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Safety Officer 2nd edition > Safety Officer 2nd > Flashcards

Safety Officer 2nd Flashcards

1
Q

Provides opportunities to identify hazards, distractions, and risks that are predictable or typical in the normal daily operational setting

A

pre-incident or pre-emergency planning

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2
Q

How often are surveys updated when there has be a change of occupancy, and/or alterations or renovations have been made to the structure

A

Annually or Biannually

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3
Q

NFPA standard for Pre-Incident planning

A

1620

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4
Q

A condition, substance, activity or device that can directly cause an injury, fatality, or property loss

A

Hazard

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5
Q

Identify potential hazards and risks to employees and the public, and to identify the control measures implemented to mitigate them

A

Site Safety Plan

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6
Q

Leading cause of fatalities that occur before, during, and shortly after emergency operations .

A

Trauma, sudden cardiac arrest, and vehicle accidents

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7
Q

Most accidents that occur with firefighters occur in

A

Civilian vehicles

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8
Q

NFPA standard for Emergency Services Incident Management System

A

1561

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9
Q

Best span of control consists of 3 to 7 subordinates with how many being the preferred number

A

5

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10
Q

Organizational level that has responsibilities for operations within a geographic area

A

Divisions

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11
Q

Divisions in a multi-story building are usually indicated

by

A

Floor # or basement level

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12
Q

Organizational level responsible for specific functional assignments

A

Groups

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13
Q

Most complex type of incident that requires national resources and a written IAP

A

Type 1

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14
Q

Second most complex type of incident that requires resources from outside the local jurisdiction and has multiple operational periods

A

Type 2

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15
Q

Type of incident that will exceed the capabilities of the jurisdiction and may have multiple operational periods

A

Type 3

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16
Q

Incident may have several resources, including a task force or strike team

A

Type 4

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17
Q

Incident usually managed with one or two single resources

A

Type 5

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18
Q

Point of contact for other agencies and coordinates the activities with them

A

Liaison Officer

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19
Q

Provides info to the media

A

PIO

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20
Q

Reports to IC by providing management support functions that are not directly involved with the operational tasks

A

Safety Officer

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21
Q

Plans for managing incidents in a coordinated manner

A

Operational Risk Management

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22
Q

Responsible for developing an operational risk mgt plan within the department

A

HSO

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23
Q

Most common method used for risk management

A

Risk Reduction

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24
Q

Fire personnel should asses incidents for what when establishing the Incident Command Structure

A

Causes, needs, size and complexity

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25
Q

The General staff consists of who

A

Planning, Operations, Logistics, Finance

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26
Q

The five control measures controlling risks and hazards

A

Elimination, Substitution, Engineering controls, Administrative controls, PPE

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27
Q

Operational element that provides a framework for maintaining control of personnel assignments and actions

A

ICS

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28
Q

All incidents should have a

A

IAP

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29
Q

What is required for incidents with multiple operational periods or those involving hazardous materials

A

Written IAP’s

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30
Q

When operating in the hot zone, units should be within what range of each other

A

Visible range

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31
Q

Common barriers to communication

A

Distance, Physical Barriers, Interference, Ambient noise,, Communication system overload, Task saturation

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32
Q

How many FF’s does it take to retrieve a downed FF

A

11

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33
Q

At large buildings how long could search and rescue from a RIC crew take

A

20 minutes

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34
Q

Structure fire or incidents that require the use of SCBA’s is to send personnel to rehab when

A

2- 30 minute bottles or 1 - 60 minute bottle

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35
Q

Risk a lot for

A

Savable lives

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36
Q

Risk ourselves a little for

A

Savable property

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37
Q

Risk nothing

A

For building or lives already lost

38
Q

Point at which air in SCBA will last only long enough to exit

A

Point of no return

39
Q

Chemical agents can be in form of

A

Liquid, Solid or gas

40
Q

Biological agents can be in the form of

A

Liquid or solid

41
Q

Stabilization of objects in danger of collapse

A

Shoring

42
Q

Creating a base to stabilize and object

A

Cribbing

43
Q

All personnel must wear a PFD when operating how close to water

A

10 feet

44
Q

Retroreflective trim must extend across what percent of the front of vehicle

A

25%

45
Q

Retroreflective trim must extend across what percent of the sides and rear of vehicle

A

50%

46
Q

Minimum retroreflective trim must be

A

4 inches

47
Q

How many traffic vests are required for each seated position

A

one

48
Q

NFPA requires how many modes of warning lights

A

2, One for response and one for blocking

49
Q

Guideline for placing cones to divert traffic is to place cones at intervals equal to

A

one half the posted speed limit

50
Q

You should consider all structures what until proven otherwise

A

Occupied

51
Q

Devices that have damaging explosive effects but also admit radiation exposure to victims

A

Dirty Bomb

52
Q

What told are the most diversified of the tool group

A

Cutting

53
Q

How fast can frostbite occur

A

15 minutes

54
Q

winds as low as what speed can be deadly to personnel if not alert to the rapidly changing conditions

A

10 mph

55
Q

Winds greater than what speed will reduce aerial ladder load capacity

A

20 mph

56
Q

What condition can high noise levels lead to

A

Tunnel Hearing

57
Q

Residential structures built after when, burn hotter, faster and produce more smoke with flammable properties than traditional or legacy construction

A

1990

58
Q

Horizontal movement of a layer of hot gases and combustion by products from the center point of the plume, when the vertical development of the rising plume is redirected by a horizontal surface such as a ceiling

A

Ceiling Jet

59
Q

The tendency of gases to form into layers according to temperature

A

Heat Stratification and Thermal Balance

60
Q

Rapid transition from growth stage to fully developed stage is known as

A

Flashover

61
Q

What occurs when all combustible materials in the compartment is burning

A

Fully Developed

62
Q

While no exact temperature is associated with flashover, but it typically occurs at

A

1,100 degrees ceiling temperature

63
Q

At what speed can create wind driven conditions

A

10 - 15 mph

64
Q

Most common heated particles found in smoke

A

Tar, Soot, and Carbon

65
Q

What gases gives smoke its white color

A

Moisture and Heat

66
Q

Color smoke that indicates unfinished wood burning

A

Brown smoke

67
Q

Refers to dark black, thick turbulent smoke that is ready to ignite

A

Black Fire

68
Q

An increase in a liquids surface area correlates to the generation of

A

More Flammable Vapors

69
Q

Process of a solid beginning to emit gases due to heat exposure

A

Pyrolize

70
Q

When a fire becomes vent-controlled, the fires HHR will

A

Decrease

71
Q

Short lived, high intensity fire in a small area at a wild land fire

A

Flaring

72
Q

Unusual colored smoke may indicate a need for

A

Different extinguishing agent

73
Q

Planned, systematic, and coordinated introduction of air and removal of hot gases and smoke from a building

A

Tactical Ventilation

74
Q

What can cause smoke to appear white and give false impression of interior conditions

A

Cold Temp

75
Q

What may occur before or after the decay stage

A

Smoke explosion

76
Q

Fire behavior indicators

A

Building features, Smoke, Air flow, Heat, Flame

77
Q

Assignment of ISO is responsibility of

A

Incident Commander

78
Q

Observing lowering of the neutral plane through a window may indicate

A

Backdraft conditions

79
Q

Operational designation that indicates an active shooter or explosion hazard

A

Threat zone

80
Q

Helicopter landing zone minimum

A

100X100 ft

81
Q

Landing zone slope should not exceed

A

5 degrees

82
Q

What requires immediate action in order to prevent significant injury of fatality

A

Imminent threats

83
Q

Ability ro reasonably predict the future well in advance of the change

A

Forecasting

84
Q

Who ensures the resource needs are appropriate to the situation

A

ISO

85
Q

Area usually within the hot zone which personnel should avoid regardless of their level of PPE

A

Exclusion Zone

86
Q

Operational zone deemed too dangerous for personnel to enter under any conditions

A

No-Entry Zone

87
Q

Operational zone designation that indicates an active shooter or explosion hazard

A

Threat Zone

88
Q

Collapse zone is generally

A

1 1/2 times the height of the structure and extending the full length of the structure

89
Q

Most collapse usually involve what

A

Brick or Masonry block

90
Q

Good rule to follow is for the landing zone site to be

A

2 times the size of the rotor diameter

91
Q

Informal discussion with responders after incident has been terminated and before members are relived of duty

A

Defusing

92
Q

Gathering of information from all personnel involved in incident within a few days of the incident

A

Debriefing

Safety Officer 2nd edition (1 decks)

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