Sample Card Templates: Licensees

Question 1

How many steps are involved in the AIM process?

Answer 1

There are 7 Steps:

1. Plan for Success
2. Open with a Purpose
3. Identify Needs
4. Present Solutions
5. Overcome Objections
6. Gain Commitment
7. Reflect and Follow-up

Question 2

How should you plan for success?

Answer 2

Plan for Success includes:

1. Assess Customer KPIs
2. Gain information about your customer, their business, challenges, etc.
3. Determine Objectives
4. Draft an Agenda

Question 3

What are the 3 zones within the Adoption Ladder?

Answer 3

Zone 1: Establish Relationship

Move the customer from being unaware of Oticon Medical to being interested in our company and our solutions

Zone 2: Accept - Gain Acceptance

Move the customer from where they accept the unmet need and are open to counseling on our products to a point where they are recommending our products.

Zone 3: Advance Opportunities

After the customer expands into recommending our products and using our other product solutions, move them from preferred partner status to an advocate who endorses our company and offerings

Question 4

Creating Objectives as you Plan for Success

Answer 4

Objectives should be SMART

Specific

Measurable

Attainable

Relevant

Time bound

Question 5

What are some “Open with a Purpose” Tactics?

Answer 5

Tactics to Consider

1. Create a need or offer something of value
2. Deliver an interesting insight
3. Use a headline
4. State a fact or statistic
5. Follow-up from a previous call
6. Describe a patient scenario that is relevant to your customer

Question 6

What are 2 types of Questions?

Answer 6

Question Types:

1. Open Questions

• Start with how, where, when, who and why
• Excellent for identifying needs

2. Closed Questions

• Leads to Yes or No answers
• Excellent for gaining acceptance of a need

Question 7

What does “Start with the Why” mean according to Simon Sinek?

Answer 7

• In the words of Simon Sinek, every organization on the planet knows WHAT they do. These are the products or services they offer. Some know HOW they do it. These are the things that set them apart. But few know WHY they do what they do.
• Why is a purpose, a cause, or a belief. It’s the very reason your organization exists.
• When selling our product or solution, we should begin with WHY – why is it important, why does it matter, and why should you care.

Question 8

“Feature Tell, Benefits Sell”

What does this mean?

Answer 8

• The customer is buying what your solution does for them (benefit), NOT what your solution is (feature). Therefore it is vital to focus on the benefits to both the patient and the HCP.
• To make the value of the solution absolutely clear, you need to make the link between the need and the benefit in a logical way. This can be achieved by restating the need you heard and gain confirmation.
• Skip the technical jargon - explain your product in a way anyone can follow
• Paint a picture – imagine it – visualize
• Make it matter – your product may have a ton of benefits, but it’s worthless if the customer doesn’t need it

Question 9

Answer 9

Question 10

Answer 10

Question 11

Answer 11

Question 12

Answer 12

Question 13

Answer 13

Question 14

JB DUPUY

In case of a suspicion of tire damage how do you manage to assess the landing distance ?

Answer 14

FCTM / Procedures / Abnormal and Emergency Procedures / L/G / Wheel Tire Damage Suspected

If the Airbus EFB LDG PERF application is used, the flight crew must select the appropriate failure case :

ONE BRK RELEASE failure case if one tire is damage.

TWO BRK RELEASE failure case if more than one tire is damage.

If the QRH is used, the flight crew must select the appropriate failure case :

ONE TIRE DAMAGE failure case if one tire is damage.

TWO TIRES DAMAGE failure case if more than one tire is damage.

Question 15

JB DUPUY

In case of Emergency Descent, il takes aproximately 40NM and 4 min
(~7000 ft/min) from FL390 to reach FL100.

During this descent if a TCAS event occurs what is the priority for action : Emergency Descent procedure or TCAS procedure ?

Answer 15

FCTM / Procedures / Abnormal and Emergency Procedures / MISC / EMERGENCY DESCENT

TCAS procedure.

Avoidance of collision has the priority, even if it requires one temporary interruption of the descent maneuver.

Question 16

JB DUPUY

Above 100kt, what are the events that should lead you to reject the take-off ?

Answer 16

(FCTM / Procedures / Abnormal and Emergency Procedures / MISC / Rejected Take Off )

There are 5 situations that should lead you to reject the take-off :

• Fire warning, or severe damage
• Sudden loss of engine thrust
• Malfunctions or conditions that give unambiguous indications that the aircraft will not fly safely
• Any red ECAM warning
• Any amber ECAM caution listed below :
  
  • F/CTL L(R) SIDESTICK FAULT
  • ENG 1(2) FAIL
  • ENG 1(2) REVERSER FAULT
  • ENG 1(2) REVERSER UNLOCKED
  • ENG 1(2) THR LEVER FAULT

Question 17

JB DUPUY

The first Golden Rule is « FLY, NAVIGATE, COMMUNICATE in this order and with apropriate tasksharing». Who is in charge of the FLY ?

Answer 17

FCTM/Airbus Operational Philosophy/Golden Rules for Pilots

Both PF and PM are in charge of the FLY :

The Pilot Flying (PF) must concentrate on “flying the aircraft” to monitor and control the pitch attitude, bank angle, airspeed, thrust, sideslip, heading, etc., in order to achieve and maintain the desired targets, vertical flight path, and lateral flight path.

The Pilot Monitoring (PM) must assist the PF and must actively monitor flight parameters, and call out any excessive deviation. The PM’s role of “actively monitoring” is very important.

Question 18

JB DUPUY

Is a MEL applicable during taxi time ?

Answer 18

MEL / MEL Items / 00-Preamble / 03-Criteria for Dispatch / Operational Use

No, the MEL is applicable until the aircraft moves by its own means.

However, any decision to continue the flight must be subject to pilot judgment and good airmanship.

If the Captain decides to continue the flight with a “GO” or “GO IF” item in the MEL/CDL, and if the failure is clearly identified, it is recommended to apply the MEL/CDL item (for example, MEL or CDL performance penalties and operationnal restrictions, if any, must be applied).

And the Captain must return to the blocks if the item is ”NO GO” (No dispatch), or if the MEL requires the completion of a maintenance procedure.

Question 19

JB DUPUY

What are the 2 callouts performed during the « LOSS OF BRAKING » Memo Item ?

Answer 19

FCOM / Procedures / Abnormal and Emergency Procedures / Brakes / [MEM] LOSS OF BRAKING

« Loss of braking » to start the procedure.

« Set Antiskid OFF » after releasing the brake pedals to switch the BSCU in Alternate mode.

Question 20

JB DUPUY

The « COM VHF 1(2)(3)/HF1(2) EMITTING » procedure is a crew awarness on the ECAM.

Is there anything that the crew can try, if this failure appears on ECAM ?

Answer 20

FCOM / PROCEDURE / ABNORMAL AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES / COM / VHF 1(2)(3)/HF1(2) EMITTING

They can have a look in the FCOM complete procedure in Layer 2 in order to have a full procedure to try to get back the faulty equipment.

Question 21

Sébastien Corbel

How can the PM check the Engine oil quantity ?

Answer 21

FCOM>Pro>Norm>SOP>Preliminary Cockpit Preparation>Before Walkaround

The PM can check the quantity on the ENG SD PAGE.

Note : If it does not appear on the ENG SD page, press the ENG1 and 2 FADEC GND PWR pb-sw on the overhead maintenance panel. After the check of the ENG oil qty, press again the ENG 1 and 2 FADEC GND PWR pb-sw.

Question 22

A specific description of where the business will be in the long-term

A general understanding of the business, its culture, & its future goals

Answer 22

Vision

Question 23

Organizational Strategy

Answer 23

1. Defines why the business exists
2. Defines how the business will be profitable/viable
3. Requires long-term view (3-5 years)
4. Determined by business unit’s top leadership
5. Does not focus on day-to-day operations
6. Provides general direction
7. Is the fundamental template for direction
8. Defines & supports long-term goals
9. Serves as the foundation for developing business processes that support the overall business structure required to meet the organizational strategy

Question 24

4 Important themes in Organizational Management

Answer 24

1. Lines of authority responsibility & communications should be clear & direct
2. Responsibility should come with appropriate authority
3. Organizational structure should consider the inter-relationships among functions, roles, and responsibilities
4. Communication channels should be structured to allow effective mission accomplishment and interaction

Question 25

What time are junior operators restricted from driving?

Answer 25

No driving between 12:30 and 5 am.

Two exceptions:

1. When accompanied by a parent or guardian, who does not need to be a licensed driver, or
2. The JOL is an emancipated minor

Question 26

In order to qualify for the 7 day “grace period” when purchasing a vehicle what requirements must be met? (5)

Answer 26

1. Seller must have properly signed the certificate of origin (new vehicle) or certificate of title (used vehicle) and delivered the appropriate document to the purchaser
2. Purchaser must be at least 18 years old
3. Previously owned vehicle and newly acquired vehicle must be the same type and have
   the same number of wheels

• An original copy of the bill of sale reciting the registration number to be transferred
  from the former vehicle to the new one; or
• The Certificate of Transfer issued by the dealer on an RMV form
  4. Registration plates must be attached to the newly acquired vehicle or trailer

​5. Must transfer ownership or lose possession of old vehicle

90-2

Question 27

Classes of Health Insurance Policies

Answer 27

1) individual vs. group, 2) private vs. government, 3) limited vs. comprehensive, 4) self funded, 5) employee association, 6) ERISA employee association

Question 28

Group Health Insurance

Answer 28

No individual type underwriting. Individual members cannot be turned down. All members have similar benefits. Generally covers off-the-job accidents or illnesses. Members must have a common affiliation of interests other than the purpose of obtaining insurance.

Question 29

Pure Risk

Speculative Risk

Answer 29

• With pure risk, there is a chance of loss or no loss.
• For example: death, auto accident, and house fire.
• Pure risks are insurable risks.
• With speculative risk, there is a chance of profit, loss, or no loss.
• Speculative risk is generally undertaken by entrepreneurs.
• Speculative risk is generally voluntary risk and not insurable.

Question 30

Probability of Loss

Severity

Answer 30

• The probability of a loss occurring is the “chance” of a loss occurring.
• It is the measure of the long-run frequency with which an event occurs.
• The probability of a loss is a useful measure for the insurer because it quantifies the expected cost of claims.
• A higher probability of a loss may result in a decline of coverage.
• Severity is the actual dollar amount of the loss.
• Severity is more important than the probability of a loss.

Question 31

Hazard Definitions

• Hazard
• Moral Hazard

Answer 31

• A hazard is a condition that increases the likelihood of a loss occurring.
• There are three types of hazards: Moral, Morale, and Physical Hazard.

1. Moral Hazard.
   
   • A moral hazard is a character flaw.
   • A character flaw would lead to a filing a false claim.
   • For example: A famous running back for Ohio State claimed his car was broken into and $10,000 worth of CD’s were stolen. There certainly wasn’t $10,000 worth of CD’s in his car and thus is an example of a moral hazard.

Question 32

Hazard

• Morale Hazard
• Physical Hazard

Answer 32

1. Morale Hazard.

• Morale hazard is the indifference created because person is insured.
• For example: Beth goes to the convenience store to get milk for her baby Hudson. Beth leaves the keys in her car and the car running while she goes into the store, not concerned that her car may get stolen because she has car insurance.

1. Physical Hazard.

• A physical hazard is a tangible condition that increases the probability of a peril occurring.
• For example: Icy or wet roads, poor lighting, or defective equipment.

Question 33

A JH client has a life insurance policy with Vitality and also has Vitality available through their employer wellness program. They can earn points in both programs for each qualifying activity.

True or False

Answer 33

True

Please note that each program could have different point values for each activity and require a different amount of points to achieve a status level. For example, they could have a Gold Status with JH but Platinum status with their employer.

Question 34

The Unet application Tiedi allows for…

Answer 34

the management and tracking of data from the initial listing to the actual transplant, and then through the follow-up process

Question 35

For wait time transfer, the transplant programs must inform the candidate during the evaluation process if…

Answer 35

the transplant program does not allow candidates to transfer waiting time to your program.

Question 36

The Medical Device Amendments under the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act (FD&C Act) provides 3 regulatory classes.

What are they?

Answer 36

• Class I: require that the deive manufacturer provide the FDA with premarket notification, registration and listing; prohibitions against adulteration and misbranding, and rules for good manufacturing practices. Examples: hearing aids, wheel chairs, stethoscopes.
• Class II: same requirements as Class I device but additionally require that the manufacturer provide the FDA with performance standards. Examples: powered wheelchairs, surgical drapes, x-ray equipment, and osseointegrated hearing implant systems.
• Class III: same requirements as Class I & II devices but additionally require premarket approval (PMA). PMA is the required process of FDA scientific review to ensure safety and effectiveness of the device. These devices are those that support or sustain human life, prevent impairment of human health and that may present a potentially unreasonable risk of illness or injury to the recipient. Examples: pacemakers, neuromuscular stimulators and cochlear implants.

Question 37

True/False:

The FDA is NOT responsible for designating the criteria (indications) for cochlear implantation.

Answer 37

Answer: True

Each manufacturer submits an application for PMA outlining the indications for their device. These are referred to as FDA labeled indications or FDA candidacy criteria.

Question 38

What offices within the FDA are responsible for approvals for class III medical devices?

Answer 38

1. Office of Device Evaluation (ODE)
   
   • Approval of class III devices
   • Approval of investigational device exemptions required to collect clinical data in support of a device application
2. Office of Compliance (OC)
   
   • Review and approval of manufacturing and quality-control changes for Class III devices
   • Enforces compliance to FDA regulations

Question 39

How many sections are there in the AICP Code of Ethics?

Answer 39

There are five sections: A, B, C, D, and E:
A: Principles to Which We Aspire
B: Our Rules of Conduct
C: Advisory Opinions
D: Adjudication of Complaints of Misconduct
E: Discipline of Members

Question 40

What is in Section C of the AICP Code of Ethics?

Answer 40

Section C: Advisory Opinions

Our Rules of Procedure:

• Informal Advice
• Formal advisory opinions requested by a member
• Formal advisory opinions issued without request of a member
• Annual report of the ethics officer

Question 41

What are the forms of discipline in the AICP Code of Ethics?

Answer 41

(a) a confidential letter of admonition
(b) a public letter of censure
(c) suspension of AICP membership, or
(d) expulsion from AICP.

Question 42

Under the AICP Code of Ethics, unless conditions are met, planner will not accept an assignment to publicly advocate a position that is _______________ to a position publicly advocated within the past ______________ years.

Answer 42

“indistinguishably adverse”, three

Under the AICP Code of Ethics, unless conditions are met, planner will not accept an assignment to publicly advocate a position that is indistinguishably adverse** to a position publicly advocated within the past t_hree_** years.

Question 43

A Limited Liability Partnership (LLP) is where all partners have limited personal liability. Any partnership may become an LLP upon what two factors?

Answer 43

1. Approval by the same vote that is necessary to amend the partnership agreement; AND
2. By filing a Statement of Qualification with the Secretary of State.

Priority: Medium

Question 44

What information must a

Statement of Qualification include?

Answer 44

1. The name and address of the partnership;
2. A statement that the partnership elects to become an LLP; AND
3. A deferred effective date (if any).

*The filing doesn’t create a NEW partnership, it continues to be the same entity that existed prior to the filing.

Priority: Medium

Question 45

A partner with Apparent Authority will NOT bind the partnership during what circumstance?

Answer 45

1. The partner lacked authority; AND
2. The third-party knew or had notice that the partner lacked authority.

*For acts outside the scope of business → Need a manifestation by the Partnership that the partner had authority in order to be binding.

Priority: HIGH

Question 46

When does Diversity of Citizenship Jurisdiction exist?

Answer 46

When:

1. There is complete diversity of citizenship between all plaintiffs and defendants; AND
2. The amount in controversy exceeds $75,000.

*Diversity is determined at the time the action is commenced.

Priority: HIGH

Question 47

How is Supplemental Jurisdiction limited?

Answer 47

1. It CANNOT be used to overcome a lack of diversity.
2. It DOES NOT apply to claims by the original plaintiff against a third-party defendant.
3. The court may decline to exercise it when:
   
   • The claim raises a novel/complex issue of law;
   • The claim substantially predominates over the claim(s) of which the District Court had original jurisdiction;
   • The Federal District Court has dismissed all claims it had original jurisdiction over; OR
   • In exceptional circumstances.

Priority: Medium

Question 48

When must a federal court remand a case to a state court?

Answer 48

If there is no federal subject matter jurisdiction. They can also remand a case to a state court after the federal claims have been decided.

*A motion must be made within 30 days after the filing of the notice of removal.

Priority: Medium

Question 49

What are the key features of Legacy?

Answer 49

• Dual Vacuum- only biopsy system on the market with patented lateral and axial vacuum
• Adjustable cutter speed
• Optimal tissue access with best posterior access due to needle offset.
• 28° Angled aperture for precise cutting
• Tissue stop technology at end of aperture
• SmartVac
• Take a sample see a sample

Question 50

What is the probe length and gauge sizes for Legacy?

Answer 50

All probes are 9 cm

11 gauge

11 gauge bladed

8 gauge

Question 51

What attributes of Isoclast™ active allow the control of insect populations resistant to neonicotinoids and to other classes of insecticides?

Answer 51

1. ​Isoclast™ active has a distinct mode of action from those of neonicotinoids or any other class of insecticides currently in the market.
2. The metabolism data thus far suggest that Isoclast is not metabolized by the enzymes that metabolize neonicotinoids.

Question 52

Isoclast™ active helps reduce the transmission of plant viruses because it kills both the insect vector and the virus. True or False?

Answer 52

False. Isoclast™ active causes the insect to stop feeding, which reduces their potential to transmit the virus to non-infected plants. Isoclast does not kill the virus already present in plants. Plants already infected will not recover.

Question 53

What steps should the security professional take before an evidence search?

Answer 53

Discuss the search with involved personnel before arriving at the scene, if possible. Ensure that personnel are aware of the types of evidence usually encountered and the proper handling of the evidence. Make preliminary personnel assignments before arriving at the scene, if possible. Sources: PIM, 6.3.1, page 243 POA, Investigations, 6.3.1, page 221

Question 54

What is needed for physical surveillance to be effective?

Answer 54

Physical surveillance should- have a clearly defined purpose and goals; not interfere with what is being observed; record and document what the investigator is observing; and support the objectives of the investigation. Source: ANSI/ASIS INV.1-2015, 5.5.2.1, page 33