SA - most of written midterm Flashcards

1
Q

2 forms of bone

A

Cortical (compact)

Cancellous (spongy or medullary)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Cortical (compact bone)

A

Appears as solid mass of hard, dense mineralized bone. Found around the periphery of bones. WEIGHT-BEARING portion of the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cancellous (spongy/medullary) bone

A

Mineralized network of bony plates (trabeculae) that forms a mesh work that resembles sponge. The spaces between the trabeculae contain fat or blood forming tissue. Located at the center of the bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Long bones

A

Found in the limbs. Length is greater than the width. Composed of: diaphysis, epiphysis, epiphyseal plate, metaphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Diaphysis

A

Tubular shaft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Epiphysis

A

Two end regions, distal and proximal, of the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Epiphyseal plate

A

Separates the diaphysis and epiphysis. Where growth takes place as bone increases in length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Metaphysis

A

Part of the diaphysis that lies adjacent to the epiphyseal plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Short bones

A

Found in hands and feet
Roughly cuboidal in shape
Composed of cancellous bone surrounded by compact bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Flat bones

A

Ribs, sternum, and calvarium of the skull/ scapula and clavicle also
Inner and outer layer of compact bone separated by cancellous bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Sesamoid bones

A

Developed within muscle tendons that rub over bony surfaces

Patella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Irregular bones

A

Odd shaped bones that don’t fit into any other category of bone
Composed of an outer layer of compact bone and inner of cancellous/spongy bone
Vertebrae, particular bones of the skull, and the pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Adult Axial Skeleton

A
80
Bones of the skull = 22
Ossicles of the middle ear = 6
Hyoid = 1
Vertebral = 27 (cervical = 7; thoracic = 12; lumbar = 5; sacrum = 1; coccyx = 1)
Sternum = 1
Ribs = 24 (12 pairs)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Adult Appendicular Skeleton

A
126 bones
Upper extremities = 64
- scapula = 2
- clavicle = 2
- humerus = 2 
- radius = 2
- ulna = 2
- carpals = 16
- metacarpals = 10
- phalanges = 26

Lower extremities

  • os coxae (innominate bone) = 2
  • femur = 2
  • tibia = 2
  • fibula = 2
  • patella = 2
  • tarsals = 14
  • metatarsals = 10
  • phalanges = 28
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Vertebral Column Functions (7)

A

PROTECTION of the spinal cord
STABILIZATION of the entire body
SUPPORT AND WEIGHT BEARING
- the vertebral column supports the head and the entire weight of the body
SHAPE AND POSITION with the lordodic and kyphotic curves
SKELETAL FORMATION
- it is part of the axial skeleton and has attachments of the ribs
RESILIENCY
-shock absorbing
MINERAL PRODUCTION
- calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

spinal column includes all ____

A

All vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Average length for a male and female spinal column

A
Male = 71cm = 28in
Female = 61cm = 24in
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Intervertebral Discs (IVDs) make up ____ of spinal column

A

1/4 of spinal column

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Two types of spinal curves

A

Primary - kyphotic

Secondary - lordodic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Primary/Kyphotic Curve

A

Seen in the thoracic and sacral regions
You are born with them
Convexed posteriorly
Accommodating curves bc they are in the areas that accommodate the visceral organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Secondary/Lordodic Curves

A

Seen in cervical and lumbar regions
Develop them as we grow
Convexed anteriorly
Compensatory bc they compensate to keep us in the upright position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Intervertebral Foramina

A

Holes formed by the superior notch and inferior notch of the vertebrae that are on the pedicles
Allow for passage of nerves and vessels
Smallest in cervical and largest in lumbar
Change in size with movement of the spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

_____ true vertebrae

A

24
Moveable
Cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

_____ false ribs

A

2
Non moveable
Sacrum and coccyx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Typical Vertebrae (6 characteristics)

A
  1. 1 vertebral body which functions for support
  2. 2 pedicles that function to protect
  3. 2 laminae that function to protect
  4. 4 articulate processes (APs) that, due to their shape, function to reduce movement
  5. 2 transverse processes (TPs) whose function is to allow movement and muscle attachment
  6. 1 spinous process (SP) whose function is to allow for movement, thus muscle attachment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Atypical Vertebrae

A

Peculiar

Those that have something more or something less than the typical 6 characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Typical Cervical Vertebrae

A

C3-C6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Typical Thoracic Vertebrae

A

T2-T8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Typical Lumbar Vertebrae

A

L1-L4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Atypical Cervical Vertebrae

A

C1 (atlas), C2 (axis), C7 (vertebral prominent)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Atypical Thoracic Vertebrae

A

T1, T9, T10, T11, T12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Atypical Lumbar Vertebrae

A

L5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Anterior Landmark - C3 vertebral body

A

Hyoid bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Anterior Landmark - C4/C5 vertebral bodies

A

Thyroid cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Anterior Landmark - C6 vertebral body

A

Cricoid cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Anterior Landmark - C5, C6, C7 vertebral bodies

A

Thyroid gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Anterior Landmark - T2 vertebral body

A

Jugular notch aka suprasternal notch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Anterior Landmark - T4/T5 vertebral bodies

A

Sternal angle of Lewis

  • jxn where the second costal cartilage attaches with the manubrium
  • also where the articulation between manubrium and the body of the sternum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Anterior Landmark - T9 vertebral body

A

Jxn of the sternal body and the xiphoid process (xiphosternal joint)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Anterior Landmark - T10 vertebral body

A

Xiphoid process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Anterior Landmark - L4 vertebral body

A

Umbilicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Posterior Landmark - EOP ( external occipital protuberance)

A

Protuberance in the midline of the occipital bone which is on the same line as the superior nuchal line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Posterior Landmark - C2 spinous process

A

First prominent sp inferior to the EOP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Posterior Landmark - C7 or T1 SP

A

Vertebral prominence (VP); anatomically, in 70% C7 will be VP; in 30% C1 will be VP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Posterior Landmark - T3 SP

A

Level of the base or root of the spine of the scapula when the patient is in the prone position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Posterior Landmark - T4 SP

A

Level of the base or root of the spine of the scapula when the patient is in the sitting or standing position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Posterior Landmark - T6 SP

A

Level of the inferior angle of the scapula when the patient is in the prone position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Posterior Landmark - T7 SP

A

Level of the inferior angle of the scapula when the patient is in the sitting or standing position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Two portions of vertebrae

A

Anterior and posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Anterior portion of vertebrae components

A

Vertebral body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Posterior portion of vertebrae components

A

Vertebral arch and 7 processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

7 processes of the posterior portion of the vertebrae

A

2 laminae and 2 pedicles of the vertebral arch
1 SP
2 TPs
4 APs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Function of vertebral body

A

Support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Function of pedicles

A

Protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Function of laminae

A

Protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Function of TPs

A

Movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Function of SP

A

Movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Function of APs

A

Restriction of movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Atlas is the ONLY vertebrae to be _____________ TO THE ENTIRE SPINE

A

ATYPICAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Vertebral canal = spinal foremen = spinal ring
Name before birth?
Spinal foramina?

A

Neural foremen or neural rings

Are the holes that are formed when the pedicles of the adjacent vertebrae come together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Vertebral canal = spinal canal
Before birth?
Vertebral canal?

A

Neural canal

Formed when two or more vertebral foremen are put together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

BODY - _______ portion of the vertebrae and the _______ single portion

A

Anterior

Largest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

BODY - superior and inferior portions are ______ and receive the convexity of the IVD

A

Concave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

BODY - the anterior portion has several small holes for the passage of the _______ ________ into the vertebral body (spongy bone area)

A

Nutrient arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

BODY - the posterior region has 1 or more large holes to receive the _________ __________ which drains the vertebral body

A

Basivertebral vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

BODY - central region is _________ bone

- function?

A

Spongy

In the production if red blood cells and provides nourishment to the IVD. Gives strength to the vertebral body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

BODY - peripheral region of the body is _________ bone
- the vertebral end plates are rings of compact bone that surround the vertebral body. They are important in creating the trabeculae due to weight bearing forces

A

Compact = cortical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

PEDICLES - bony pillars that extend ________ and ________ from the vertebral body. They connect the body to the ________

A

Posteriorly and laterally

Laminae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

PEDICLES - constricted to form and __________ ___________ ____________ and ____________ ___________ ______ that forms part of the IVF

A

Superior vertebral notch

Inferior vertebral notch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

PEDICLES - pedicongenic stenosis

A

If the pedicles are congenitally shortened, it may cause a narrowing of the vertebral canal at that level resulting in an impingement upon the spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

PEDICLES - spondylolithesis

A

If the pedicles are congenitally elongated, it may cause the vertebra to slip anteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

LAMINAE - two broad plates that extend ________ and ______. The two plates fuse in the midline to form the base of the _______ ________

A

Anteriorly and medially

Spinous process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

SPINOUS PROCESS - the spine is projected _______ from the junction of the ________. The ______ fuse to form this.

A

Posteriorly
Laminae
Laminae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

TRANSVERSE PROCESSES - projections that extend ________ from the junction of the ________ and _________.

A

Laterally
Pedicles
Laminae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

TRANSVERSE PROCESSES - vary in _______, __________, and _________ in the different regions of the spine

A

Size
Shape
Location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

ARTICULAR PROCESSES = _____________

A

Zygopophyses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

ARTICULAR PROCESSES - 2 _________ APs and 2 ________ APs that arise from the junction of the laminae and pedicles

A

Superior

Inferior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

ARTICULAR PROCESSES - each process has a s,oath surface called a _________. These 4 ______ form the articulation (joint) between adjacent vertebrae. That joint is called the _________ joint or “___” joint

A

Facet
Facets
Zygopophyseal or “Z”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

ARTICULAR PROCESSES - the orientation of the processes determines what type of ________ that will occur in that region of the spine. This is why they function to ________ movement

A

Motion(s)

Restrict

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

VERTEBRAL END PLATES aka _______ __________ _______

A

Cartilaginous end plates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

VERTEBRAL END PLATES - there are 2, ________ and _____

A

Superior

Inferior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

VERTEBRAL END PLATES - they surround the ________ section of the vertebral bodies

A

Peripheral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

VERTEBRAL END PLATES - they are attached to two adjacent ________ ________ and _____

A

Vertebral bodies

IVDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

TYPICAL CERVICAL BODY - shape?

A

oval or rectangular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

CERVICAL UNCINATE PROCESSES
Where?
May hypertrophy and grow upward into the IVF resulting in?
Found in which vertebrae?

A

Concavity of the superior surface projects upward on the lateral sides
Prevent lateral displacement of the vertebrae
Result in foraminal encroachment
Found C3-C7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

CERVICAL SPs
Bifid on C_ to C_
C1?
C7?

A

2-6
Does not have in
Is not bifid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

CERVICAL TPs
Hole in TP called ______ ________ which is for the passage of vertebral _______ and _______ nerves.
Vertebral artery passes through ___-___ to enter the foramen magnum of the occiput to form the basilar artery.
Anterior?
Posterior?
Space between anterior and posterior? What passes through this?
TPs project ________ and _______

A
Transverse foramen
Artery and sympathetic
C6 to C1
Anterior - Costal transverse process
Posterior - true transverse process.
Costotransverse lamella. Spinal nerve
Laterally and anteriorly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

CERVICAL VERTEBRAL FORAMEN
shape? Same as ______, but _______
Have _____ foramen of the entire spine, with C1 and C2 being the ______ overall

A
Triangular
Lumbar
Larger
Largest
Largest
89
Q

THORACIC VERTEBRAL BODY

shape?

A

Heart shaped

90
Q

THORACIC VERTEBRAL BODY

_______ ______ are located superiorly and inferiorily on the body for the attachment of the head of the ribs.

A

Costotransverse facets

91
Q

Two types of Costotransverse facets

A

Full facets and Demifacets

92
Q

TYPICAL THORACIC BODIES have _ Demi facets

A

4; 2 superior and 2 inferior

93
Q

TYPICAL THORACIC PEDICLES
Inferior vertebral notches are ______ and extend more ______ than others in the regions of the spine. The superior notches are ______

A

Larger
Deeper
Shallower

94
Q

TYPICAL THORACIC LAMINAE

are ____ and ____ and overlaps adjacent vertebrae

A

Broad and thick

95
Q

TYPICAL THORACIC FORAMEN

Shape?

A

Small and round

96
Q

TYPICAL THORACIC TPs
Make good ______ ______ for adjusting
_______ ______ are located here for the sites of articulation with the tubercle of the ribs (present on all TPs EXCEPT ______ and _____)

A

Contact points
Costotransverse facets
T11 and T12

97
Q

TYPICAL THORACIC SP
upper?
Mid?
Lower?

A

Directed obliquely downward
Directed almost vertically
Directed almost horizontally and club shaped

98
Q

ARTICULATIONS OF THE THORACIC VERTEBRAES

how many?

A
12
4 APs
4 Demifacets
2 Costotransverse facets
2 IVD
99
Q

LUMBAR VERTEBRAL BODY

shape?

A

Kidney shaped

100
Q

LUMBAR PEDICLES

_____ and _____ with _____ inferior notches

A

Strong and short

Deep

101
Q

LUMBAR VERTEBRAL FORAMEN

shape?

A

Triangular

102
Q

LUMBAR TPs

______ and _____-like

A

Thin and blade-like

103
Q

LUMBAR APs
have rounded enlargements called _______ processes that are located on the superior AP
Between the mammillary process and TP are _____ processes

A

Mammillary

Accessory

104
Q

ATLAS (C1)

Essentially a bony ring consisting of 4 things

A

Anterior arch
Posterior arch
Two lateral masses under the articulating surfaces
Two TPs

105
Q
ATLAS (C1)
Anterior arch: 
\_\_/\_\_ of the vertebral foramen
\_\_\_\_ tubercle
\_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_- for articulation with the dens
A

1/5
Anterior
Fovea dentalis

106
Q

ATLAS (C1)
Posterior Arch:
Forms __/__ of the vertebral foramen
_____ tubercle (for muscular and ligamentous attachment)
superior vertebral groove for passage of ____ artery and _____ spinal nerve
Inferior vertebral groove for passage of _____ spinal nerve

A
2/5
Posterior
Vertebral
C1
C2
107
Q
ATLAS (C1)
Lateral Masses:
Forms \_\_/\_\_ of arch on both sides
Are between the \_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_
There are 2 \_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_ on the internal portion and lateral surfaces of the bony ring. They are for the attachment of the transverse ligament which prevents \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ displacement of the dens
A

1/5
Articulating surfaces
Median tubercles
Posterior

108
Q

ATLAS (C1)
Neural Foramina:
Composed of 2 _____ portions that are divided by the transverse ligament (anterior for what articulation? Posterior for ____ ____ of the spinal cord)

A

Unequal
Odontoid(dens)/C1
Neural portion

109
Q

ATLAS (C1)
TPs
_____ in the cervical spine

A

LARGEST TP IN CERVICAL SPINE

110
Q

AXIS (C2)
_____ and _____
____ protrudes from body and is said to be the body of C1
Has anterior inferior lipping but no _____ _____
First prominent ____ _____
_____ _____ shortest in the cervical spine

A
Largest and strongest
Dens
Uncinate process
Spinous process
Transverse process
111
Q

AXIS (C2)

6 articulations

A

2 with C1 inferior articular facets
2 with C3 superior articular facets
1 with anterior arch of atlas
1 with C3 body via the IVD

112
Q
C7
Known as \_\_\_\_\_\_ vertebrae
Starts to pick pick up characteristics of \_\_\_\_\_ vertebrae
SP \_\_\_\_\_ in cervical spine
VP?
No \_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_
No \_\_\_\_\_ SP
A
Transitional
Thoracic
largest
Vertebral prominens -70%: moveable; 30%: on T1 non moveable
Anterior inferior lipping
Spinous process
113
Q

T1
1 pair of _____ ____ superiorly and 1 pair of _______ inferiorly
2 ______ facets on the TPS

A

Full facets
Demifacets
Costotransverse

114
Q

T9 Vertebrae
1 pair of ____ superiorly on the body
2 ______ facets on TP

A

Demifacets

Costotransverse

115
Q

T10 VERTEBRAE
1 pair or _____ ______ superiorly
Two _______ facets on TPs

A

Full facets

Costotransverse

116
Q

T11 and T12 VERTEBRAE
1 pair of _____ facets
No _____ facets in TPs
_____ vertebrae (Begin to form rudimentary _____ processes and _____ processes)

A
Full 
Costotransverse 
Transitional
Mammillary
Accessory
117
Q
ATYPICAL THORACIC ARTICULATIONS: 
T1
T9
T10
T11
T12
A
12
10
10
8
8
118
Q

L5
Shape of vertebral body
Short SP that tips ______ toward ___
TP arises from the jxn of the pedicle and the body ______ to the IVF
Inferior articular facets located in _____ plane

A

Large, wedge shaped
Upwards
Anterior
Coronal

119
Q

SACRUM
formed by the fusion of ___ segments
Provides ____ and ____ to the pelvis and transmits the weight to the pelvis and lower extremities to the _____ joint and ____ joints

A
5
Strength
Stability
Sacroiliac 
Hip
120
Q

SACRUM
Base:
____ portion where it articulates with ___
Superior articular facets are facing posteriorly and are oriented in the ____ plane

A

Upper
L5
Coronal

121
Q

SACRUM
Apex:
___ portion where it articulates with the base of the ____

A

Lower

Coccyx

122
Q
SACRUM
Anterior surface:
Lateral view: \_\_\_\_\_ in shape
Sacral promontory ( on body of \_\_\_\_)
Transverse ridges (\_\_)
Anterior sacra Foramina (2 rows of \_\_\_)
Ala of sacrum (TP of \_\_\_)
A
Concave
S1
4
4
S1
123
Q

SACRUM (Posterior surface)
Lateral view: ____ in shape
Medial sacral crest (sacral tubercles) = ____ _____
Sacral grooves = ______
Intermediate sacral crest = _____ _____
Lateral sacral crest = ______ _____
Posterior sacral Foramina (2 rows of ____)
______ ____ = non fusion of the S5 lamina and area where S5 and Co1 nerve exits
______ ____ = articular process of S5

A
Convex
Spinal processes
Laminae
Articular processes
Transverse processes
4
Sacral hiatus
Sacral Cornu
124
Q

SACRUM
Lateral surface:
Articular surface - portion that articulates with the ilium via the _____ portion of the _____ joint

A

Synovial

SI

125
Q

SACRUM

shape of sacral canal

A

Triangular

126
Q

how many IVDs in the spine?

A

23 discs in the spine

126
Q

how many IVDs in the spinal column?

A

24

126
Q
COCCYX (tailbone)
Fusion of \_\_\_ segments
Serves for \_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_
Very \_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_ in shape
Base is \_\_\_\_ and apex is \_\_\_\_
\_\_\_\_\_\_ articulates with \_\_\_\_
Anterior surface has \_\_\_\_ transverse ridges
Posterior surface is \_\_\_\_ and the APs of the 1st coccygeal segment forms the \_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_
A
4
Muscle attachment and protection
Small, triangular
Superior, inferior
Base, apex
3
Rough, Coccygeal Cornu
126
Q

first IVD between what vertebrae?

A

1st disc begins between C2 and C3

127
Q

IVDs are name for the vertebrae ____ it

A

above

128
Q

no disc between ___ and ___, and ___ and ___

A

No disc between occiput and C1, C1 and C2.

129
Q

no IVD allows for ____ movement

A

more

130
Q

IVDs act as shock _____

A

Act as shock absorbers

131
Q

IVDs are a part of the ____ wall of the intervertebral foramina

A

anterior

132
Q

__-__ days after birth, cervical spine begins to develop

A

3-4

133
Q

__-__ months after birth, cervical spinal curve is developed

A

3-4

134
Q

__-__ mo after birth lumbar spine begins to develop

A

6-9

135
Q

__-__ mo after birth lumbar spine is developed (has formed)

A

lumbar

136
Q

spine includes __ vertebrae only

A

true

137
Q

adult spinal column has ___ vertebrae

A

26

138
Q

Adult spine has ___ vertebrae

A

24; true only

139
Q

childs spinal column has ___ vertebral segments

A

33; sacrum = 5, coccyx = 4

140
Q

there are ___ pairs of spinal nerves

A

31

141
Q

spinal nerves begin between __ and ___

A

occiput ad C1

142
Q

__ cervical spinal nerve pairs and are named for the vertebrae ___ it except for ___ spinal nerve

A

8
below
C8

143
Q

__ thoracic spinal nerve pairs

A

12

144
Q

__ lumbar spinal nerve pairs

A

5

145
Q

__ sacral nerve pairs

A

5

146
Q

__ coccyx nerve pairs

A

1

147
Q

in the thoracic, lumbar, sacral and coccyx regions the spinal nerve pairs are named for the vertebrae ___ it

A

above

148
Q

cervical bodies are ___ in height

A

equal

149
Q

thoracic bodies are higher ___ than ___

A

posteriorly than anteriorly

150
Q

lumbar body heights vary:
L1 –> higher ___
L2 –> ___ in height
L3-L5 –> higher ___

A

posteriorly
equal
anteriorly

151
Q

cervical IVDs thicker ____

A

anteriorly

152
Q

thoracic IVDs are ____

A

equal

153
Q

Lumbar IVDs thicker

A

anteriorly

154
Q

true ribs are those that articulate with ___

A

sternum

155
Q

true ribs __-__

A

1-7

156
Q

false ribs are those that articulate with ___

A

cartilate

157
Q

false ribs __-__

A

8-10

158
Q

floating ribs are those that ____ articulate

A

dont

159
Q

floating ribs __-__

A

11-12

160
Q

head of rib articulates with the ___ ___ and is know as ____ joint

A

vertebral body

costovertebral

161
Q

tubercle of the rib articulates with the ____ ____ and is known as the ___ joint

A

transverse process

costotransverse

162
Q

ligamentum nuchae extends from ___-___

A

EOP to C7

163
Q

transitional vertebrae

A

occurs when a vertebra or vertebrae in one region of he spine takes on he appearance of the vertebrae they are approaching

164
Q

sacralization

A

L5 is partially or completely incorporated into the sacrum

165
Q

lumbarization

A

S1 vertebrae does not fuse with the other sacral bones and stays separated. feeling of a 6th lumbar vertebrae

166
Q

spondylosis

A

degeneration of the spinal column.

167
Q

spondylolysis

A

defect in the interarticular part (pars interarticularis) of the vertebra and usually seen in the lumbar spine

168
Q

spondylolisthesis

A

slippage of the vertebral body of the upper vertebrae on the vertebral body below it or upon the sacrum. usually occurs in the lumbar spine

169
Q

hemivertebra

A

failure of one lateral half of a vertebra to develop or ossify with the opposite half. gives an appearance of a wedged vertebra inserted between two

170
Q

butterfly vertebra

A

there is a malformatio nin the posterior vertebral segments, namely the laminae. lateral ossification centers fail to sufficiently grow and unite

171
Q

block vertebra

A

failure of the formation of the IVD which results in adjacent vertebrae fusion when ossification occurs. can be genital or acquired

172
Q

congenital block vertebra

A

give a flat, smooth peripheral surface in the region of the missing intersegmental disc

173
Q

acquired block vertebra

A

surgically fused vertebra appear prominent and irregular at the disc level

174
Q

stages of development of the vertebral column

A

mesodermal, chondrification, ossification

175
Q

mesodermal stage - marked by the mesenchymal condesation of the paired ____ around the notochord

A

sclerotomes

176
Q

mesodermal stage - each schlerotome becomes more ___ and a ____ fissure occurs which separates the sclerotomes in half

A

dense

horizontal

177
Q

mesodermal stage - ___ half above unites with the ___ half of the sclerotome below. this is the beginning of ____ individual vertebrae

A

caudal
cephalic
one

178
Q

mesodermal stage - the splitting of the sclerotome and ___ occurs throughout the entire membranous vertebral column

A

recombination

179
Q

chondrification stage - stage 1 that meodermal is being replaced by ____

A

cartilage

180
Q

chondrification stage - appears first in the ___ region and progresses to other regions and is completed by the ___ fetal month

A

cervical

third

181
Q

ossification stage - last stage and occurs in the ___ week

A

tenth

182
Q

chondrification - divided into two sessions

A

primary and secondary

183
Q

primary ossification centers begin ___ birth. completion is ____ birth

A

before

after

184
Q

secondary ossification centers begin ___ birth and are completed at ___ ages

A

different

185
Q

primary ossification centers in the cervical (3-7) and all thoracics

A

5: 1 in the body, 1 in each pedicle and 1 in each laminae

186
Q

secondary ossification centers in the cervical (3-7) and all thoracics

A

5: epiphyseal plates, tip of each TP and the tip of the TP

187
Q

secondary centers begin to appear during the ___ yar of life and are usually completed buy the age of __

A

18th

25

188
Q

primary ossification centers in the lumbar

A

7: 1 in the body, one in each pedicle and laminae, one in each mammillary process

189
Q

secondary ossification centers in the lumbar

A

5: epiphyseal plates, tip of each TP and the tip of the TP

190
Q

of primary ossification centers in C1

A

2: 1 in each lateral mass spreading posteriorly to unite with the bones forming the posterior arch

191
Q

of secondary ossification centers in C1

A

1: anterior arch and slowly spreading posteriorly to unite with the lateral masses

192
Q

of primary ossification centers in C2

A

7: 1 in the body, 1 in each pedicle and laminae, 2 in the base of the dens

193
Q

of secondary ossification centers in C2

A

2: 1 in the apex of the dens, 1 bottom of the body where the anterior inferior lipping begins

194
Q

of primary ossification centers in the sacrum

A

37: 1 in each body of the segment (5), 2 in each arch (20), 2 on the anterior portion of each side of S1, S2 and S3 (12)

195
Q

of secondary ossification centers in the sacrum

A

12: 1 in each of the epiphyseal plates of the body of each segment (10), 1 for each auricular surface (2)

196
Q

of primary ossification centers in the coccyx

A

none

197
Q

of secondary ossification centers in the coccyx

A

4: 1 located in each of the individual segments

198
Q

Wolff’s Law

A

form defines function, bones will adapt the the forces that are put on them, changes the shape of the bones

199
Q

Heuter Volkman’s law

A

applies to abnormal bone growth. dense (too much compression), proliferation (too little compression)

200
Q

cervical articulating processes orientation

A

45 degrees off the horizontal

201
Q

thoracic articulating processes orientation

A

60 degrees off the horizontal and 20 degrees outward

202
Q

lumbar articulating processes orientation

A

90 degrees off the horizontal and 45 degrees inward

203
Q

3 germ layers of vertebral development

A

ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm

204
Q

three primary structures in the development of the vertebral column

A

notochord, mesodermal somites, sclerotomes

205
Q

notochord also called ___ ___ and is derived from ____ ___

A

chorda dorsalis

embryonic mesoderm

206
Q

notocord extends from the ___ bone to the ___ regioin

A

sphenoid

coccyx

207
Q

notochord represents the beginning of all the __ skeleton

A

axial

208
Q

notochord first appears as a narrow median rod of cells between ___ and ___

A

ectoderm and endoderm

209
Q

notochord becomes surrounded by secondary mesoderm which becomes converted into he __ ___

A

vertebral column

210
Q

nuclei pulposus of the IVD

A

remnant of the notochord

211
Q

somites

A

cuboidal bodies around the neural tube

212
Q

somites differentiate into 3 things

A

myotomes, dermatomes, sclerotomes

213
Q

myotomes?
dermatomes?
sclerotomes?

A

muscle
nerves
bone

214
Q

primordium

A

beginning of an individual vertebrae

215
Q

spina bifida

A

L5/S1 usually, failure of fusion of the laminae during the embryonic period

216
Q

ankylosing spondylitis

A

long-term disease that involves inflammation of the joints between the spinal bones, and the joints between the spine and pelvis.