Same

Question 1

Privileges & Limitations of the CPL License

Answer 1

Act as PIC for any aircraft in any operation other than:
A multi-crew aircraft in an air transport operation.
If the holder has less than 750hrs of flight time as pilot, single pilot operation MTOW > 5700kg in an air transport operation.
Turbojet MTOW > 3500kg in RPT.
Act as co-pilot for any aircraft in any operation (as long as an MCC is held).
CASR 61.570: Privileges of Commercial Pilots License.

Limitations/Requirements:

Applicants must be at least 18.
Passed the aeronautical knowledge examination for the CPL and the associated aircraft category rating (MPPC / RG).
Completed flight training for the CPL & the associated category rating.
Passed the flight test.
Met the aeronautical experience requirements.
CASR 61.580: Requirements of grant of Commercial Pilots License.

	Non Integrated: 200hrs total time, of which: 190hrs flight time as pilot. 100hrs as PIC. 20hrs cross country. 10hrs instrument time. Of which 5hrs of instrument flight time in flight.
	Integrated: 150hrs total time, of which; 140hrs flight time as pilot. 70hrs as PIC. 20hrs cross country. 10hrs instrument time. Of which 5hrs of instrument flight time in flight. CASR 61.590 + 61.610.

General Limitations of exercising privileges of licence:

Holder is required to have conducted at least 3 take-offs and landings in the past 90 days in order to be allowed to carry a passenger. (Day / Night). (CASR 61.395).
Holder must have an active flight review (2yr to end of month). (CASR 61.580).
Holder must hold valid Class 1 Medical to exercise the privileges of the CPL licence, however some operations can be conducted with a Class 2 (CASR 61.415).
Example: Commercial flights without passengers if MTOW <8618 kg.
In-flight training.
Each takeoff must be followed by a climb to 500ft AGL.

Question 2

Meteorological Minima

Answer 2

VMC.
General:
At or above 10,000ft: 8000m visibility, 1500m horizontal, 1000ft vertical.
Below 10,000ft: 5000m visibility, 1500m horizontal, 1000ft vertical.
Below 1000ft AGL or 3000ft AMSL: 5000m visibility and clear of cloud.
Class D: 5000m visibility, 600m horizontal, 1000ft above and 500ft below cloud.
Special VFR: 1600m visibility and clear of cloud.

Question 3

Alternate Minima

Answer 3

Alternate Minima:
1500ft ceiling at SCT or worse (3-4 OKTA),
8000m visibility,
30% chance of fog, mist, dust or any other phenomenon reducing vis below minima,
Wind more than maximum for aircraft,
Thunderstorms including Prob30 for one.

If destination airport does not have a forecast, an alternate is required.

The alternate airport must have a weather forecast and itself not require an alternate.

Alternate not required when flying day VFR &:
Sufficient Holding fuel is carried,
Destination within 50nm of departure airport.

Question 4

Carriage of Documents

Answer 4

Carriage of Documents:

Flight Crew:
Licence
Medical Certificate
Government Issued Photo ID
Aircraft:
Flight Manual
Operational Instruction for any computerised navigational equipment in the aircraft
The minimum equipment list for the aircraft (if any)
Others
Pilot must carry the authorised aeronautical information for the flight and either aircraft’s flight technical log or its maintenance release, unless:
Day VFR within 50 nm of the departure aerodrome, or
Inside a flying training area for an aerodrome, or
A route to or from a flying training area which is not adjacent to its aerodrome
Overseas:
Certificate of Airworthiness and Certificate of Registration
Journey log
A list of passengers including their name, place of embarkation and destination
Manifest and detailed declaration of any cargo carried
A copy of any approval or authorisation held by the operator
A copy of the radio licence, if the aircraft has a radio station licence that is an apparatus licence or a class licence

Question 5

Requirements for AOC Application

Answer 5

Applicant’s name, contact details and ABN,
Address of the applicant’s operational headquarters, or mailing address if the same,
If the applicant is an individual, the intention that the applicant shall be the CEO,
If the applicant is a corporation, the name of each of the directors of the corporation,
Details of the Australian air transport operation covered by the application,
Compliance Matrix;
A tool for the applicant to construct a document that provides sufficient
details to demonstrate to CASA that they both understand the requirements
and have put in place the appropriate instructions. Procedures and practice
to ensure compliance with those requirements;
Fatigue Management System,
Drug and Alcohol Plan;
Part 99 of the CASR states that holders of an AOC who have employees,
contractors or subcontractors engaged in safety sensitive aviation activities
must develop and implement a DAMP;
Micro DAMP exception:
Small organisations who employee 10 or less employees
access to an alternative means of compliance within the
regulatory requirements;
If carrying dangerous goods, a completed manual or relevant section of exposition.
Details the policies and procedures for the handling, acceptance, and carriage of dangerous goods on board on an operator’s aircraft. The type of detail and extent of information included in a dangerous goods manual will be dictated by the nature of the operation and the operator’s policy on which classes or quantities of dangerous goods will be accepted for carriage;
Reference library,
List of aircraft with all relevant details, including copies of leasing or financial agreements, class ratings, registrations etc.
List of the areas/routes the aircraft and organisation will operate,
Who/what company is responsible for ongoing aircraft maintenance.

AOC’s have a validity period of 3 years and there are multiple types.

Question 6

Required Components of any AOC

Answer 6

A Safety Management System,
A Training and checking system,
Program for training and assessing human factors principles & non-technical skills,
Fatigue Management System,
Drug and Alcohol Management Plan (DAMP),
Dangerous Goods Manual,
Reference Library,
Selected operations to be conducted and under which parts,
Chosen FDP under which the AOC will operate.

Key personnel including:
Chief Executive Officer.
Head of Flying Operations.
Head of Training and Checking.
Safety Manager.

Question 7

Classification of Operations Overview

Answer 7

Part 91 contains the ‘General Operating and Flight Rules’.
This covers the general flight rules for all pilots, when operating under an AOC or other certificate, there will be other rules that apply in addition.

Part 119 contains ‘Australian Air Transport Operations Certification & Management’.
This covers the certification and management of Australian air transport operators. Air transport operations cover what used to be known as charter, RPT and medical operations.
Part 119 provides the framework for management of AOC’s, however it does not interact with Part 138 (Airwork).

Part 121 contains the ‘Australian Air Transport Operations - Larger aeroplanes’.
These are relevant when flying aeroplanes with a MTOW of >8618kg and/or aircraft with a configuration possibility of 9 or more passenger seats.
The major difference for this Part is the significantly different alternate aerodromes policy and specification of training and checking requirements, among other things.

Part 133 contains the ‘Australian Air Transport Operations - Rotorcraft’.
These are relevant for pilots operating helicopters (rotorcraft).
Encompasses the possible use of future powered-lift aircraft and introduces helicopter performance rules for the first time.

Part 135 contains the ‘Australian Air Transport Operations - Smaller aeroplanes’.
These are relevant when flying aeroplanes with a MTOW of <8618kg and/or aircraft with a configuration possibility of up to 8 passenger seats.
Operators may in some cases elect to reduce the MOPSCS by physically removing seats from the aircraft - though this is not required if the seat number is to be lower than the maximum certificated passenger seating capacity.

Part 135 introduces measures to control risk through administrative (procedural) defences and also require additional equipment, notably Terrain Awareness and Warning System (TAWS) for some aircraft.

Part 138 contains the ‘Aerial Work Operations’.
This is the modernised airwork operation part which contains just three primary definitions and can be applicable to both fixed & rotary wing aircraft.

Part 138 exists to allow Werial Work Operators to get a Certificate (AWC) rather than an AOC. This is to remove a large amount of detail required by AOC’s, thereby reducing the administrative overheads for the industry & CASA.

Question 8

Definition of Part 138

Answer 8

Aerial Work Operation.
One or more of the following airwork operations:
External Load Operation - carrying or towing a load outside an aircraft in flight and includes training for such an operation.
A Dispensing Operation - dropping or releasing any substance or object from an aircraft in flight and includes training for such an operation. Example of which would be incendiary dropping, or dropping of baits.
A Task Specialist Operation - carrying out a specialised activity using an aircraft in flight and includes training for such an activity. Example which would be a low-level weed survey, or pipeline inspection.

Question 9

Definition of Air Transport Operation

Answer 9

Air Transport Operation.
A passenger transport operation, a cargo transport operation or a medical transport operation, that:
Is conducted for hire or reward, or,
Is prescribed by an instrument issued under regulation 201.025.
Air transport operations do not contain airwork or balloon transport operations.

Question 10

Definition of Cargo Transport Operation

Answer 10

Cargo Transport Operation.
Means an operation of an aircraft that involves the carriage of cargo and crew only; but does not include any of the following:
An operation conducted for the carriage of the possessions of the operator or the pilot in command for the purpose of business or trade;
A medical transport operation.

Question 11

Definition of Medical Transport Operation

Answer 11

Medical Transport Operation.
The primary purpose of which is to transport one or more of the following:
Medical patients,
Medical personnel,
Blood, tissue or organs for transfusion, grafting or transplantation, or
Of a kind prescribed by the part 119 MOS for the purposes of this paragraph.
Despite this, an operation is not a medical transport operation if the operation is of a kind prescribed by the part 119 MOS for the purposes of this subclause.

Question 12

Definition of Passenger Transport Operation

Answer 12

Passenger Transport Operation.
A passenger transport operation is an operation of an aircraft that involves the carriage of passengers, whether or not cargo is also carried on the aircraft.
Despite (1), an operation is not a passenger transport operation if the operation is:
An operation of an aircraft with a special certificate of airworthiness,
A cost-sharing flight,
A medical transport operation,
If the registered operator of an aircraft is an individual - an operation of the aircraft
That involves the carriage of that individual; and,
Does not also involve the carriage of other passengers; or
If the registered operator of an aircraft is an individual - an operation of the aircraft:
That involves the carriage of that individual; and,
Involves the carriage of other passengers; and,
For which no payment or reward is made or given in relation to the carriage of the other passengers or cargo.

Question 13

Definition of Private Operation

Answer 13

Private – Non-profiting flight.
(i). Personal transportation of the aircraft owner,
(ii). Aerial spotting, no remuneration received by the pilot, owner of aircraft or any other person or organisation on whose behalf the spotting is conducted,
(iii). Agricultural operations on land owned and occupied by the owner of the aircraft,
(iv). Aerial photography, no remuneration received by the pilot, owner of aircraft or any other person or organisation on whose behalf the photography is being conducted,
(v). Carriage of persons or goods without charge, the goods being property of the owner, the pilot or hirer of the aircraft, not including items for purposes of trade,
(vi). The carriage is in accordance with (7A) an aircraft carries persons on a flight, other t than in accordance with fixed schedules and terminals is employed in private op’s if; no public notice or advertised or announced, not more than 6 people including the p pilot, no payment for the service of the crew, all passengers and crew share the cost flight, no other payment is made except cost sharing,
(vii). Carriage of goods other than purpose of trade,
(viii). Flight training other than prescribed in CASR 141.015, 142.015, CAR 5.01(1)

Question 14

Type of information contained in an Operations Manual

Answer 14

Chapter 1 – General.
Chapter 2 – Limitations.
Chapter 3 – Emergency Procedures.
Chapter 4A – Normal Procedures.
Chapter 4B – Abnormal Procedures.
Chapter 5 – Performance.
Chapter 6 – Mass and Balance.
Chapter 7 – Systems.
Chapter 8 – Maintenance.
Chapter 9 – Supplements.

Company Operations Manual:
Policies, Processes & Procedures.
Contact information.
Key personnel and organisational structure.
Which (CASR Part) operations the company will operate under.
The chosen FDP appendix will be used for the company.
Aircraft Operations.
Aerodromes and routing.
Training and Checking.
Fuel Policies.
Safety Management System.

Question 15

Flight & Duty Period Overview Appendix 1

Answer 15

Must have 8hrs of sleep opportunity within:
12hrs of commencing FDP/standby at home base.
10hrs of commencing FDP/standby away from home base.
Max 9hr FDP, with varying limits depending on the start and finish time.
Max cumulative flight time of 100hrs in 28 days.
Max cumulative flight time of 1000hrs in 365 days.
Scheduling permitted between 0700LMT / beginning of morning civil twilight (whichever is earliest) until 0100LMT.
FDP’s ending after 2200LMT count as late FDP’s, only 3 of these are permitted in any consecutive 168hr period.

Question 16

Drug & Alcohol regulations

Answer 16

CASR Part 99 focuses on drug and alcohol regulations.
Prescription drugs cannot be taken unless your DAME has cleared you.
Check the CASA website for approved medicines.
Non-Prescription drugs can only be taken if they are aspirin/panadol and does not have any side effect that relate to drowsiness or otherwise will affect your flying ability.
When unsure of drug use, contact DAME. They are the final guide for their use.
BAC ≤ 0.02%.

CASR 91.520 requires that a crew member must not commence their duty if they have
consumed alcohol within 8 hours of the flight beginning, or if an alcohol test reveals they
have exceeded the permitted level specified in CASR Part 99. 0.02 for 210L of breath.

Question 17

Day VFR Commercial Operation Instrument Requirements

Answer 17

Basic Requirements:

Indicated Airspeed,
Pressure Altitude,
Magnetic Heading, (Direct Reading Compass or Remote Indicating Compass)
Time, (hours, minutes, seconds)
Mach Number, (only required for aeroplanes with operating limitations expressed in terms of mach number)
Turn and Slip, (only required for an aeroplane conducting an aerial work operation)
Outside Air Temperature. (only required for aeroplanes conducting aerial work from an aerodrome at which ambient air temperature i not available from ground based instruments).
Other equipment stated on the flight manual.

For an aeroplane operating under day VFR, for which 2 pilots are required, it needs an independant:
1. Airspeed Indicator
2. Altimeter
3. Mach number indicator – but only for an aeroplane with operating limitations expressed in terms of Mach number
4. Turn and slip indicator

Question 18

Radiocommunication Requirements

Answer 18

Radiocommunication

For a flight in any class of airspace, an aeroplane must be fitted with at least 2 independent radiocommunication systems:
(a) each capable, under normal operating conditions, of communicating with an appropriate ground station from any point on the route, including in the event of any diversion; and
(b) each capable of receiving meteorological information at any time during the flight; and
(c) at least one of which must have two-way voice communication capability; and
(d) at least one of which must provide for communication on the aeronautical emergency frequency 121.5 MHz.
an aeroplane for a VFR flight by day must be fitted with the following radiocommunication systems:
(a) at least 1 VHF radiocommunication system;
(b) if a VHF radiocommunication system would not allow for continuous communication with ATS at all stages of the flight — one of the following:
(i) an additional radiocommunication system capable of continuous two-way communications with ATS

*Require 2 Radiocommunication equipment either:
2 x VHF if continuous communication with ATS can be maintained; or
1 x VHF or 1 HF if continuous communication with ATS cannot be maintained

Question 19

ELT Requirements

Answer 19

All Australian aircraft must, unless exempt, be fitted with an automatic ELT or carry at least one survival ELT before beginning a flight.
If the flight requires the carriage of more than one life raft, then the flight must be fitted with an automatic ELT and carry one survival ELT, or carry two survival ELTs.

1 handheld fire extinguisher with a max seating capacity of 9. Must be readily available to the pilot
Life Jackets. An aircraft shall be equipped with 1 life jacket per occupant when:
The aircraft is beyond gliding range from land (single-engine).
Occupants must wear the life jacket at all times when the aircraft is cruising over water at 2000ft or less, not include take-off’s or landings.
Life Rafts. An aircraft shall be equipped with a life raft with a spot for each occupant of the aircraft if for the lesser of the following options:
Turbine Propeller Engine with MTOW of more than 5700kg;
The distance the airplane can fly in 2hrs at its normal cruising speed,
400NM.
Any other aircraft;
The distance the airplance can fly in 30m at its normal cruising speed,
100NM.
Emergency Locator Transmitter must only be carried on certain flights. It is not required in the following circumstances:
If staying within 50nm of departure point.
If the aircraft is new and is being delivered following purchase or transfer of operator.
ELT is required in the following scenarios:
Where the carriage of life rafts are required.
During operations through survival areas.
When flown further than 50nm of the departure point.
On such flight where CASA directs the requirement.
Survival equipment must be carried when operating in designated remote areas or when carrying life raft. For more information read ERSA EMEG-4.

Question 20

Requirements for landing areas and aerodromes

Answer 20

Advisory Circular 91-02.

Question 21

GNSS and its use in VFR Navigation

Answer 21

Pilots operating under the VFR may use GPS to supplement map reading and other visual navigation techniques. It must be stressed that it is not an approval to replace visual navigation techniques with GNSS. Dependence on GPS is often blamed for a sharp rise in the number of violations of controlled and restricted airspace by VFR aircraft.
Over reliance on GNSS is often the cause of airspace violations as pilots think they can fly closer to control boundaries and do not take into consideration the tolerances for avoiding airspace.
An operator must be able, if flying under the VFR, to fix their position in intervals not exceeding 30 minutes visually.

GNSS may be used as a primary reference upon completion of a GNSS exam and have the stamp in their logbook.

Question 22

DA-40 Oil Max & Minimums

Answer 22

Maximum = 8 quarts.
Minimum = 4 quarts (6 LTF Requirements).
Oil: SAE15 W50 Ash less Dispersant

Question 23

DA-40 Fuel Tanks

Answer 23

Standard Tank: 152L Usable.
Max indicated fuel quantity: 2x 65L.
Max permissible difference between tanks: 38L.

Long Range Tank: 190L Usable.
Max indicated fuel quantity: 2x 61L.
Max permissible difference between tanks: 30L.

Question 24

Colour of Aviation Fuels

Answer 24

MOGAS: Red.
AVGAS 100: Green.
AVGAS 100LL: Blue.
AVTUR: Not coloured / straw.
High performance AVGAS: Purple

Question 25

Fuel Requirements

Answer 25

Fuel Requirements can be found in Part 91 Chapter 19. As a basic this requires between 30 - 45 minutes of final reserve fuel depending on the aircraft category and flight rules, as well as possible contingency fuel requirements depending on weight and engine type.

Fuel must be checked for contamination before the first flight of each day or after refuelling.

Question 26

Loading & Unloading Fuel

Answer 26

This information can be found in Part 91.475, 91.480 and 91.510. Hot refuelling is not allowed with AVGAS aircraft. When refuelling the following fire equipment are required:
There must be at least 1 or 2 (part 131 dependent) fire extinguishers not less than 6m and not more than 15m from the fuelling point.
Must be readily available for use.
Each fire extinguisher must be of a type and capacity suitable for extinguishing fuel and electrical fires.
The aircraft being refuelled must electrically bond the aircraft to the fuelling station. Passengers may not be on the aircraft, be boarding or disembarking while refuelling with a volatile fuel such as AVGAS.

Fuel that has been unloaded from an aircraft must never be re-used. This means not pumping this into an aircraft or back into a fuel bowser.

Question 27

Carriage requirements for larger aircraft

Answer 27

A load sheet must be carried for aircraft with MTOW <5700kg.
Passenger Lists including:
Aircraft registration.
The names of the passengers carried.
The date and the estimated time of departure.
The places of embarkation and destination.
Dangerous Cargo
If carried, the PIC must be informed of it along with its location as well as the nature and stowage of such cargo. Also the recommended precautions and actions were a leakage or fire to occur.

Question 28

Safety Briefing Components

Answer 28

Use of seatbelts and when they must wear them.
Rules around smoking onboard the aircraft (not allowed).
Use and location of emergency exits and equipment.
Requirements regarding seatbacks and attachments to seats.
How and when to adopt the brace position.
The location of any evacuation slides and how to use them.
If emergency oxygen is carried, how and when to use this.
How and where to stow carry-on baggage and personal effects along with the periods in which these items must be stowed or otherwise secured.
If the aircraft is fitted with escape path lighting, where it is and how to use it.
Any survival equipment carried onboard, where and how to use.
The requirement that life jackets must not be inflated inside the aircraft.
Limitations imposed on the use of portable ectronic devices.
Passengers seated in the emergency exit rows must be willing and able to operate the exit in the event of an emergency.
When a passenger is seated in a control seat that the controls must not be interfered with at any time.
For a parachuting aircraft, passengers must be told where to sit so that the aircraft can stay within weight and balance limitations.

Question 29

Carriage of Cargo

Answer 29

All cargo needs to be restrained in flight, can be carried on a seat if it doesn’t exceed 77kg, and can be carried on a control seat providing the aircraft does not exceed 5700kg.

Cargo must not obstruct an emergency exit, unless the operator or the pilot in command holds an approval from CASA under regulation 91.045.

Question 30

Passenger Seating Requirements

Answer 30

Passengers may be carried in a control seat, 2 children not exceeding 77kg may be carried on a single seat restrained sitting side by side, all crew members and passengers shall occupy a seat during – take off/landing, instrument approach, flying less then 1000ft AGL and in turbulence.

The exception is infants being carried in the arms of another seated person, stretcher cases, package dispatchers and parachutists.

Question 31

Dangerous Goods

Answer 31

For operations involving dangerous goods, the pilot must have completed a dangerous goods awareness course and hold a certificate.
Dangerous goods list can be found on “Can I pack it”

Question 32

DA-40 Loading System

Answer 32

Maximum take-off mass (Normal Category): 1150 kg 2535 lb.
if MÄM 40-227 is carried out: 1200 kg 2646 lb.
Maximum take-off mass (Utility Category): 980 kg 2161 lb.
Maximum landing mass:
Original MLG strut: 1092 kg 2407 lb.
Modified MLG strut ‘ (MÄM 40-123/e or OÄM 40-283): 1150 kg 2535 lb.
Maximum zero fuel mass: 1150 kg 2535 lb.
Max. load in standard baggage compartment: 30 kg 66 lb.
Max. load in baggage tube: 5 kg 11 lb.
Max. load in extended baggage compartment (OÄM 40-163).
Max. load in forward part: 45 kg 100 lb.
Max. load in aft part: 18 kg 40 lb.
Max. total load forward + aft: 45 kg 100 lb.
Max. surface load for baggage compartments: 75 kg/m² 15.3 lb/ft².

Question 33

Basic CSU Overview

Answer 33

Governor Malfunction = Possible Spring Failure = Coarse Pitch.
Propeller Hub Malfunction = Depends on the design, however for single engine aircraft like the DA-40 this will result in a fine pitch.

Question 34

Authorised Maintenance by CPL Holders

Answer 34

CAR 1988 Schedule 8.

1. Removal or installation of landing gear tyres, but only if the removal or installation does not involve the complete jacking of the aircraft.
2. Repair of pneumatic tubes of landing gear tyres.
3. Servicing of landing gear wheel bearings.
4. Replacement of defective safety wiring or split pins, but not including wiring or pins in control systems.
5. Removal or refitting of a door, but only if:

                 (a)  no disassembly of the primary structure or operating system of the aircraft is involved; and
   
                 (b)  if the aircraft is to be operated with the door removed--the aircraft has a flight manual and the manual indicates that the aircraft may be operated with the door removed.

6. Replacement of side windows in an unpressurised aircraft.
7. Replacement of seats, but only if the replacement does not involve disassembly of any part of the primary structure of the aircraft.
8. Repairs to the upholstery or decorative furnishings of the interior of the cabin or cockpit.
9. Replacement of seat belts or harnesses.
10. Replacement or repair of signs and markings.
11. Replacement of bulbs, reflectors, glasses, lenses, or lights.
12. Replacement, cleaning, or setting gaps of, spark plugs.
13. Replacement of batteries.
14. Changing oil filters or air filters.
15. Changing or replenishing engine oil or fuel.
16. Lubrication not requiring disassembly or requiring only the removal of non-structural parts, or of cover plates, cowlings and fairings.
17. Replenishment of hydraulic fluid.
18. Application of preservative or protective materials, but only if no disassembly of the primary structure or operating system of the aircraft is involved.
19. Removal or replacement of equipment used for agricultural purposes.
20. Removal or replacement of glider tow hooks.
21. Carrying out of an inspection under regulation 42G of a flight control system that has been assembled, adjusted, repaired, modified, or replaced.
22. Carrying out of a daily inspection of an aircraft.
23. Connection and disconnection of optional dual control in an aircraft without the use of any tools for the purpose of transitioning the aircraft from single to dual, or dual to single, pilot operation.
24. Inspections or checks set out in the following documents in circumstances where the document clearly states that the maintenance may be carried out by the pilot of the aircraft and the maintenance does not require the use of any tools or equipment:

                 (a)  the aircraft's approved maintenance data.
    
                 (b)  the aircraft's flight manual or an equivalent document;
    
                 (c)  any instructions issued by the NAA that approved the type certificate for the aircraft.

25. For an aircraft that is installed with an oxygen system for the exclusive use of ill or injured persons on an aircraft used to perform ambulance functions–replenishing the oxygen system installed on the aircraft.

Question 35

DA-40 Speed Limitations

Answer 35

VNE (Never Exceed Speed) = 178kts

VNO (Speed for normal operations in smooth air) = 129kts

VFE (Maximum Flap Extension Speed) = 91kts

VS (Stall Speed) = 53kts (clean configuration MTOW), 52kts (LDG configuration MTOW)
VA (Manoeuvre Speed; full deflection of controls in smooth air)

VB (Turbulence Penetration Speed) = 111kts (>1036kg), 94kts (780- 1036kg)

VX (Best Angle of Climb Speed) = 64kts
VY (Best Rate of Climb Speed) = 67kts (MTOW)

VTOSS (Take off Safety Speed) = 63kts

VR (Rotate Speed) = 59kts
Red Arc (Never Exceed/Danger) = 178kts

Yellow Arc (Caution Speeds) = 130 – 177kts
Caution range (may operate in this range in smooth air and with caution)

Green Arc (Normal Operation Speeds) = 52 – 129kts
Bottom: Stall speed clean and at idle power
Top: Maximum Structural cruise speed or Normal Operating Limit. Do not exceed this speed except in smooth air and with caution

White Arc (Flap Operation Speeds) = 49 – 91kts
Bottom: Stall speed in landing configuration
Top: Maximum speed with flap extended

Question 36

DA-40 Oil Temperatures

Answer 36

Green Arc: 149 - 230°F
Yellow Arc: 231 - 245°F
Red Arc: >245°
▪ Must have oil temperature of 149°F before you can take off.
Oil: SAE15 W50 Ash less Dispersant

Question 37

DA-40 Oil Pressures

Answer 37

▪ Green Arc: 56 – 95 psi
▪ Yellow Arc: (IDLE RPM): 25 – 55 psi
▪ Yellow Arc: (Ground Warm Up): 96 – 97 psi
▪ Red Arc: <25 OR >97 psi
Oil: SAE15 W50 Ash less Dispersant

Question 38

Low Oil Pressure

Answer 38

▪ If Low oil pressure is accompanied by normal oil temperatures, there is a possibility the oil pressure gauge or relief value is functioning.
▪ A leak in the line to the gage is not necessarily caused for an immediate
precautionary landing because an orifice in this line will prevent a sudden
loss of oil from the engine sump.
▪ However, a landing at the nearest airport would be advisable to inspect the source of trouble

Question 39

Total Loss of Oil Pressure

Answer 39

If a total loss of oil pressure is accompanied by a rise in oil temp, there is a good reason to suspect an engine failure is imminent.
▪ Reduce engine power immediately and select a suitable forced landing field. Use only the minimum power required to reach the desired touchdown spot.

Question 40

Static & Fuel Vents

Answer 40

The Static Vent is located on the back of the Pitot Tube, as the DA40 has a Pitot-Static Tube.
▪ Pitot measures total and it’s in the front
▪ Static is measured at the back one at the top one at the bottom and it measures static pressure
o 2 Fuel Tank Vents beneath each wing.

Question 41

Essential Bus

Answer 41

Essential Bus cuts the flow of current from any non-essential electrical items in the cockpit. The items that will continue to receive current are shown in the Circuit Breakers section.

Question 42

Cabin Vents

Answer 42

Fresh air intakes for cabin vents are underneath the wing, near the root of the wing.

Question 43

Aircraft Tie-downs

Answer 43

There are three tie down points, one under each wing and one under the tail.

Question 44

Aerodynamic features on the DA-40

Answer 44

The left wing has a stall strip.
This is an uneven surface that causes the stall to occur at the root of the wing, creating a more predictable stall.

Differential Frise Ailerons – Differential, because they deflect downwards more than they deflect upwards. Frise Ailerons due to the mass that is located under the outboard section of the aileron, which increases drag.

The Mass Balance is located under each wing, between the 2 bonding cables.

The Rudder has a Aerodynamic Balance, this generates more drag to keep the rudder in place.

Question 45

DA-40 Engine

Answer 45

Lycoming IO-360-M1A. This is a horizontally imposed, 360 cubic inches fuel injected engine.

Question 46

DA-40 Propeller

Answer 46

Hartzell prop 74”

Question 47

DA-40 Emergency Battery

Answer 47

Emergency Battery is a Lithium-ion battery that powers FAI and Flood Lights for a maximum of 90 minutes, but we can still fly without it since these are for IFR.

Question 48

DA-40 Tyre Pressure

Answer 48

Tyre Pressures: 29 psi (free-castering nose gear), 36 psi (sprung steel strut main landing gear)

Question 49

DA-40 Load Factors

Answer 49

+3.8g to -1.52g (Normal Category)

Question 50

DA-40 MTOW & Ramp Weight

Answer 50

1200Kg MTOW.
1204Kg Ramp.

Question 51

DA-40 Oil

Answer 51

SAE15 W50 Ash less Dispersant

When the propeller dome loses oil, the propeller goes to fine for more drag and more chances of restarting

Question 52

DA-40 Ammeter type

Answer 52

Left-zero

Question 53

Maintenance Release Parts & Details

Answer 53

▪ Part 1: Scheduled Maintenance
▪ Part 2: Unscheduled Maintenance
▪ Part 3: Daily Inspection

Question 54

Who can sign off Maintenance Release

Answer 54

RPL & PPL may sign for themselves.
CPL holders may sign for any users of the aircraft over the course of the day.

Question 55

DA-40 Hydraulics

Answer 55

Brakes & CSU are hydraulically powered.

Question 56

Purpose and operation of CSU

Answer 56

▪ Aims to Maintain a constant RPM
▪ Drops when it gets to a point where it can’t maintain the RPM
▪ IDLE on Ground = 600 – 800 RPM
▪ IDLE in air = 1200 – 1300 RPM since air hitting prop drives it faster ▪ If dome loses oil, the prop goes to fine
▪ If oil is added, prop goes to coarse
▪ Overspeed in Prop; fly weights go further out; spring compresses and level/piston moves up. So more oil gets moved into the hub moving the blades to coarse
▪ Opposite for Under speed.

Question 57

Carburettor recap

Answer 57

Carburettor mixes air and fuel together before entering cylinder. DA40 is fuel injected
o Impact Icing: occurs when
▪ Below 0 deg C
▪ Clouds and water vapour/moisture
▪ Descend to get rid of impact icing as well as pitot heat

Question 58

Manifold Cylinder

Answer 58

Manifold cylinder is in cylinder 4, back left.

Question 59

Dead Cut

Answer 59

Is the magneto check, specifically the off-would-stop check before shut-down when the magneto is momentarily placed in ‘off’.

Dead Cut is used to make sure:
▪ The plane is earthed
▪ So the props don’t inadvertently start up
▪ No fuel inside the engine

Question 60

Starter Motor

Answer 60

The start is kept as short as possible so that the starter motor does not overheat.

Question 61

Prolonged Idling

Answer 61

Prolonged IDLING:
▪ Cools engines beyond limit
▪ Spark plug Fouling

Question 62

Detonation

Answer 62

▪ Rough running
▪ High temp
▪ Black smoke

Question 63

Pre-ignition

Answer 63

Is when a cylinder fires before it’s supposed to, this can be caused by:
▪ Too hot spark plug
▪ Glowing carbon deposits
▪ Insufficient oil in engine
▪ Overly advanced ignition timing

Question 64

Glide Ratio & Range of DA-40

Answer 64

Glide ratio 8:1 which is approx. 1.44nm horizontally per 1000ft

Question 65

DA-40 Electrical System

Answer 65

Alternator Capacity: 28V/70 amps
Battery Capacity: 24V/10 ampere hour
Ammeter Normal Reading: 17-20 amps
Voltmeter:
▪ displays the potential on the main bus
▪ alternator operating it will show alternator voltage
▪ otherwise it will show battery

Question 66

Turbo & Supercharging

Answer 66

Ground Boosting System:
Increase pressure on ground.

Altitude boosting:
Maintain sea level pressure to a certain altitude.

Critical Altitude:
An altitude when the preset upper deck pressure cannot be maintained – even with the throttle fully open. Intended for a test pilot to monitor the performance of the system and diagnose faults.

Full throttle height:
The height above which a particular manifold pressure is no longer available at full throttle is full throttle height for that manifold pressure.

Question 67

Pressure Instrument Error

Answer 67

Static Vent Blocked (S:
Airspeed indicator will under read on climb (lower IAS than actual).
Airspeed indicator will over read in descent (higher IAS than actual).
Altimeter will read the height at blockage occurs.
Vertical speed indicator will read zero.

PUDSUC.

Pitot Tube Blocked:
Airspeed indicator will over read on climb
Airspeed indicator will under read in descent

Alternate Air:
Provide an alternate air source to the engine in case the air intake/air filter is blocked. No filtered air for ALTN Air.

Emergency Switch:
Provide electricity to stand-by AH. Battery lasts for up to 30 minutes with only essential electrical items active.