homelessness in the local comprehensive plan
IV. The comprehensive plan touches on the issue of homelessness, but only as it relates to the number of housing units and their affordability
Select one:

a. II and IV

b. I only

c. I and IV

d. III only

A

Local planners should encourage the specific subject of homelessness in local comprehensive plans. Planners can use the Housing Element of the Comprehensive Plan to determine housing needs and develop effective strategies to address housing issues, including homelessness. Planners should work to ensure that local comprehensive plans provide for a diverse choice of housing opportunities, including supportive housing in levels consistent with need.

The correct answer is: III only

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65
Q

What did the Homestead Act of 1862 do?
Select one:

a. It enabled urban renewal.

b. It cleaned up slums in New York.

c. It allowed public lands to be sold for a nominal fee.

d. It encouraged landlords to offer lower rents on apartments.

A

The Homestead Act allowed public lands to be sold for a nominal fee.
T
he correct answer is: It allowed public lands to be sold for a nominal fee.

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66
Q

This program evolved out of efforts to implement planning requirements of the Housing Act of 1949 and became a signature program expanding local planning across the United States.
Select one:

a. Section 701 of the Housing Act of 1954

b. Section 8 of the Housing Act of 1937

c. Rule 701 of the Securities Act of 1933

d. Title IV of the Civil Rights Act of 1968

A

Section 701 provided funding for local comprehensive planning, leading to communities across the country developing comprehensive plans.

The correct answer is: Section 701 of the Housing Act of 1954

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67
Q

Which of the following states experienced the largest population increase as a result of migration following Hurricane Katrina?
Select one:

a. Tennessee

b. Georgia

c. Texas

d. Arkansas

A

Texas’s population grew by 580,000 people as a result of population migration following Hurricane Katrina.

The correct answer is: Texas

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68
Q

An ideal public meeting considers school and work hours, location accessibility, language barriers, and…
I. means of present and future communication
II. literacy challenges
III. remote technologies

a.I and II

b. II and III

c. I, II, and III

d. I and III

A

All of the listed concerns can influence the accessibility and attendance of the meetings as well as the meeting’s efficacy and potential to involve community members after the fact.
The correct answer is:
I, II, and III

69
Q

Which of these is NOT required for impact evaluation of community engagement?

a. Creation of a visual map

b. Random assignment of participants

c. Use of an intervention group

d. Use of a control group

A

The creation of a visual map is a part of ripple effect mapping (REM) which asks participants to create a visual map of direct or indirect impacts of community engagement over time. Impact evaluation, in seeking a causal explanation for community change, requires more precise measurement using the random assignment of participants and the use of intervention and control groups.

The correct answer is:
Creation of a visual map

70
Q

Which policy is considered an inclusionary housing measure?

a. Encouraging the construction of accessory dwelling units (ADUs)

b. Limiting the number of new units on the market at a given time

c. Encouraging the absence of middle-density housing

d. Separating single-family housing from multi-family apartment buildings

A

Diversifying the type and increasing the number of housing options available to renters and buyers are crucial to planning for inclusionary housing. All other choices either limit housing options or segregate diverse housing options.

The correct answer is:
Encouraging the construction of accessory dwelling units (ADUs)

71
Q

Which is not a potential benefit of form-based codes?

a. Fostering or protecting a pedestrian-oriented development pattern

b. Separating incompatible land uses

c. Fostering social equity within cities

d. Upholding a cohesive design vision

A

Form-based codes are a departure from conventional zoning, a practice that attempts to separate different land uses that may cause social and spatial friction if placed side-by-side, by regulating design patterns and encouraging mixed-use development.

The correct answer is:
Separating incompatible land uses

72
Q

You are the on the hiring committee for a new Planning Director. As the lead on creating a matrix for evaluating candidates, which of the following would be appropriate leadership qualities to include?
I. Political savvy, critical thinking, empathy, ethics
II. Critical thinking and ethics
III. Educational attainment and ethical understanding
IV. Respect and empathy

Select one:

a. I, II, III, and IV

b. I and II

c. I, II, and III

d. III and IV

A

All of these qualities can be seen in an effective leader.

The correct answer is: I, II, III, and IV

73
Q

You work for a large city with 100 people on your staff, split across code enforcement, development, long-range planning, environmental compliance, and neighborhood relations. You have been asked to reorganize the department, which approach would be most appropriate?
Select one:

a. Matrix

b. Hybrid

c. Vertical

d. Horizontal

A

A vertical organization works best where there are large and functionally complex organizations. In this case, there could be divisions based on function with a chain of command leading from the divisions to the director.

The correct answer is: Vertical

74
Q

This form of development integrates information and communication technology and the Internet of Things to manage a city.

Select one:

a. Internet of Things

b. Smart City

c. Intermodal Transportation

d. Information Technology

A

A Smart City uses information and communication technology (ICT) and the Internet of Things (IoT) to manage city assets such as information systems, schools, libraries, and transportation.

The correct answer is: Smart City

75
Q

You are the Director of Planning and oversee a staff of seven people. You are interested in improving the working relationship with the staff. Which of the following should you do?
Select one:

a. Place smiley stickers on well-written staff reports.

b. Give everyone a raise.

c. Meet with each staff member to find out how the work environment can be improved.

d. Implement a flexible work schedule.

A

The first step is to meet with staff members to learn about their perceptions of the work environment.

The correct answer is: Meet with each staff member to find out how the work environment can be improved.

76
Q

The Council Board of Commissioners has appointed a ten member steering committee on the environment. You are the planner assigned to oversee the committee. Which of the following should you do?
Select one:

a. Tell the committee the expected outcomes

b. Correspond with the chair to make sure everything is running smoothly

c. Serve as the chair of the committee

d. Advise the committee to select a chairperson

A

You should advise the committee to select a chairperson. A steering committee should be led by a committee member rather than a staff member. A staff member typically supports the work of the committee.

The correct answer is: Advise the committee to select a chairperson

77
Q

You have been hired to reorganize the development functions of the city and have been asked to create a new department. To guide these efforts, which of the following would be most helpful?
Select one:

a. Strategic Plan

b. Performance Management Plan

c. Capital Plan

d. Visioning Plan

A

A strategic plan sets priorities to strengthen the operations of an organization and would be most appropriate in guiding a reorganization of functions. A performance management plan would guide the performance of individual staff members. A capital plan guides infrastructure investment, and visioning sets the broader vision for the community.

The correct answer is: Strategic Plan

78
Q

You are the Planning Director of a large regional planning agency. One of your planners has not been performing at an acceptable level. In the last annual review, you discussed the performance problem with the employee. Lately the problems seem to be getting worse. You mention the problems to the employee, yet the problems persist. What is the next action you should take?
Select one:

a. Meet privately with the employee to go over the job description and departmental expectations and place in writing the issues that need to be corrected.

b. Talk to the employee with a representative from Human Resources present.

c. Fire the employee.

d. Talk to the employee again.

A

You should meet privately with the employee to go over the job description and departmental expectations. Placing these expectations in writing creates documentation of the issues. Should matters persist, then bringing in HR would be a wise decision.

The correct answer is: Meet privately with the employee to go over the job description and departmental expectations and place in writing the issues that need to be corrected.

79
Q

Which of the following budget methods would be most appropriate if the City Council has directed departments to create a series of decision packages upon which they can decide whether to fund or not?
Select one:

a. Program Performance-Based Budgeting

b. Zero-Based Budgeting

c. Line Item

d. Performance

A

Zero-Based Budgeting uses decision packages that can be independently decided upon for funding purposes.

The correct answer is: Zero-Based Budgeting

80
Q

You are preparing the future land use plan as part of the city’s comprehensive plan. You are using the Land-Based Classification Standards for coding the map. Which of the following would be used to indicate a low density residential district?
Select one:

a. Red

b. Purple

c. Blue

d. Yellow

A

Yellow is the standard color used to designate a low density residential district.

The correct answer is: Yellow

81
Q

This U.S. Supreme Court case overturned the “substantial advancement” test established in the Agins (1980) case:
Select one:

a. Lingle v. Chevron

b. San Remo Hotel v. San Francisco

c. Rancho Palos Verdes v. Abrams

d. Kelo v. City of New Haven

A

Lingle v. Chevron overturned the “substantial advancement” test established in the Agins (1980) case. In this case, Hawaii enacted a limit on the rent oil companies could charge dealer service stations. The rent cap was a response to concerns about gas prices. Chevron argued the the cap was an unconstitutional taking of its property. The district court held that the cap amounted to an uncompensated taking in violation of the Fifth Amendment, because it did not substantially advance Hawaii’s public interest in controlling gas prices. The court cited the U.S. Supreme Court’s decision in Agins v. City of Tiburon (1980), where the Court declared that government regulation of private property is “a taking if it does not substantially advance legitimate state interests.”
The correct answer is: Lingle v. Chevron

82
Q

If an industry has a location quotient of 1.3, which of the following is true?
Select one:

a. It is an export industry

b. It is neutral on employment.

c. It has no effect on employment.

d. It is an import industry

A

The industry employs more people in this region than the national average. The location quotient compares the share of employment of an industry in a region to the national share. If the share in the region is larger than the national share, the location quotient will be larger than 1, which suggests that the industry exports out of the region. The rationale is that the national share corresponds to self-sufficiency, so if the share is larger than the national share, there is more produced than needed for self-sufficiency, so the excess is exported.
The correct answer is: It is an export industry

83
Q

Who is associated with the “City as a Growth Machine” Theory?
Select one:

a. Logan and Molotch

b. Arendt

c. Calthorpe

d. Duany

A

Logan and Molotch are associated with the City as Growth Machine Theory.

The correct answer is: Logan and Molotch

84
Q

Which of the following are true statements about the Low-Income Housing Tax Credit program?

I. It encourages private equity for developing affordable housing
II. It guarantees tax credits for owners with an AMI below the median
III. Tax credits can be transferred to public agencies who can use the credits to guarantee home mortgages
IV. It can only be used in qualifying areas determined by each jurisdiction
Select one:

a. I and IV only

b. II and IV only

c. II only

d. I and III only

A

The federal government’s Low-Income Housing Tax Credit (LIHTC) program encourages the investment of private equity for developing affordable rental housing for low-income and very low-income households. It does this by awarding tax credits to taxpayers who invest in multifamily rental housing that serves these low-income households.

The correct answer is: I and IV only

85
Q

You are a planner for a growing suburban community. Because of your community’s growth, the amount of waste produced has increased. The city needs to expand the landfill within the next five years. Before making a decision on the expansion, you would like to survey residents about the proposed expansion. You plan to include the survey in the water utility bill of every residence in the city. What type of response rate would you expect?

Select one:

a. High

b. Medium

c. Low

A

The correct answer is low. Mail surveys have the lowest response rate. Including the survey in a utility bill means that only a small portion of residents will even read the survey.

The correct answer is: Low

86
Q

Which planned community built in 1923 foreshadowed the New Urbanism movement?
Select one:

a. Mariemont, Ohio

b. Radburn, New Jersey

c. Austin, Texas

d. Seattle, Washington

A

Mariemont is a planned community in Hamilton County, Ohio, founded in the 1920s by Mary Emery.
The correct answer is: Mariemont, Ohio

87
Q

You are leading a visioning process early on in the planning process to encourage citizen involvement and you want to encourage everyone in the community to participate. To have a highly successful visioning process which of the following is critical?
Select one:

a. Media involvement

b. Child care for participants

c. Staff buy-in

d. Surveys people can complete

A

Media involvement will be critical for getting the word out and encouraging inclusive participation. While the other factors are important and should be part of a public engagement process, media attention is the most critical factor to encourage participation and publicize the ongoing effort, according to “Local Planning: Contemporary Principles and Practices.”
The correct answer is: Media involvement

88
Q

A church located in a residential neighborhood is requesting a special use permit to allow a second building on the site for a daycare center. The neighborhood is strongly opposed to the additional building. Rather than proceed through the normal permit process, given the strained relationship between the church and the neighborhood, the Zoning Board of Adjustment suggests that the parties use:
Select one:

a. Negotiation

b. Consensus

c. Arbitration

d. Mediation

A

Mediation can occur with city staff or with an outside party. Mediation allows each party to share their perspective on the issues. For example, determining changes needed to make the proposal acceptable to both parties, such as operational practices, such as providing advance notice of events at the church. Following mediation the application would go through the normal hearing process. The November 2011 issue of Planning magazine highlights “The Zoning Dispute Whisperer: Adding Mediation to the Planner’s Toolkit.”

The correct answer is: Mediation

89
Q

A[n] _______________ can be described as a central city plus surrounding communities to which it is linked economically.
Select one:

a. Central place

b. Urbanized area

c. Urban center

d. Metropolitan statistical area

A

A Metropolitan statistical area can be described as a central city plus surrounding communities to which it is linked economically.

The correct answer is: Metropolitan statistical area

90
Q

You are the City Planner of a medium-size city. The local Metropolitan Planning Organization is recommending that your city place a moratorium on new development until the city and MPO can come to an agreement on the transportation improvement plan. You have been working with a large property owner to rezone a parcel for a regional mall that would significantly add sales tax revenue to the city. What should you do?
Select one:

a. Determine how long a moratorium might last by contacting the transportation division to find out when the TIP is expected to be complete

b. Move forward with the regional mall despite the recommended moratorium

c. Talk with the MP about making an exception for the ongoing regional mall development

d. Recommend that the regional mall development plan be shut down indefinitely

A

The correct answer is to consult with the transportation division to find out when the TIP is expected to be complete and determine how long a moratorium might last. As a first step toward making an appropriate decision, the planner should have full information. If the TIP will be ready in six weeks, it could work out with the mall developer’s timeline.
The correct answer is: Determine how long a moratorium might last by contacting the transportation division to find out when the TIP is expected to be complete

91
Q

This Appalachian Regional Commission covers 420 counties and eight cities. This is an example of which of the following spatial areas of practice?
Select one:

a. National

b. Multi-State

c. Regional

d. State

A

This multi-state commission covers West Virginia, Alabama, Georgia, Kentucky, Maryland, Mississippi, New York, North Carolina, Ohio, Pennsylvania, South Carolina, Tennessee, and Virginia. This is a planning, research, advocacy, and funding organization.
The correct answer is: Multi-State

92
Q

Which level of government would be most likely to plan for a sustainable multimodal freight system?
Select one:

a. Regional

b. State

c. Neighborhood

d. Local

A

Multimodal freight planning typically happens at a national and state level, focusing on supporting adequate, convenient and safe access for goods movement. According to the APA Surface Transportation Policy Guide, freight planning should seek to facilitate good movement while addressing potential negative impacts.
The correct answer is: State

93
Q

As a new planner for the state of Arizona you are responsible for working with jurisdictions throughout the state promoting land use policies that will support growth of industry. You have a meeting scheduled with the Navajo Nation. In advance of the meeting, you do research to make sure you understand tribal authority as it relates to land use regulations. Which of the following best describes the authority of the Navajo Nation?
Select one:

a. Tribes possess land use regulatory authority.

b. Tribes can work with planners to best determine land uses for their lands.

c. Tribes have the right to determine planning and zoning regulations in some cases.

d. Tribes possess a nationhood status and retain inherent powers of self-government

A

According to the Bureau of Indian Affairs “Article 1, Section 8 of the United States Constitution vests Congress, and by extension the Executive and Judicial branches of our government, with the authority to engage in relations with the tribes, thereby firmly placing tribes within the constitutional fabric of the nation.” Supreme Court Justice John Marshall in Cherokee Nation v. Georgia (1831) articulated that “tribes possess a nationhood status and retain inherent powers of self-government.” This would include land use regulatory authority.
The correct answer is: Tribes possess a nationhood status and retain inherent powers of self-government

94
Q

As the Community Development Planner for a major city, you are charged with overseeing the city’s housing programs. One of the most important programs for you has been the HOME program. Which act created the HOME program?
Select one:

a. Stewart McKinney Act (1987)

b. Low Income Housing Tax Credit (1986)

c. Fair Housing Amendments (1988)

d. Cranston-Gonzalez National Affordable Housing Act (1990)

A

The Cranston-Gonzalez National Affordable Housing Act (1990) created the HOME program. The HOME program provides block grants to local governments to increase the supply of affordable housing. The funds can be used to provide down payment assistance, construct or renovate affordable housing, acquire sites for affordable housing development, and support Community Housing Development Organizations in providing affordable housing.

The correct answer is: Cranston-Gonzalez National Affordable Housing Act (1990)

95
Q

You are a planner working for a regional agency. One of the committees that you have been asked to staff is a newly formed environmental task force. Members of this committee have asked you to clarify whether the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 requires local communities to submit environmental reviews of private subdivision development. You advise them that:
Select one:

A. NEPA requires the public and private sectors to conform to certain environmental standards but only if it involves federal funding, work performed by the federal government, or permits issued by a federal agency

B. NEPA requires state and local governments to conform to set environmental standards

C. NEPA established the Environmental Protection Agency, which is responsible for overseeing subdivision compliance

D. NEPA requires the public sector at any level to enforce penalties on the private sector for violations of NEPA

A

The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) is America’s national charter for protection of the environment. It establishes policy, sets goals (section 101), and provides means (section 102) for carrying out policy pertaining to federal actions, funding, and permitting. It was signed into law on January 1, 1970. The EPA is an independent agency of the federal government that has the responsibility of maintaining and enforcing national standards under a variety of environmental laws, but overseeing subdivisions is not in their domain.

The correct answer is: NEPA requires the public and private sectors to conform to certain environmental standards but only if it involves federal funding, work performed by the federal government, or permits issued by a federal agency

96
Q

The U.S. Supreme Court dealt with which of the following issues in Nectow v. City of Cambridge?
Select one:

a. Signage

b. Freedom of Speech

c. Taking

d. Zoning

A

In this case, the plaintiff was placed in the R-3 zoning district in error. The plaintiff sued under the 14th amendment, claiming a violation of due process.
The correct answer is: Zoning

97
Q

Which of the following is true of neighborhood organizations?
Select one:

a. Organized neighborhood organizations can accurately represent the neighborhood.

b. Neighborhood organizations are voluntary and typically focus on issues impacting the neighborhood.

c. Working with neighborhood organizations can be an effective way to encourage citizen participation.

d. All of the answers are correct.

A

All of the answers are correct—planners typically work with neighborhood organizations of various kinds to increase citizen participation. Whether the neighborhood organization has elected leaders and decision-making power varies widely. Even without elected members or decision-making authority, neighborhood organizations can wield significant political power.

The correct answer is: All of the answers are correct.

98
Q

As part of the neighborhood planning process, you are working to develop the goals for the neighborhood plan. What activity should come first?

Select one:

a. Engage the public

b. Define the problems

c. Present the necessary information

d. Identify goals

A

You would conduct the activities in this order: I. Engage the public II. Define the problems III. Present the necessary information IV. Identify goals
The correct answer is: Engage the public

99
Q

In the county you work for as a planner, the Library Director wants to make sure that a new library will meet the needs of neighborhood residents. This is the first step in what will be a year-long planning process. The Library Director wants to begin by understanding library usage patterns among neighborhood residents. Which of the following public participation tools would be the most appropriate?

Select one:

a. Host a public hearing

b. Conduct a neighborhood survey

c. Use the Delphi method

d. Host a neighborhood meeting

A

A neighborhood survey would be effective for engaging a significant number of neighborhood residents to determine how they use the library what they need from a new neighborhood library. A neighborhood meeting would certainly be useful, but a neighborhood survey would likely elicit responses from more people than a one-time neighborhood meeting.

The correct answer is: Conduct a neighborhood survey

100
Q
A
101
Q

You are drafting an amendment to the zoning ordinance to allow secondary units in the rear yard. As part of the staff report, you are attempting to demonstrate how the amedment would boost the income of existing property owners. In your example, you explain that a homeowner could take out a loan for $100,000, costing $500 per month, to build the granny flat. The flat would rent for $800 per month. Assuming the property would be vacant 5% of the time, what is the net operating income of the property?

Select one:

a. $300.00

b. $3,120.00

c. $30,000.00

d. $31,120.00

A

Net Operating Income = Gross Operating Income X (1 – the vacancy rate) – operating expenses. $9,600 X (1 – 0.05) - $6,000 = $3,120. The use of granny flats could serve as a source of income for local residents and help meet the need of the community.
The correct answer is: $3,120.00

102
Q

The City Manager has approached you to assist the Library Department in the creation of a new library master plan. The master plan calls for the construction of one new library in the next five years to meet demand based on growth in the southwest quadrant of the city. Which of the following should you consider in determining the appropriate size of a new library?

I. The size of the property
II. The projected population of the service area at the time of build-out
III. The inventory of materials to be available for use by library patrons
IV. Traffic circulation patterns in and around the site
Select one:

a. I only

b. I and II only

c. I, II, and III only

d. I, II, III, and IV only

A

The correct answer is I, II, and III only. Traffic circulation would not be a factor in determining the size of the library. Circulation would be considered in determining the siting of the library.
The correct answer is: I, II, and III only

103
Q

In his term as Planning Director of the city of Cleveland, Norman Krumholz utilized which of the following planning theories:
Select one:

a. Communicative planning

b. Transactive planning

c. Advocacy planning

d. Rational planning

A

Krumholz worked during the 1970s to think first about the disadvantaged in the community in every planning process.

The correct answer is: Advocacy planning

104
Q

With regard to takings, the U.S. Supreme Court has said that where a regulation is intended merely to prevent a[n] ____________, it should not be considered a taking.
Select one:

a.Impact fee

b. Nuisance

c. Rational nexus

d. Fiscal impact

A

The Supreme Court has said that where a regulation is intended merely to prevent a nuisance, it should not be considered a taking. In Euclid v. Ambler, for example, the Court found that as long as the community believed that there was a threat of a nuisance, the zoning ordinance should be upheld.
The correct answer is: Nuisance

105
Q

Which was a key concept of the 1916 New York City Zoning Ordinance?
Select one:

a. Uses allowed in zoning districts were “cumulative”

b. Established height requirements

c. The city’s water supply would be protected

d. Established setback requirements

A

The correct answer is that the ordinance established setbacks at specific heights, but did not establish height limitations.

The correct answer is: Established setback requirements

106
Q

Which of the following maps would NOT be useful in preparing a site plan for a new development?
Select one:

a. Parcel map

b. Utilities map

c. Orthographic map

d. Topographic map

A

An orthographic map is one that uses orthographic projection, which is a means of representing three-dimensional objects in two dimensions. Although an orthographic projection is likely involved in a base map or computer screen (GIS) map, it is not really relevant to site plan preparation. A topographic map (such as USGS maps), although large scale, would be useful for understanding the contour of a site (change in elevation).

The correct answer is: Orthographic map

107
Q

The benefits of a participatory approach include:

i. Promoting buy-in for the evaluation
ii. Empowering participants to build evaluation capacity within the community
iii. Collecting key data around community engagement
iv. Creating space to obtain input from all participants

a. I, II, and IV

b. II and III

c. I and IV

d. All of these are correct.

A

While collecting data is an important method of evaluating the participatory approach, it is not a benefit of the participatory approach overall.
The correct answer is:
I, II, and IV

108
Q

Which of the following people is known for their involvement in advocacy planning?
Select one:

a. Patrick Geddes

b. Susan Arnstein

c. Charles Lindblom

d. Paul Davidoff

A

The correct answer is Paul Davidoff. Davidoff actively promoted the use of advocacy planning by planners.
The correct answer is: Paul Davidoff

109
Q

The case of Penn Central Transportation Co. v. City of New York involved a proposal to build an office tower over Grand Central Terminal in New York City. The proposal was turned down by the city as not being consistent with the objectives of the City’s Landmarks Preservation Law (Landmarks Law). The property owners’ appeal eventually went to the U.S. Supreme Court. How did the Court rule?
Select one:

a. Invalidated the Landmarks Law because it did not apply to the other buildings in the area.

b. Upheld the Landmarks Law as a valid exercise of the police power.

c. Dismissed the lawsuit because the city was acting in its legislative capacity when it enacted the Landmarks Law, and was immune from suit because of sovereign immunity.

d. Invalidated the Landmarks Law because it deprived the owners of a substantial part of the value of the property.

A

The landmarks law as it relates to deprivation of value and buildings in the area were discussed in the opinion, but ultimately was not enough to persuade the Court. Sovereign immunity was not discussed.

The correct answer is: Upheld the Landmarks Law as a valid exercise of the police power.

110
Q

Which of the following cases was NOT about a taking?
Select one:

a. Pennsylvania Coal Co. v. Mahon

b. Keystone Bituminous Coal Association v. DeBenedictis

c. Munn v. Illinois

d. These were all about a taking.

A

Pennsylvania Coal and Keystone are about the 5th amendment, Munn is a 14th amendment case

The correct answer is: Munn v. Illinois

111
Q

You are a city planner for a major city and the City Manager asks you to identify traffic intersections that create the most hazard for the city. The project will take several weeks, and you have two interns and a staff planner that can assist you. You build a project plan that identifies the critical tasks and how the project can get to completion. What would be the best strategy or tool to aid in completion of this project?
Select one:

a. Cost-Revenue Analysis

b. Hire a project manager

c. Program Evaluation and Review Technique

d. Linear Programming

A

A Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) chart would allow for the rapid sequencing of tasks ensuring that the project deadline can be met. PERT often deals with unpredictable activities (where the time needed to complete activities is not known).

The correct answer is: Program Evaluation and Review Technique

112
Q

What planner is associated with the idea of Transit Oriented Development?

Select one:

a. Ansel Adams

b. Daniel Burnham

c. Clarence Perry

d. Peter Calthorpe

A

Transit oriented development is planned and designed to locate high-demand land uses at or near the most efficient modes of transportation, like light rail lines, subway lines, and frequent, high-capacity bus routes. The concept of transit oriented development was pioneered by Peter Calthorpe who is an urban planner and founding member of the Congress for new Urbanism.
The correct answer is: Peter Calthorpe

113
Q

The 1909 Plan of Chicago was revolutionary in planning history for many reasons. Which of the following reasons is not associated with the plan’s significance?

I. The plan was implemented, maintained, and expanded upon for 50 years.
II. The plan was initiated and paid for by private business owners
III. The plan addressed areas outside the central city.
IV. Citizens of the city were educated about the plan.
Select one:

a. I only

b. II and III only

c. III and IV only

d. I, II, III and IV

A

The plan was not fully implemented, and later plans replaced the Plan for Chicago.
The correct answer is: I only

114
Q

Planning for equity is best defined as…

a. aiming to redistribute wealth and resources across community boundaries.

b. focusing on maintenance of diverse communities and community needs rather than development goals.

c. working toward just and fair inclusion into a society in which all can participate, prosper, and reach their full potential.

d. donating time to communities who have historically experienced disproportionate negative impacts of planning practice.

A

The APA defines equity as “just and fair inclusion into a society in which all can participate, prosper, and reach their full potential. Unlocking the promise of the nation by unleashing the promise in us all.”

The correct answer is:
working toward just and fair inclusion into a society in which all can participate, prosper, and reach their full potential.

115
Q

The idea of “Plural Planning” is associated with which planning theory?
Select one:

a. Communicative

b. Incrementalism

c. Mixed Scanning

d. Advocacy

A

The idea of Plural Planning is associated with advocacy planning theory.

The correct answer is: Advocacy

116
Q

A poll was conducted to determine what percentage of the registered voters favored that the current mayor of a large city run for a second term. The results: 52% of registered voters polled were in favor of the second term, with a margin or error of 0.04. What does this mean?
Select one:

a. With 96% confidence, the estimated percentage of 52% is equal to the true percentage favoring the mayor’s run for a second term.

b. With 95% confidence, the estimated percentage of 52% is within 4% of the true percentage favoring the mayor’s run for a second term.

c. There is only a 4% chance that 52% of the registered voters do not favor the mayor running for a second term.

d. The estimated percentage of 52% is sure to be within 4% of the true percentage favoring the mayor’s run for a second term.

A

The margin of error is a statistic about the amount of random sampling error in a survey. The larger the margin of error, the less confident one can be that the poll reported results are close to the truth for the whole population. The margin of error is reported as a confidence interval radius and this is converted to percentage points, in this case 4%.

A 95% confidence interval is a standard statistical rule-of-thumb that comes from the assumption of a normal distribution. For a normal distribution, 95% of the values are around the true mean +/- 2 standard deviations.

For the survey, the result of 52% is seen as an estimate of the true mean. But using the concept of a “confidence interval” we can give a value to how likely it is that the true mean is within +/- 2 standard deviations from the estimated mean. The margin of error of 0.04 corresponds to two standard deviations (not specified in the test question, but typically assumed). So, the answer is, we can be 95% confident that the true percentage is between 48% and 56%, i.e., within 4% from the estimate.

The 96% (as 100-4) is actually irrelevant in this context (there to throw you off), since there is no relation between 96% and the standard deviations.
The correct answer is: With 95% confidence, the estimated percentage of 52% is within 4% of the true percentage favoring the mayor’s run for a second term.

117
Q

The population of Plannersville is increasing at a rate of 12% per year. Calculate the amount of time it will take for this population to double?
Select one:

a. 10 years

b. 5 years

c. 3 years

d. 6 years

A

The formula is as follows, with y(t) as the population at time t, and y(0) as the starting population:

y(t) = y(0) e^rt (that is the number e or ~ 2.718 to the power of the growth rate - as a fraction - and the number of years)

Since the population at time t is double the initial population, y(t) = 2 y(0). A little algebra yields: 2 y(0) = y(0) e^rt, or 2 = e^rt, We know r (0.12) and need to find t. By taking the natural logarithm on both sides of the equal sign, we get ln(2) = rt, so that t = ln(2) / r ln(2) = 0.693, thus t = 0.693 / 0.12 = 5.775 ~ 6

There is also a so-called rule of 70 (an approximation), which gives the doubling time as the ratio of 70 and the percentage growth rate (as a percentage, not a fraction): rule of 70: divide 70 by the percentage growth rate 70/12 = 5.8 ~ 6
The correct answer is: 6 years

118
Q

The Planning Director undertakes a revision to the city’s comprehensive plan. As a first step, the director sets up a meeting with the Planning Commission and the City Council in executive session before inviting the public to participate in the process. After hearing about the planned meeting, the City Attorney informs the Planning Director that an executive session meeting would be a violation of state law. Which of the following is the reason for the attorney’s statement?

Select one:

a. Procedural due process

b. Equal protection

c. Freedom of speech

d. Substantive due process

A

Procedural due process. Procedural due process is covered under the 14tg Amendment and provides protection against unfair process where an individual’s life, liberty, or property is concerned. States require open meetings to provide the opportunity for the public to be informed.

The correct answer is: Procedural due process

119
Q

When should process evaluation be conducted in the community engagement process?

a. Only at the end

b. Only throughout

c. At the beginning and throughout

d. At the end and throughout

A

Process evaluation involves collecting data on the various factors of the planning and implementation phases (frequency or meetings, content of meetings, diversity, inclusion, etc.), so it must be collected from the start of the planning process and then throughout.

The correct answer is:
At the beginning and throughout

120
Q

A regional transportation planning effort is underway and you will be organizing meetings over the course of a year. You map out the public participation plan. Which of the following would inform your selection of meeting dates?

Select one:

a. Holidays only

b. Holidays and MPO meeting dates

c. Holidays and community festivals

d. Holidays, community festivals, MPO meeting dates, and school breaks

A

All of these would be factors. Meetings are best timed when they do not conflict with holidays or school breaks. Given that this is a regional transportation plan, you would want to avoid overlap with the MPO meeting dates. Community festivals can be an ideal time for engagement—for example, with a booth. But it would be a bad time to have a meeting while the festival is occurring.

The correct answer is: Holidays, community festivals, MPO meeting dates, and school breaks

121
Q

You have received a development application that requires a variance for an upscale apartment complex in a neighborhood experiencing gentrification. The proposed development would require the demolition of an existing Section 8 housing complex, and existing residents would be displaced. The required hearing before the Board of Zoning Adjustment has been placed in a newspaper with wide circulation. What additional actions would be most effective to engage the public.

I. Post information about the application on the planning department website
II. Notify neighborhood leaders
III. Post a sign at the current apartment complex
IV. Contact a reporter about the development application

Select one:

a. I only

b. I and II only

c. II and III only

d. I, II, III, and IV

A

The most effective way to notify area residents is through posting a sign at the complex, as residents would be aware of the development proposal and through notifying neighborhood leaders.

An important term here is “most effective.” The set-up is all about the potential negative impact on a very specific group of residents, so “most effective” is going to be an approach that targets that group specifically. Notifying neighborhood leaders and posting a sign directly in the complex would be very targeted and effective approaches.

The fact that the question specifically states that a newspaper publication “with wide circulation” is already involved is a signal that further media involvement would not be considered “most effective.” And, of course, posting on the planning website would be particularly ineffective. While information about the application would be helpful, residents are unlikely to visit the website on their own. The website would be a place for secondary information that people can visit after learning about it from the sign or neighborhood leader.
The correct answer is: II and III only

122
Q

You are responsible for leading a comprehensive planning process. To kick off the comprehensive plan you organized a series of six public meetings across the city. Only three people attended the first one. You quickly pull together your planning team to assess what you can do before the next meeting scheduled for two weeks away to ensure that you have better turn out. Which of the following tactics would you agree to?

Select one:

a. Organize an alternative for participation that would allow people who cannot attend the meeting to contribute nonetheless.

b. Deploy an eye-catching flyer to be posted in public places and ask other groups to publicize the meeting announcement

c. Make sure there is a clear agenda focused on the purpose, discussion topics, speakers etc.

d. Make sure the opening statement at the meeting is inspirational

A

The flyer and publicity are tactics that would publicize the next meeting. The other answers are important for ensuring a positive experience for participants that attend, but will not influence people actually coming to the kick-off meeting (but could influence their decision to participate further).

The correct answer is: Deploy an eye-catching flyer to be posted in public places and ask other groups to publicize the meeting announcement

123
Q

As the new planner for the City of Plannersville you have been asked to organize a public meeting to kick off a scenic corridor planning process. You are working to create the invitation list. What should you consider?
Select one:

a. Your main concern should be who to include in the planning process by consulting with all major stakeholders

b. You should consult other staff and the planning director to develop the invitation list

c. Generally, a scenic corridor planning process is likely already likely to be well established

d. Who to invite, how to phrase the invitation, the form of the invitation (by mail, electronically, or by telephone), and how to provide information to the media about the meeting

A

When planning a scenic corridor meeting you should consider all of the above. You must decide who to invite, how to phrase the invitation so that participants understand what the meeting is going to be about and its format, how the invitations will be delivered, and how to reach out to the media in spreading the word about the meeting.

The correct answer is: Who to invite, how to phrase the invitation, the form of the invitation (by mail, electronically, or by telephone), and how to provide information to the media about the meeting

124
Q

revise the zoning ordinance to prohibit density increases in surrounding subdivisions. To respond appropriately to the association, you have been asked to write a policy brief explaining what the basic purposes of zoning are.

Which two statements below would you most likely NOT include in your summation?
Select one:

a. The purpose of zoning is to implement the comprehensive plan

b. The purpose of zoning is to provide for the use of land within the municipality for residential housing of various dwelling types

c. The purpose of zoning is to accommodate reasonable overall community growth

d. The purpose of zoning is to provide for the highest and best use of land

A

Zoning ordinances are created for the protection of public health, safety, and welfare. Their purpose generally extends to provision of coordinated and practical community development and proper density of population, including providing for the use of land within the municipality for residential housing of various dwelling types. Zoning for the purpose of increasing property value or ensuring the highest and best use of land is not considered an appropriate zoning purpose.

The correct answer is: The purpose of zoning is to provide for the highest and best use of land

125
Q

What is a “push analysis”?
Select one:

a. It determines the amount of park space in a community.

b. It determines the buying capacity of a market area.

c. It determines the regulatory requirements in a market area.

d. It determines the sales capacity of a market area.

A

The correct answer is that it determines sales capacity of a market area. A push analysis determines if the introduction of a new business will generate additional customers.

The correct answer is: It determines the sales capacity of a market area.

126
Q

Which of the following is most likely NOT considered a quasi-judicial process?
Select one:

a. Adoption of a comprehensive revision to the zoning ordinance

b. Consideration of a variance request

c. Consideration of a conditional use permit

d. Amendment of the Master Plan

A

The best answer is: Adoption of a comprehensive revision to the zoning ordinance, as it is clearly a legislative action by the governing board; the others are usually quasi-judicial functions, with the caveat that a master plan amendment can be considered legislative in some states.

The correct answer is: Adoption of a comprehensive revision to the zoning ordinance

127
Q

You are designing a survey to determine the public’s views on environmental protection. You are taking a systematic random sample. Which of the following best describes how your sample will be selected?
Select one:

a. Everyone in the population has an equal chance of being selected

b. Every xth person will be surveyed

c. The population is divided into classes from which samples are taken

d. Use of individuals that are readily available

A

In a systematic random sample everyone in the population has an equal chance of being selected. One example of a systematic random sample would be to select a number at random and then selecting every Xth person after that.
The correct answer is: Every xth person will be surveyed

128
Q

Real property includes which of the following?
Select one:

a. Mineral Rights

b. Buildings

c. Easements

d. All of the above

A

Real property consists of all land, structures, attached equipment, such as street lights, anything growing on the land, and all “interests” in the property, which ca include the right to future ownership, right to occupy for a period of time, the right to drill for oil, the right to get the property back if it is no longer used for its current purpose, use of airspace, or an easement across another’s property.
The correct answer is: All of the above

129
Q

The local religious community has united to support refugees relocating from Sudan to the region. This has resulted in a small but significant new minority population arriving into the community. As the planning department, what responsibility do you have to be responsive to the needs of these new community members.
Select one:

a. Begin learning basic Arabic to allow you to introduce yourself to the community

b. Meet with local community leaders to understand the needs of the population

c. Provide notices of public meetings in multiple languages

d. Bring a translator to public meetings

A

The best way to understand how the planning department can support this new group in the community is to reach out to community leaders to understand their needs.
The correct answer is: Meet with local community leaders to understand the needs of the population

130
Q

General Motors has announced that it will be closing a plant in your town, laying off 600 workers. The mayor is in a panic and wants to know what this will mean to the local economy. You have been asked to calculate an employment multiplier to estimate the total job loss for your community. Which of the following sources would you use?

Select one:

a. Shift-share analysis

b. Location quotient

c. Regional input-output modeling system

d. North American Industry Classification System

A

The Regional input-output modeling system provided by the Bureau of Economic Analysis provides employment multipliers based on the North American Industrial Classification System which can be used to calculate a location quotient. A shift share analysis provides information on the region’s share of employment in an industry compared to the national share, which is not what the Mayor is looking for.

The correct answer is: Regional input-output modeling system

131
Q

Regression Analysis can be described as which of the following?
Select one:

A. A statistic that provides the average variable score

B. A statistic that provides an estimate of one variable based upon other variables

C. A statistic that provides a range of values with a given probability

D. A statistic that provides the standard distribution around a mean

A

Regression Analysis can be described as a statistic that provides an estimate of one variable based upon other variables.
The correct answer is: A statistic that provides an estimate of one variable based upon other variables

132
Q

Which of the following communities was NOT developed by the Resettlement Administration?

Select one:

a. Greenbelt, Maryland

b. Greenhills, Ohio

c. Greendale, Wisconsin

d. Greendale, Maryland

A

Greenbelt towns which provided affordable housing for federal government workers were planned by Rexford Guy Tugwell, head of the United States Resettlement Administration, under authority of the Emergency Relief Appropriation Act.

The correct answer is: Greendale, Maryland

133
Q

You are preparing a parks and recreation plan for your city, which is completely built out and has a finite amount of park land. You are currently conducting a needs assessment. Based on the park land constraints, which of the following approaches would be best?
Select one:

a. Resource Approach

b. Activity Approach

c. Economic Approach

d. Behavioral Approach

A

A resource approach would be best. A needs assessment is a process for determining needs, between current conditions and desired conditions. In the case of parks, a resource approach might be best in documenting the park land resources available and comparing this to appropriate benchmarks and national standards.
The correct answer is: Resource Approach

134
Q

Which of the following statements are NOT true regarding the appropriate strategies planners can take to address the challenges of the retail sector?

I. The enormous changes taking place in the retail sector are generally outside of planning control
II. Financial incentives such as tax breaks are an appropriate planning tool for retail revitalization
III. Zoning restrictions on big-box retailers might limit stress on main street retail corridors
IV. Redevelopment of outdated retail spaces should be part of the planning toolkit
Select one:

a. III and IV only

b. I only

c. II and IV only

d. II, III, and IV only

A

Retail has been going through enormous change in the last few years, largely due to the rise of e-commerce. Appropriate planning responses might include: financial incentives (tax breaks or low-interest loans) targeted to attract specific types of retail in certain areas; zoning restrictions on chain stores and big-box retailers; reduced mandates for ground-floor retail if such mandates are generating an over-supply of retail space; and prioritizing the redevelopment of aging and outdated retail spaces.
The correct answer is: I only

135
Q

Which of the following are true concerning Right to Farm laws?

I. They exist in all 50 states
II. Their intent is to make farming more viable
III. They exist for the purpose of protecting property values
IV. Their aim is to preserve farmland from encroachment by suburban development
Select one:

a. III and IV only

b. I and II only

c. II and IV only

d. I, II, III, and IV

A

All 50 states have some form of Right to Farm law, which attempts to preserve agricultural practices and make farming more viable. Right to Farm laws deny nuisance lawsuits against farmers, even if their agricultural practices harm or bother adjacent property owners. Such nuisances may include noise, odors, and visual clutter. The laws aim to minimize the threat to normal farming practices, in contrast to typical farmland preservation policies, which aim to preserve farmland itself.

The correct answer is: I and II only

136
Q

Under the city’s zoning ordinance, churches are allowed in any single family neighborhood as a conditional use. Your office has just received an application to construct a 200,000-square-foot church with more than 1,000 parking spaces. Which of the following acts should the staff consider in reviewing this application?
Select one:

a. The Religious Land Use and Institutionalized Persons Act of 2000

b. The Religious Freedom Act of 1998

c. The Freedom of Religious Practice Act of 1977

d. The Religious Freedom Restoration Act of 1993

A

The Religious Land Use and Institutionalized Persons Act (RLUIPA), is a federal law that prohibits the imposition of burdens on the practice of religion and prohibits churches and other religious institutions from being overly restricted by zoning laws.
The correct answer is: The Religious Land Use and Institutionalized Persons Act of 2000

137
Q

As part of a safe routes to school planning process, you want to engage both parents and students. Which of the following would be the best technique for engagement?

Select one:

a. A walk around survey

b. Send a survey home with the students

c. Ask teachers to send an email survey to parents

d. Post a survey to the school’s website

A

All of these are ways that you could encourage participation. The walk around survey can be interpreted two ways: 1) Walk to residents’ homes OR 2) encourage people to walk the route to school with you to discuss key issues with students routes to school. Direct interaction with parents is the best choice.
The correct answer is: A walk around survey

138
Q

You are creating a public participation plan for a major infrastructure planning project. You know there is going to be substantial interest from the public and that you will have large numbers of people attending. You want to design the meeting to allow for a small group experience. After considering all of your options for participatory techniques, you believe your best option is:
Select one:

a. Samoan Circle

b. Charette

c. Appreciative Inquiry Summit

d. Multiattribute Utility Analysis

A

A Samoan Circle is designed to permit interaction that occurs in small groups, but can be witnessed by a larger group. The meeting is set up with an inner circle of five to six chairs. The rest of the chairs are setup in concentric outer circles. Initially everyone is seated in the outer circles. People who wish to speak move to the inner circle. Once they speak they return to their original seat. The discussion continues as long as there are participants who wish to speak.
The correct answer is: Samoan Circle

139
Q

You are a planner who works in settings with low literacy levels. You devise a participation plan calling for the use of which of the following techniques?

Select one:

a. Self-esteem, Associative strength, Resourcefulness, Action planning, and Responsibility

b. Design Charrette

c. Future Search

d. Groupware

A

SARAR stands for Self-esteem, Associative strength, Resourcefulness, Action planning, and Responsibility. This is a series of techniques designed to be highly visual and accessible to those who cannot read or write. Examples, include pocket charts, three pile sorting, and picture stories with gaps.
The correct answer is: Self-esteem, Associative strength, Resourcefulness, Action planning, and Responsibility

140
Q

Which of the following was true of Saul Alinsky?
Select one:

a. Involved in redevelopment in New York City

b. A community organizer in Chicago

c. Involved in gay rights in San Francisco

d. Involved in equity planning in Cleveland

A

Saul Alinsky was a community organizer in Chicago.

The correct answer is: A community organizer in Chicago

141
Q

The School District is preparing a facilities plan that could result in the renovation of ten schools in the district. You want to make sure that many parents are actively engaged in the planning process. You have a $5,000 budget to cover meetings at each of the ten schools. Which of the following is least important for your engagement strategy?
I. Entertainment for children
II. Light food and beverages
III. Babysitters for young children
IV. A cash bar for adults
Select one:

a. I

b. II

c. IV

d. III

A

The cost of entertainment, light food, and babysitters could be contained to $500 per meeting, allowing each school to have a successful meeting. Of course, alcohol should not be served at public meetings.
The correct answer is: IV

142
Q

Which of the following are true about sector theory?

Select one:

a. It was developed by Homer Hoyt and it minimizes the role of commercial real estate

b. Within each sector, land values vary widely

c. It creates concentric rings around the CBD

d. It was developed by Homer Hoyt and it prioritizes the role of transportation

A

Sector theory is a model of urban development proposed by Homer Hoyt in which sectors radiate out like pie shaped wedges from the central business district. Sector theory stresses the role of transportation in urban development. Each sector represents a specific land use, and thus represents a distinct area of land values. Land use sectors either complement or oppose each other.

The correct answer is: It was developed by Homer Hoyt and it prioritizes the role of transportation

143
Q

Sherry Arnstein’s ladder of public participation expresses public participation as rungs that represent increased citizen control. Which of the following would represent the greatest level of public engagement?
Select one:

a. Manipulation

b. Placation

c. Consulting

d. Delegated power

A

Arnstein’s ladder of participation starts at manipulation and proceeds through therapy, informing, consultation, informing, consulting, placation, partnership, delegated power, and citizen control. Originally published as Arnstein, Sherry R. “A Ladder of Citizen Participation,” JAIP, Vol. 35, No. 4, July 1969, pp. 216-224.
The correct answer is: Delegated power

144
Q

Which of the following elements is NOT a common part of determining a proposal for a site plan?
Select one:

a. Deciding on specific materials to use in construction.

b. Prepare a financial pro forma, or forecast of the eventual financial balance sheet of the project.

c. Discuss relevant precedents with the client(s).

d. Conducting a market analysis to determine current demand for specific types of spaces.

A

Materials for construction are not included at the site planning stage.
The correct answer is: Deciding on specific materials to use in construction.

145
Q

What is NOT a goal of site plan review?
Select one:

a. Increasing the value of the property

b. Preservation of on-site natural features

c. Provision of adequate parking and loading facilities

d. Improving the aesthetics of the proposed project

A

Site plan review is not associated with property values. Instead it is focused on the provision of infrastructure, preservation of onsite natural features, etc.
The correct answer is: Increasing the value of the property

146
Q

As the planner for a former industrial city, you have watched the population decline over the last 30 years. The Mayor has asked for a plan that will embrace the population decline rather than be concerned with trying to grow the city. You have envisioned the city as one with more green space, reduced infrastructure, and revitalization of underutilized sites. What phrase best describes the city’s plan?
Select one:

a. Planned shrinkage

b. Triage

c. Smart Decline

d. Rehabilitation

A

The simple phrase “Smart Decline” best describes the city’s plan. Smart decline is a strategy that can be used in shrinking cities to plan for decline.
The correct answer is: Smart Decline

147
Q

Which of the following is best represented by the phrase “choice and opportunity for all persons.”
Select one:

a. Spatial Justice

b. Environmental Justice

c. Social Justice

d. Just Justice

A

Social Justice includes promoting a just society by challenging injustice and valuing diversity

The correct answer is: Social Justice

148
Q

The City Council is enamored with social media and its potential use in the city. As part of the city’s new comprehensive planning process, the council has asked the planning department to develop a social media participation plan. You are investigating the possible tools that could be used. Which of the following could be used in a comprehensive planning process?

Select one:

a. Facebook and Twitter

b. Flickr and Instagram

c. Blogger

d. All of the above

A

All of the above could be used in a comprehensive planning process. Twitter and Facebook can be used to keep people informed as the process proceeds. Flickr and Instagram can be used to share images taken by staff and the public of the community. A blog can be used to provide information about the issues that are being considered as part of the plan.

The correct answer is: All of the above

149
Q

You are part of a city-wide task force developing a social media policy. The city manager would like to ban social media use to ensure employees are working rather than socializing while on the job. You argue that social media is critical to the planning department’s efforts to engage the public. You cite the aspirational principles of the AICP Code of Ethics stating the following benefits.

I. Increase public understanding of planning activities.
II. Give people the opportunity to have meaningful impact on development.
III. Ensure that there is training for citizens on planning matters.
IV. Provide timely, adequate, clear and accurate information on planning issues.

Select one:

a. I, II, and IV

b. I, II, and III

c. I and II

d. I only

A

III is not an aspirational principle in the code.
The correct answer is: I, II, and IV

150
Q

What statement defines spatial justice as it relates to social justice:

a. People should have the ability to live anywhere in a city.

b. Zoning should consider factors of gender, race, and class.

c. How our cities are organized has a significant bearing on whether people have access to what they need.

d. People need to be able to realize their potential in the communities in which they live.

A

Spatial justice is linked to the concept of social justice; while the goal of social justice is people being able to realize their potential in the communities they live in, the interest of spatial justice is how where people live affects their access to resources. The ability to live anywhere in a city or equitable zoning practices are certainly important, but they do not define spatial justice.
The correct answer is:
How our cities are organized has a significant bearing on whether people have access to what they need.

151
Q

This form of government serves a specific purpose to provide a specific and limited number of functions within a defined geographic area. This is known as:
Select one:

a. School District

b. Special District

c. Utility District

d. Metropolitan Planning Organization

A

Utility Districts and School Districts are examples of a Special District. Special Districts typically have the ability to levy taxes and take out debt to perform the functions required of the district.
The correct answer is: Special District

152
Q

As a non-profit advocacy group, you are preparing a report on the state of a region’s sprawl. Which of the following is unlikely to be identified as an outcome of sprawl in the region?
Select one:

a. An increase in vehicle miles traveled

b. An increase in land available for habitat

c. An increase in energy consumption

d. An increase in farmland loss

A

Sprawl is not associated with land conservation – in fact it is associated with loss of habitat.

The correct answer is: An increase in land available for habitat

153
Q

A frustration of local governments seeking to use innovative policy initiatives aimed at ensuring access to affordable housing is that their efforts can be thwarted by:

Select one:

a. Rules about natural resource protection

b. YIMBY’s

c. Eminent domain

d. State preemption

A

Preemption is when the law of a higher level of government limits the power of a lower level to regulate a particular issue. “YIMPBY” stands for “yes in my backyard” and is loosely organized as a pro-development group.
The correct answer is: State preemption

154
Q

The 2010 Census showed that Plannersville had a population of 50,000. Clintonville is a neighborhood in Plannersville and, in 2000, it represented 10 percent of Plannersville’s population. The current population of Plannersville is 55,000. What method could you use to determine the current population of Clintonville?
Select one:

a. Symptomatic

b. Step-down

c. Linear

d. Cohort survival

A

The step-down method would be the most appropriate in this case. The step-down method applies proportion and uses the population of a larger entity (e.g., a city) to estimate the population of a smaller entity within it (e.g., a neighborhood). Cohort survival uses birth, death, and migration rates within age cohorts. Symptomatic estimation calculates the population of an area based on number of housing units. Linear projection is a straight time trend where the average change over the past period will continue in the future.
The correct answer is: Step-down

155
Q

As a planner in a growing county, you are concerned with the effects of increasing urbanization on stormwater runoff. Which of the following would NOT help to minimize the degree of stormwater runoff?
Select one:

a. Limited impervious surface creation

b. Restrict floodplain development

c. Require on-site retention of all storm water

d. Channelization

A

Channelization. Channelization straightens and increases the volume of water delivered to streams.
The correct answer is: Channelization

156
Q

Which of the following is least likely to decrease the chances of increased stormwater runoff?
I. Installing rain gardens near paved roadways
II. Passing a permeable parking ordinance
III. Increasing the minimum parking requirement for retail
IV. Allowing for increased lot coverage in residential districts

Select one:

a. I only

b. I and II

c. I, III, and IV

d. III and IV

A

This question is purposely written with confusing words such as least likely, decrease, and increase to encourage you to pay attention as a key AICP exam strategy. In this case, you are looking for the answer of items that would result in increased stormwater runoff, including increasing minimum parking and additional lot coverage.

The correct answer is: III and IV

157
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of the Superfund?

I. A state program
II. A federal program
III. Requires a polluter to pay for site cleanup
IV. Holds the current property owner liable for site contamination
Select one:

a. II

b. III

c. IV

d. I only

A

According to the EPA, “EPA’s Superfund program is responsible for cleaning up some of the nation’s most contaminated land and responding to environmental emergencies, oil spills and natural disasters. To protect public health and the environment, the Superfund program focuses on making a visible and lasting difference in communities, ensuring that people can live and work in healthy, vibrant places.” The program holds the current property owner liable for site contamination and requires the polluter to help pay for site cleanup.
The correct answer is: I only

158
Q

A group of university students is interested in demonstrating how an abandoned commercial corridor can be turned around. Which would be the best way to illustrate a design concept creating excitement around potential permanent changes?
Select one:

a. Economic Incentive Program

b. Design Charette

c. Tactical Urbanism

d. Facade Improvement Program

A

Tactical urbanism represents an activist approach to engaging the community in the possibilities of transforming a space. Tactical urbanism focuses on making an immediate impact in a community.
The correct answer is: Tactical Urbanism

159
Q

Which of the following best summarizes the key functions that taxes serve?

I. Redistribution of income and generation of revenue to finance government
II. Generation of revenue to finance government
III. Ensure equitable distribution of costs
IV. Redistribution of income
Select one:

a. I

b. II

c. III

d. IV

A

Taxes redistribute income and provide a source of revenue to pay for government goods and services
The correct answer is: I

160
Q

The Mayor’s Office has requested that you conduct a citizen survey to determine satisfaction with city services. You are evaluating whether to use a mail or phone survey. Thinking about telephone surveys, which of the following is the most important negative of using telephone surveys?
Select one:

a. They are expensive

b. They may not reach a representative sample

c. They are time consuming

d. It may be difficult to find people to conduct the survey

A

Explanation: Telephone surveys can result in an unrepresentative sample. This is due to a number of factors including the lack of a home telephone (for example cell phone only or no phone at all), the use of caller ID to screen calls, unlisted phone numbers, and no one home at the time of the call. Labor, expense, and time are all factors, but the best choice is an unrepresentative sample.
The correct answer is: They may not reach a representative sample

161
Q

The northeast 1/4 of the southeast 1/4 of Section 4 of Plannersville Township contains how many acres?
Select one:

A. 10

B. 40

C. 160

D. 20

A

Townships are subdivided into sections. Each township is six miles by six miles, township contains 36 square miles, each one forming a section. Calculations start at the end and work to the beginning of a sentence. Each section is one square mile, which is 640 acres. 1/4 of 640 is 160. 1/4 of 160 is 40 acres.
The correct answer is: 40

162
Q

You are the consultant writing the city’s SmartCode. You are preparing a presentation to the planning commission describing the new code for recommended adoption. Which of the following is best to include:
Select one:

a. The historical evolution of the concepts of transects

b. A description of the connection between natural and human habitat

c. A description of the continuum of transect zones from rural to urban

d. An explanation of Smart Growth, on which the Smart Code is based

A

The Smart Code is not based on “Smart Growth” except in a very conceptual way. In the SmartCode, there are six transect zones plus one special district. There are many adaptations of the basic SmartCode template, and locally calibrated codes can have more than six zones.
The correct answer is: A description of the continuum of transect zones from rural to urban

163
Q

Which of the following is used to project future economic activity?
Select one:

a. Twelve leading indicators

b. Stock market

c. Unemployment rate

d. Interest rate

A

The U.S. Department of Commerce uses an index of 12 leading indicators to measure the direction of the economy.These include interest rates, stock prices, oil prices, unemployment, housing starts, and consumer expectations.
The correct answer is: Twelve leading indicators

164
Q

The process of creating buildings, products, and environments that are usable by people of all ages and physical capabilities is best defined as…

a. Equity planning

b. Adaptive reuse

c. New Urbanism

d. Universal design

A

Equity planning is best defined as working toward just and fair inclusion into a society in which all can participate, prosper, and reach their full potential. Adaptive reuse is best defined as the process of converting buildings that have outlived their original purpose to accommodate new uses. New Urbanism is best defined as planning practice that incorporates interrelated patterns of land use, transportation, and urban form to create communities that foster the most desirable characteristics of human habitation.
The correct answer is:
Universal design

165
Q

Using an equation that can be rearranged to solve for the missing unknown variable, find the missing unknown variable.

Present Value: $7,500,000
Future Value: ?
Time: 10 years
Interest Rate: 2.5%

Select one:

a. $9,375,000.00

b. $9,600,634.00

c. $187,500.00

d. $1,875,000.00

A

Answer is B. The future value of money can be calculated based on the present value, time, and interest rates. Here is a link to a resource to understand and calculate future value http://www.calculator.net/future-value-calculator.html
The correct answer is: $9,600,634.00

166
Q

According to the U.S. Census, an urban cluster is all of the following except…
Select one:

a. A metropolitan statistical area

b. A population density that is at least 1,000 people per square mile

c. A densely settled territory that has a minimum of 2,500 people but less than 50,000

d. Added in the 2000 Census

A

Urban Clusters (UCs) have at least 2,500 and less than 50,000 people.
The correct answer is: A metropolitan statistical area

167
Q

Urban design is best described as including which of the following:
Select one:

a. Access

b. District focus

c. Transportation focused

d. Aesthetics of buildings

A

Urban design typically works at a district level. While aesthetics are part of urban design, the district focus is the most accurate.
The correct answer is: District focus

168
Q

You have calculated a measure of dispersion around the mean. This was calculated as the average of the sum of the squared deviations from the mean. This is the:
Select one:

a. Mean

b. Distribution

c. Standard Deviation

d. Variance

A

The variance is a numerical value used to indicate how widely individuals in a group vary.

The correct answer is: Variance

169
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about vested rights?
Select one:

a. There is a vested right if a property has an existing zoning classification.

b. Once a building permit has been issued, there is a right to continue with the project regardless of changes in regulation.

c. A nonconforming lot can be developed if the zoning changes after the creation of the lot.

d. There is a vested right once a substantial financial investment has been made in the property.

A

This question is asking which is NOT true. There is not a vested right if a property has an existing zoning classification.
The correct answer is: There is a vested right if a property has an existing zoning classification.

170
Q

A ___________ is one that is difficult to solve because of incomplete, contradictory, and changing requirements that can be difficult to understand.
Select one:

a. Perplexing problem

b. Wicked problem

c. Evil problem

d. Puzzling problem

A

Planning is filled with wicked problems. For example, poverty is not the result of a single factor and there is not a simple or easily understood solution.
The correct answer is: Wicked problem