s10 - Congenital palatal defects Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of maxillofacial prosthetics?

A

The branch of prosthodontics concerned with restoring/replacing missing or damaged oral and facial structures due to surgery, trauma, or congenital defects.

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2
Q

What structures can maxillofacial prosthetics restore?

A

Teeth, oral tissues, and facial structures (e.g., ears, nose, eyes).

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3
Q

What are the primary causes of maxillofacial defects?

A

Surgery, trauma, congenital malformations, or developmental defects.

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4
Q

How does maxillofacial prosthetics differ from general prosthodontics?

A

It focuses on extra-oral and complex intra-oral rehabilitation (e.g., obturators, facial prostheses).

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5
Q

What is the goal of maxillofacial prosthetic treatment?

A

To restore function (speech, swallowing), aesthetics, and psychosocial well-being.

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6
Q

What are the three main types of maxillofacial defects?

A

Congenital, acquired, and developmental.

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7
Q

Give two examples of congenital maxillofacial defects.

A

Cleft lip/palate, microtia (missing ear).

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8
Q

What causes acquired maxillofacial defects?

A

Surgery (e.g., tumor resection), trauma, or pathology (e.g., osteoradionecrosis).

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9
Q

Name two developmental maxillofacial defects.

A

Prognathism, retrognathism, macro/micrognathia.

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10
Q

Why are congenital defects often more challenging to treat than acquired defects?

A

They involve growth abnormalities and may require multidisciplinary care from birth.

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11
Q

How are maxillofacial prostheses classified by location?

A

Intra-oral, extra-oral, combined, or cranial/facial.

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12
Q

What is the purpose of an intra-oral obturator?

A

To close a palatal defect (congenital or acquired) and improve speech/swallowing.

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13
Q

Name three types of intra-oral stents and their uses.

A

Antihaemorrhagic (bleeding control), radium carriers (radiation therapy), mouth protectors.

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14
Q

What is the function of a splint in maxillofacial prosthetics?

A

To stabilize jaw fractures by holding bone fragments in place during healing.

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15
Q

When is a resection appliance used?

A

To correct mandibular closure paths after partial jaw resection.

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16
Q

What are extra-oral prostheses? Examples?

A

Prostheses replacing facial structures (e.g., ocular, nasal, auricular prostheses).

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17
Q

What is a radium shield prosthesis?

A

A protective device to shield tissues from radiation therapy.

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18
Q

What are combined intra-oral/extra-oral prostheses used for?

A

Cases with loss of maxilla/mandible and adjacent facial structures.

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19
Q

What is a cranial onlay/inlay prosthesis?

A

A prosthesis to replace lost cranial bone (e.g., after skull injury).

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20
Q

What are intra-mandibular implants?

A

Implants placed within mandibular bone to support prostheses.

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21
Q

Who are the key members of a maxillofacial rehabilitation team?

A

Plastic surgeon, prosthodontist, speech therapist, orthodontist, psychologist, social worker, dental technician.

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22
Q

What is the role of the plastic surgeon in cleft care?

A

Surgical repair of lip/palate deformities and reconstructive procedures.

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23
Q

When is a prosthodontist essential in maxillofacial cases?

A

When surgical reconstruction isn’t possible (e.g., large defects, unoperated clefts).

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24
Q

How does a speech therapist contribute to cleft palate management?

A

Corrects compensatory speech patterns post-surgery/prosthetic placement.

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25
Q

Why is an orthodontist involved in cleft care?

A

To manage malocclusion and align maxillary segments before/after surgery.

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26
Q

What role does a psychologist play in treatment?

A

Helps patients cope with psychosocial challenges (e.g., self-esteem, social integration).

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27
Q

How does a social worker support cleft patients/families?

A

Provides education, resources, and guidance on long-term care and community support.

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28
Q

Define cleft lip and palate embryologically.

A

Failure of fusion between embryonic processes (premaxillary, lateral maxillary, palatine).

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29
Q

What is the incidence rate of cleft lip/palate?

A

~1 in 800 live births.

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30
Q

Which gender is more commonly affected by clefts?

A

Males (2:1 ratio).

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31
Q

What does Veau Class I cleft involve?

A

Soft palate only.

32
Q

Describe Veau Class III cleft.

A

Unilateral cleft of hard/soft palate extending through alveolar ridge and lip.

33
Q

What is a bilateral complete cleft (Veau IV)?

A

Cleft affecting both sides of hard/soft palate, alveolus, and lip.

34
Q

How does a submucous cleft present clinically?

A

Intact mucosa with underlying muscle separation (often diagnosed late due to speech issues).

35
Q

What is the “prolabium” in bilateral cleft lip?

A

The central lip segment attached to the nasal septum.

36
Q

What is the primary function of the palato-pharyngeal sphincter?

A

To separate nasopharynx from oropharynx during speech/swallowing.

37
Q

Which muscle is most critical for velar elevation?

A

Levator veli palatini.

38
Q

What is the Ridge of Passavant?

A

A muscular bulge on the posterior pharyngeal wall aiding velopharyngeal closure.

39
Q

How does the relaxed position of the velum differ from its elevated position?

A

Relaxed: Velum hangs down (nasal breathing); Elevated: Curves upward (speech/swallowing).

40
Q

What compensates for inadequate velar length during closure?

A

Pharyngeal wall movement (medial/lateral) and Ridge of Passavant.

41
Q

Define palato-pharyngeal insufficiency (PPI).

A

Structural inadequacy (e.g., short palate) preventing closure.

42
Q

What causes palato-pharyngeal incompetence (PPI)?

A

Neuromuscular dysfunction (e.g., stroke, cerebral palsy) despite normal anatomy.

43
Q

How does PPI differ from PPI?

A

PPI: Anatomic defect; PPI: Functional impairment.

44
Q

What prosthetic device treats PPI?

A

Palatal lift prosthesis.

45
Q

Why is nasal breathing impossible with a meatal obturator?

A

It blocks the posterior nasal choanae.

46
Q

Name 3 hereditary factors linked to cleft formation.

A

Family history, genetic syndromes (e.g., Van der Woude), chromosomal abnormalities.

47
Q

How can maternal infections contribute to clefts?

A

Viruses like rubella disrupt embryonic process fusion during first trimester.

48
Q

Which vitamin deficiencies increase cleft risk?

A

Vitamin A, riboflavin (B2), and folic acid.

49
Q

What chemical exposures may cause clefts?

A

Teratogens (alcohol, phenytoin), hypoxia, hypervitaminosis A.

50
Q

How does radiation exposure lead to clefts?

A

Pelvic/therapeutic radiation in pregnancy damages developing facial processes.

51
Q

What hormonal factors influence cleft formation?

A

Cortisone therapy, maternal diabetes, thyroid disorders.

52
Q

Why is stress a risk factor?

A

High cortisol levels in 1st trimester may impair embryonic fusion.

53
Q

Why do cleft palate infants struggle with feeding?

A

Inability to generate negative pressure for sucking.

54
Q

How does food regurgitation occur in unrepaired clefts?

A

Nasopharynx remains open during swallowing.

55
Q

What masticatory problems arise from clefts?

A

Malocclusion, missing teeth, and alveolar defects.

56
Q

List 3 psychosocial impacts of clefts.

A

Low self-esteem, social stigma, depression/anxiety.

57
Q

What causes hypernasal speech in cleft patients?

A

Air escapes through nasal cavity due to inadequate palato-pharyngeal closure.

58
Q

Why is hearing loss common in cleft patients?

A

Eustachian tube dysfunction leads to chronic otitis media.

59
Q

Name the 7 steps of speech production.

A

Respiration → phonation → palato-pharyngeal closure → resonance → articulation → neurologic integration → audition.

60
Q

How do vocal cords modify speech?

A

Vibrate to produce laryngeal sound waves (phonation).

61
Q

Which sounds require nasal resonance?

A

/m/, /n/, /ŋ/ (e.g., “sing”).

62
Q

What is the role of the tongue in articulation?

A

Shapes sounds by changing position (e.g., /t/, /d/, /l/).

63
Q

How does CNS damage affect speech?

A

Disrupts motor control of speech organs (dysarthria) or language processing (aphasia).

64
Q

Why is hearing critical for speech development?

A

Allows self-monitoring and sound imitation.

65
Q

What is the purpose of a feeding plate?

A

To seal the cleft during bottle-feeding in infants.

66
Q

Why are squeezable bottles used for cleft infants?

A

To compensate for inability to suck by gravity-assisted flow.

67
Q

When is lip repair typically performed?

A

6–12 weeks postpartum.

68
Q

Why delay hard palate closure until 12–18 months?

A

To allow maxillary growth and reduce scarring-induced midface hypoplasia.

69
Q

What is a pharyngeal flap surgery?

A

A tissue graft from pharynx to palate to improve closure.

70
Q

When is prosthetic treatment preferred over surgery?

A

In unoperated adults, failed surgeries, or poor surgical candidates.

71
Q

Describe a fixed pharyngeal obturator.

A

A prosthesis with palatal + pharyngeal sections to augment velopharyngeal closure.

72
Q

How is the pharyngeal bulb positioned clinically?

A

At the level of Passavant’s ridge during phonation (“ah”).

73
Q

What is the advantage of a meatal obturator?

A

Reduces leverage compared to horizontal pharyngeal extensions.

74
Q

Why might a palatal lift prosthesis fail?

A

If the patient has inadequate neuromuscular control.

75
Q

What is the key difference between speech aid and feeding appliances?

A

Speech aids target velopharyngeal closure; feeding appliances focus on nutrition.