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Ryanair Tech Questions Flashcards

1
Q

how to calculate stall speed ?

A

Stall Speed = [2*Weight / (Clmax*1.225*WingArea)]

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2
Q

737 MTOW

A

79000 kg

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3
Q

swept wings

A

is tilted backward therefore the airflow “sees” an already thin airfoil even thinner that causes a slow acceleration due to the low chamber. In this way we can fly faster and still be at subsonic airflow over the wing. swept wing = slower air velocity = higher Mcrit = later shockwave outset = later drag outset

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4
Q

difference between 737-800 and max

A
  • MTOW = increases from 85000kg to 88000kg - Engine = 737 CFM International CFM56-7 MAX CFM International LEAP-1B - Mach n = 737 Mach 0.78 (823 km/h) MAX Mach 0.79 (842 km/h) - SFC = MAX 14% lower fuel burn than current 737NG - WING TIPS = 737 winglets (6%) MAX split winglets (14%) - SEAT= 737 189 MAX 197
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5
Q

737 absolute ceiling

A

don’t know, service ceiling is 41000

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6
Q

anti ice or de ice last multi engine

A

SENECA III De-ice system made of = - pneumatic wings and empennage boots - wing ice detection light - electrothermal propeller deice pads - electric windshield panel - heated lift detectors - heated pitot head - pneumatic boots on leading edge of wings, vertical stabiliser and horizontal stabiliser. When OFF a pump creates a suction in the boots to keep them more aerodynamic - electrothermal prop de ice work in a cycle of every 90 sec

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7
Q

different kind of stalls

A
  • Departure Stalls (can be classified as power-on stalls) pilot’s failure to maintain positive pitch control due to a nose-high trim setting or premature flap retraction. - Arrival Stalls (can be classified as power-off stalls or reduced power stalls) attempting to recover from a high sink rate on final approach by using only an increased pitch attitude; and improper airspeed control on final approach or in other segments of the traffic pattern. - Accelerated Stalls can occur at higher-than-normal airspeeds due to abrupt and/or excessive control applications. These stalls may occur in steep turns, pull-ups, or other abrupt changes in flight path. For these reasons, accelerated stalls usually are more severe than unaccelerated stalls and are often unexpected.
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8
Q

what aircraft does ryanair have ?

A

737-800

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9
Q

how many aircraft does ryanair have ?

A

310

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10
Q

why did ryanair order 737 MAX ?

A
  • higher MTOW - better SFC - more SEATS - longer RANGE
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11
Q

how many seats in the 737 ?

A

189

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12
Q

How many cabin crews ?

A

1 for every 50 seats

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13
Q

How many seats in the MAX ? Do you know why ?

A

197 maybe due to emergency exit or toilet

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14
Q

When doe ryanair receive the 737 MAX ?

A

2019

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15
Q

how is V2 calculated?

A

Target speed at the 35ft screen height. Must be 1.2 Vs and 1.1 Vmca

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16
Q

is there gravity in outer space ?

A

no

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17
Q

737 hydraulic system

A

The hydraulic systems power the following airplane systems: • flight controls • leading edge flaps and slats • trailing edge flaps • landing gear • wheel brakes • nose wheel steering • thrust reversers • autopilots

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18
Q

737 hydraulic pressure system

A

HYDRAULIC System PRESSURE Indications (white) Indicates system pressure: • Normal pressure–3000psi • Maximum pressure–3500psi.

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19
Q

where is screen height ?

A

at the end of the departure runway (35ft)

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20
Q

how does resistance vary with cable with ?

A

A water analogy is better - the pipe is always full of water, and for the same pump (battery), the pressure (voltage) is always lower the wider the pipe, which equates to more flow and a lower resistance

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21
Q

what is resistance ?

A

Resistance is the opposition that a substance offers to the flow of electric current.

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22
Q

voltage of the 737 electrical system

A

115 volts 400Hz

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23
Q

what was the electrical system on the aircraft you flew for the MEP training

A

SENECA III Battery = 12 volt, 35 amperes per hour 2 x Alternators = 65 amperes 2 x voltage bus bar regulators = 12 volt

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24
Q

how do you get AC to DC ?

A

conveter

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25
Q

why an a/c has such a high AoA after take-off, can we increase it more and more.., why not?

A

to maintaing lift, we can’t exceeded too much otherwise we would stall

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26
Q

what to do to increase AoA&lift?

A

use flaps and slats

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27
Q

what kind of flaps do we have ?

A

leading edge flaps also known as slats (kruger fleps) trailing edge flaps (fowler three slotted flaps)

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28
Q

what does limit the altitude ?

A

coffin corner

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29
Q

mach critic stall ?

A

mach tuck

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30
Q

IAS stall

A

Vs

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31
Q

how can we calculate wind vector ?

A

The easiest way is to know Track, Heading, TAS and GS. By applying come calculation we can find the wind vector. Mathematical Way: Break down each individual wind speed/direction vector into an East-West component and a North/South component. Assuming the direction is given in degrees clockwise from north, the north-south component is the cosine of the direction angle times the speed; the east/west component is the sine of the direction times the speed. Cns = cos(Dir)*Spd Cew = sin(Dir)*Spd Add up all the north-south components. Then separately, add up all the east/west components. The average direction is the arctan of the east/west components divided by the north south components. Dir = arctan(sum(Cew) / sum(Cew))

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32
Q

how to prevent stalling wing tip first ?

A
  • increase chamber - wash out = decreases the AoI from the wind root to the tip, preventing early wing tip stall
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33
Q

737 what powers the flaps?

A

hydraulic system

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34
Q

do 737 engine have any limitation at full power ?

A

5 min

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35
Q

what is mist and fog in a METAR ?

A

mist = BR fog = FG

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36
Q

what can you expect to find below a thunderstorm during a approach ?

A

microburst

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37
Q

what does BR, MI, FG, DZ mean in a METAR ?

A

BR = mist MI = shallow FG = fog DZ = drizzle

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38
Q

oil prise

A

Europe between 1.30 to 2.00 EURO

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39
Q

Imagine one day we are on the rwy at MTOW, can we go directly at max ceiling?

A

no we can reach it by losing weight by consuming fuel

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40
Q

On the 737, what powers the flight controls and flaps?

A

hydraulic system

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41
Q

If the Hydraulic system B fails, can you actuate the flaps?

A

system A can take over

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42
Q

what is CFIT ( Control Flight in to Terrain) ?

A

describes an accident in which an airworthy aircraft, under pilot control, is unintentionally flown into the ground, a mountain, water, or an obstacle. The pilots are generally unaware of the danger until it is too late.

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43
Q

737 knowledge

A
  • MTOW = between 65,500 and 85000kg - Engine = CFM56-7 rated at 27.300lbs - Mach n = Mach 0.78 (823 km/h) - ELECTRICAL SYSTEM = 115 volts 400Hz - WING TIPS = winglets (SFC decreased by 6%) - SEAT= 189 - SWEPT ANGLE = 25º
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44
Q

31 What is V1, V2, Vr, Vmca, Vmcg and where do they stand to each other

A

V1 The decision speed during the takeoff roll at which if the critical engine has failed up until this speed, it is possible to reject the takeoff and bring the aircraft to a full stop within the ASDA. It is also the speed at which after the critical engine has failed, it is possible to continue the takeoff and reach a speed of V2 by the screen height within the TODA. V1 must be less than or equal to VR, but equal to or greater than VMCG. V2 Target speed at the 35ft screen height. Must be 1.13 Vsr and 1.1 Vmca. Vr This is the rotation speed during the takeoff roll at which the pilot begins to raise the nose from the 3 point attitude to the initial climb attitude to reach V2 by the screen height. VR must be equal to or greater than V1 and equal to or greater than 1.05 VMCA Vmca The minimum control speed in the air, at which after the failure of the critical engine, it is possible to maintain directional control of the aircraft by use of the rudder, without loss of height, no more than 5° bank towards the live engine and take-off power on the live engine. VMCA is affected only by density – high temperatures = low density and therefore less thrust, so the asymmetric thrust is reduced which increases VMCA. Vmcg The minimum control speed on the ground, at which after the failure of the critical engine, it is possible to maintain directional control by use of the rudder only, without deviating more than 30ft from the centreline. VMCG must be less than or equal to V1, ensuring directional control of the aircraft after the critical engine has failed, before the decision speed is reached. Order? Vmcg V1 Vr Vmca V2

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45
Q

Crosswind formula

A

Another way is the following: wind angle + 20 = % Eg: runway 27 = runway heading 270° W/V 300°/20 kts wind angle = 300 - 270 = 30 30 + 20 = 50% of the wind speed (20 kts), so the crosswind component is 10 kts.

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46
Q

Does your a/c has a critical engine? If yes which one?

A

Engine number one (LH engine) in general when your aircraft has two engines rotating clockwise (seen from inside the plane)

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47
Q

How many cargo holds have you got in the 737 and where are they?

A

2 Cargo Holds 1 forward = between nose wheel and main wheels 1 aft = behing main wheels

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48
Q

737 MZFW

A

around 65000 kg couldn’t find exact figure

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49
Q

why is the MZFW lower than MTOW and MLW ?

A

because we need to put fuel on board is the Max Wing Structural Torque Weight

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50
Q

why do we have MZFW ?

A

to make sure the plane is in balance before we had the fuel on board

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51
Q

what is Vref ?

A

Reference Landing Speed or VAT speed at threshold usually airline fly at Vref + 5 (or sometimes + 10) so that they will pass over the threshold at Vref +5, they will lose those extra 5 kt during the flare and touch down at Vref

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52
Q

how do you calculate Vref ?

A

1.3 Vso

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53
Q

segments of flight why do we do calculations ?

A

for take off = to make sure we are clear of obstacle in case of engine failure for the cruise = we do fuel calculation to check the actual fuel burn

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54
Q

why do we do load sheet ?

A

to make sure the plane is in balance in regard to CoG

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55
Q

tell me about the last multi engine you flew

A

Voltage 2x voltage regulators maintaining the electrical busbar to 14 volts DC. Over voltage >17 volts. Amperage 12 volt, 35 amp hour battery and 2x 65 amp alternators (at 2000 rpm) Engine Continental 6 cylinders Rated horsepower 220 BHP (TO power), 200 (continues) Rated speed 2800 RMP (TO power), 2600 (continues) Propeller Counter rotating Landing gear Fully retractable undercarriage, electrically operated and hydraulically driven by self contained power pack located in the nose baggage bay. Warning horn below 14” MAP and gear up. Vlo = 130/108kts. Freefall must be lower than 85kts. Nose (34psi), main (46psi). Controls Cable operated, all moving stabilator with anti-servo tab acting as a trim. Two channel autopilot in pitch and roll. Engine (advantages of turbo charged to carburettor) 2x air cooled, fuel injected, 6 cylinder, and turbo charged engines. 200hp at 2600rpm. Engine rpm = propeller rpm. Turbocharger provides sea level engine performance at altitude by delivering exhaust gases back to the cylinders producing a greater power output. Fuel system/capacity Two independent systems, two rigid fuel tanks in each wing. Each engine takes fuel from the inboard tank. The EDP forms part of the continuous flow injection system. Total fuel 128 (5 US Gallons unusable) Type of flaps, ailerons Frise type ailerons with differential movement eliminating adverse yaw. Electrically driven plain flaps (10, 25, and 40). Heating system Heated air from Janitrol combustion heater located in the aft fuselage, uses left tank and ½ gallon per hour. Ice protection Approved for light and moderate icing: detection light, leading edge boots, electrical heater propeller mats, windscreen de-icing fluid, pitot and stall warning vane heaters.

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56
Q

where does the 737 get his hydraulic power from ?

A

engine driven pump

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57
Q

how are the flight controls operated in a 737 ?

A

by hydraulic pressure

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58
Q

how is the landing gear operated in a 737 ?

A

by hydraulic pressure

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59
Q

explain me the wing of the 737, starting from the tip

A

describe swept wings i started with explaining the winglets, and then he asked about the ailerons and what else is used during a turn. Then to the trailing and leading edge high lift devices, to end with explaining the vortex generators)

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60
Q

what do you think about cessna plane and why ?

A

give a personal answer

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61
Q

Do you have problems with carb-ice in the cessna ?

A

yes unless they are fuel injected

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62
Q

If we want to fly that fast, how come we are able to land ?

A

we can reduce speed but throttling back and using high lift devices to don’t lose control of the plane

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63
Q

Explain the performance categories on the plate

A

A grouping of aircraft based on Vat (1.3 Vso) A below 91 B 91 to 120 C 121 to 140 D 141 to 165 E 166 to 210

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64
Q

What is the height of the tropopause?

A

The height varies depending on the average temperature of the underlying air. Equator - 55,000ft Poles - 25,000ft The changes of height occur in steps where significant changes of temperature occur (PFJ and STJ) and therefore strong upper winds known as Jet Streams are found.

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65
Q

What are the effects are on the human body in case of depressurisation?

A

Reduction in ppO2 at altitude, therefore insufficient oxygen causes Hypoxia. Effects are fatigue, headache, dizziness, euphoria, blurred vision, hyperventilation, poor judgment and lack of muscle co-ordination.

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66
Q

What is the LSS at sea level in ISA conditions?

A

661 kts

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67
Q

What is so special about modern Jet Airliners?

A

Swept Wings

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68
Q

What do airlines have to guard against reaching Mcrit?

A

Mach Tuck Mach trimmer safeguards the aircraft from Mach Tuck

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69
Q

Why do aircraft have leading edge devices?

A

Designed to delay separation of the boundary layer over the upper surface of the wing to a higher AOA. A slot is formed when the device is extended allowing a venturi effect to occur because airflow travels from the high pressure area to the low pressure area and accelerates the airflow.

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70
Q

What affect does a wet runway have on V1 and V2?

A

A wet runway decreases V1 because you’ll need more distance to stop and therefore this decision has to be made at an earlier speed to maximise distance. V2 is not affected.

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71
Q

How can you tell the battery is charging?

A

By operating the push buttons on the ammeter, individual readings of each alternator output can be read. As the battery becomes fully charged, the amount of current will reduce to 2 amps.

72
Q

Tell me about the recovery procedure for spin in the warrior/cessna

A

Power idle, roll wings level and gently pull out of the dive

73
Q

How would you navigate if all VOR’s and NDB’s en route fail?

A

Request radar vectors

74
Q

How much thrust comes from the N1 fan?

A

N1 = low pressure compressor fan Approximately 75% on a high-bypass engine

75
Q

Where is thrust produced in a gas turbine engine?

A

The hot exhaust gases after combustion are propelled through a nozzle at high speed to atmosphere.

76
Q

What is = N1, N2, EGT, EPR

A

N1 - Low pressure compressor fan speed N2 - Intermediate pressure compressor speed EGT - Exhaust Gas Temperature (monitored to prevent engine damage i.e. blades) EPR - Engine Pressure Ratio (ratio of compressor inlet pressure to turbine outlet pressure)

77
Q

How does a 2-stroke engine work?

A

the pistone goes up to compress the mixture which will get ignited by the spark plug. when it goes back down, the gas will flow out from the exhaust vent, the piston pushes the standby mixture behind it that will get pushed into a bypass duct that will send it right in front of the pistone. once the piston cycles back up it will fully compresse the new mixture, the spark plug will ignite it and so on.

78
Q

What is the difference between a 2 stroke and a 4 stroke engine?

A
  • lighter than a 4 stroke engine - more powerful - can work in any orientation - mixture gets compressed initially at the back of the piston - mixture is ducted from the back to the front of the piston
79
Q

46 Explain the otto cycle

A

Intake: this stroke of the piston begins at top dead center. The piston descends from the top of the cylinder to the bottom of the cylinder, increasing the volume of the cylinder. A mixture of fuel and air is forced by atmospheric (or greater by some form of air pump) pressure into the cylinder through the intake port. Compression: with both intake and exhaust valves closed, the piston returns to the top of the cylinder compressing the air or fuel-air mixture into the cylinder head. Power: this is the start of the second revolution of the cycle. While the piston is close to Top Dead Centre, the compressed air–fuel mixture in a gasoline engine is ignited, by a spark plug in gasoline engines, or which ignites due to the heat generated by compression in a diesel engine. The resulting pressure from the combustion of the compressed fuel-air mixture forces the piston back down toward bottom dead centre. Exhaust: during the exhaust stroke, the piston once again returns to top dead centre while the exhaust valve is open. This action expels the spent fuel-air mixture through the exhaust valve(s).

80
Q

44 What sort of things would 2 stroke engine be used for ?

A
  • ultralight planes - chainsaws - model airplanes
81
Q

Which is faster, London to New York or New York to London? Why?

A

New York – London: Due to the westerly jet streams in the northern hemisphere of up to 215 kts.

82
Q

Does a jet have a critical engine?

A

No, but it will have according to performance considerations e.g. a left crosswind means the left engine is critical because a greater amount of rudder will be needed to overcome both the crosswind and asymmetric thrust.

83
Q

Does the Seneca have a critical engine?

A

No, because the propellers are counter-rotating. Therefore, both thrust lines are brought closest to the fuselage.

84
Q

You are on a flight from Stanstead to Amsterdam and just after T/O are at your cleared level of 2000ft when you have complete radio failure. What are your actions?

A

Having followed the radio failure checklists, squawk 7600, maintain assigned level for 3 minutes and follow the flight plan route in the most direct manner.

85
Q

Take me through the V speeds on a Seneca?

A

Vso - 62 Vs1 - 65 Vmca- 66 Vr - 79 Vyse- 92 Vlo - 108 Vle - 130 Vno - 166 Vne - 205

86
Q

What would happen if your primer kept operating while climbing with a SEP

A

The air/fuel mixture would become too rich and could flood the engine

87
Q

Does the Seneca have a carburetor heat system?

A

No because it has no carburetor

88
Q

What is the sequence of actions to do following an engine failure?

A

Control the aircraft, shut the engine down (fuel)/feather propeller, reduce any drag (gear/flap) and cross-feed

89
Q

What’s the purpose of the mirror looking at the nose-wheel on a Seneca?

A

Allows you to check visually whether the nose gear is down. May be useful if one green doesn’t illuminate.

90
Q

If you had an engine loss on a twin, which way would you prefer the wind coming from, the live side or dead side? Why, explain?

A

I’d want the wind coming from the live side because this would offset the yawing moment created by the lost thrust.

91
Q

When you feather the engine, do you have to feather the engine before a certain RPM?

A

Yes, the propeller must be feathered before a certain RPM e.g. 800 on the Seneca, because otherwise the centrifugal latches engage and prevent feathering causing an increase in drag.

92
Q

Why can’t you feather the engine below that RPM?

A

The centrifugal latches engage to hold the propeller in fine pitch for starting.

93
Q

Why will a jet not fly at the maximum operating altitude?

A

As the aircraft weight differs, the optimum cruise altitude changes

94
Q

When will a jet be able to fly at maximum operating altitude?

A

When the aircraft weight and configuration is the same as when the maximum operating ceiling was determined during flight testing.

95
Q

Why do jet a/c fly as high as possible ?

A

Best SFC and increased endurance due to a lower EAS once a constant Mach number is maintained. Airframe drag is proportional to EAS and therefore this decreases at higher altitudes as well. Also, this is where the engine operates most efficiently at high rpms.

96
Q

If turboprops are more efficient a/c why do they not climb that high ?

A

The propellers are limited in altitude because the blade tips suffer from the compressibility effects and therefore its rpm is limited. This is because the blade tips become sonic and therefore this limits the thrust force produced and therefore speed. So, propellers become less efficient as speed increases and therefore are flown at lower altitudes at slower speeds.

97
Q

What angle of Sweep do our planes have? Why not 27 degrees instead?

A

25º, maybe 27º would be too much

98
Q

What is optimum ISA cruise altitude for 737?

A

depends on the weight of the plane

99
Q

83 What is the fuel capacity of the 737 – 800?

A

26,000 L

100
Q

Why does the 737 have a variable incidence tail plane?

A

It maintains it streamlined shape unlike an elevator with trim tab arrangement, therefore allowing you to trim the attitude of the aircraft whilst producing less drag. The surface area is greater than just an elevator and therefore, little movement is required.

101
Q

What do MDA and DA mean?

A

Decision altitude on a precision approach at which a go around must be initiated if the satisfactory visual references have not been identified to safely land. Minimum Descent Altitude at which the aircraft cannot descend below on a non-precision approach until the satisfactory visual references have been identified in order to land. The MDA can be maintained until the Missed Approach Point, at which stage the aircraft must immediately go around.

102
Q

MSA figures on the chart refer to a radial distance of how many miles?

A

25 nm unless specified different

103
Q

What’s the reference point for these MSA figures?

A

The navigation aid specified.

104
Q

OM, DOM, TOF ?

A

DOM = The Basic Empty Mass plus Variable Load Variable Load = the crew, crew baggage and basic equipment TOF = Take Off Fuel Mass OM = DOM + TOF

105
Q

T-tail benefits and drawbacks

A

Benefits 1 Out of the wing airflow, giving smoother flow and better pitch control 2 Effective distance between the tailplane and wing increases, giving more leverage in pitch 3 Allows rear mounted engines to be fitted with the extra space 4 Reduced proximity to the ground during takeoff and landing, meaning less chance of damage Drawbacks 1 Prone to deep stall due to blanking of the airflow by a stalled wing, causing loss of pitch control 2 Difficult to recover from a spin 3 The control runs to the elevators are more complex 4 More difficult to inspect the elevator surfaces from the ground

106
Q

When does the speed change from IAS to MACH?

A

Up until a ‘changeover altitude’ i.e. 26,000ft, the aircraft will fly a constant IAS against an increasing mach number until it reaches its Mmo. The aircraft will then fly a constant mach number against a decreasing IAS as its altitude increases.

107
Q

How are contrails formed ?

A

The water vapour product of combustion from an aircraft’s exhaust emerges into a cold environment and the local increase in water vapour can push it past its saturation point, causing it to condense out into tiny water droplets as contrails. They usually occur above 26,000ft where the temperature is below -40°c.

108
Q

On a turboprop aircraft explain the following? (a)Ground Fine. (b)Ground Idle (c) Max Reverse (d)Flight Idle (e)Feathered

A

On many modern turbofan engines, the terms “Flight Idle” and “Ground Idle” are a bit confusing. They really should be Low Idle and High Idle. Most engines are set up to produce Low Idle on the ground and in normal flight. This is termed “Ground Idle” The High Idle setting is set inflight (Flight Idle) so that the engine is spooled up in the event of a missed approach and for a short duration just after touchdown to facilitate rapid reverse thrust. Logic circuits determine that the aircraft is in the air and in the approach and landing configuration to command the increase to “Flight Idle”. The idle setting is returned to the low, or “Ground Idle” value after a predetermined time interval after the landing gear touchdown. Max Reverse = turns the propeller angle to negative to slow the plane down on landing roll Feathered = is feathered on te ground on in case of engine failure

109
Q

On a Turboprop engine if you spin the Prop will the engine turn, and if so why?

A

it won’t turn because it’s a free turbine, that means that the turbine that turns the propeller is not the same one that turn the engine compressor.

110
Q

How are Turbo Prop wings/tail/engines/props normally de/anti-iced?

A

early models = de-ice pneumatic boots later models = anti ice system where the anti ice liquid comes out from the porous panels on the leading edges of the aircraft

111
Q

what is the source of pressurised air in the cabin

A

The most common source of compressed air for pressurisation is bleed air extracted from the compressor stage of a gas turbine engine, from a low or intermediate stage and also from an additional high stage. The air is cooled, humidified, and mixed with recirculated air if necessary, before it is distributed to the cabin by one or more environmental control systems.The cabin pressure is regulated by the outflow valve.

112
Q

Which way would you move the outflow valve to decrease cabin altitude?

A

open the lever the pressure inside the plane is around 10000 ft. If the plane is flying at 30000ft the pressure will be lower than the cabin pressure which would be higher because set at 10000ft. Therefore opening the outflow valve will decrease the pressure inside the cabin

113
Q

If the cabin and aircraft are climbing at 1500ft/min, what position is the outflow valve ?

A

it would depend wether the plane has reached the right cabin altitude or not

114
Q

An aircraft climbs from sea level to 16,000 ft at 1,000 ft per min, the cabin pressurisation is set to climb at 500 ft per min to a cabin altitude of 8,000 ft. The time taken for the cabin to reach 8,000 ft is?

A

the same time as it takes the aircraft to reach 16,000 ft.

115
Q

what part of the plane are pressurised ?

A

flight deck, cabin and cargo holds

116
Q

Cruising at FL350 if the outflow valve is manually moved towards the closed position what will happen the diff pressure, will it increase or decrease? And why?

A

couldn’t find an answer

117
Q

What would be your first action in the event of a decompression?

A

put oxygen mask on

118
Q

If the static ports were blocked with tape, and the aircraft got airborne what effect would it have on the pressure instruments?

A

altimeter = will read the same altitude when the plane left the ground VSI = will read zero ASI = underread

119
Q

If you were in a situation where one main gear was stuck in the up position and could not be released would you (a)Land with all gear up (b)Land with remaining gear down? (c)Extend the nose gear and leave the main gear up?

A

Land with all gear up

120
Q

If the Captain was flying at a speed above VMO would you? (a)Advise him of the excessive speed. (b)Advise him to slow down or he may damage the aircraft. (c)Say nothing and report the matter to the Chief Pilot. (d)Take control if he has not responded to your request to slow down. (e)Or as Captain he must know what he is doing and I should not interfere

A

advise him of excessive speed

121
Q

Define decision making as it pertains to operating aircraft?

A

is the ability to make and process a good decision in tough situation among many alternatives

122
Q

What does the term Situational Awareness mean?

A

Situation awareness is the perception of environmental elements with respect to time or space, the comprehension of their meaning, and the projection of their status after some variable has changed, such as time, or some other variable, such as a predetermined event. It is also a field of study concerned with perception of the environment critical to decision-makers in complex, dynamic areas

123
Q

What is CRM?

A

Crew Resource Management is a set of training procedures for use in environments where human error can have devastating effects. Used primarily for improving air safety, CRM focuses on interpersonal communication, leadership, and decision making in the cockpit.

124
Q

What is the principle of a turbo prop engine?

A

have an engine that can fly at higher altitude and more efficent then a normal propeller engine

125
Q

Difference between a free and a fixed turbine?

A

Free Turbine = there would be two turbine not connected by right next to each other that move two different engine parts Fixed Turbine = everything is interconnected

126
Q

While tracking to a point 60 miles away you wish to track to a point 5 miles to the left – what heading correction would you make?

A

1/60 rule = d x 60 / D = 5x60/60 = 5º to the left

127
Q

RVR 150 metres at take-off. What would you do?

A

What it states is that if the point A (to use your reference) is less than the 150m or 125m (if authorised) RVR then the commander can look at the centreline lights which have 15m spacing. If he can see 6 lights then he can see a 90m visual segment and he can accept a takeoff clearance. However is the RVR is at or above 150(125)m and you cannot see the 6 lights you must reject the takeoff clearance as you need confirmation with the visual segment- the important thing here is what you can actually see. If you are approved to take off in 125m, that is the minimum “reported” RVR required in all three points, touchdown, midpoint, stopend. If the mid point is not available, the minimum increases to 150m in all sectors. So, if the minimum is below these, or not reported, you can’t go as the Pilot assessment case only applies to the initial line up point, NOT the mid point or stop end, which, you cannot see, of course. You cannot factor met vis to RVR for low vis take offs and further restrictions apply for runway centre line and edge lighting cases.

128
Q

When is a take-off alternate required?

A

when the RVR at and airport was good for a take off but not necesserely for a landing therefore you would have to plane a different aerodrome where to land, with either a better weather or less restrictive RVR

129
Q

Name the different hold entries?

A

aft and forward

130
Q

What is the approach ban?

A

rule that says you can’t take off unless you have what it takes to land at your destination. Too heavy to land? Can’t takeoff. Weather great here, bad there? Can’t takeoff. Simple. It is the ICAO Law of the Land, but there are exceptions. it also refers to being already airborne and not being able to land due to RVR minimum

131
Q

commencement and continuation of approach rule

A

Commencement and continuation of approach (a) The commander or the pilot to whom conduct of the flight has been delegated may commence an instrument approach regardless of the reported RVR/Visibility but the approach shall not be continued beyond the outer marker, or equivalent position, if the reported RVR/visibility is less than the applicable minima (see OPS 1.192). (b) Where RVR is not available, RVR values may be derived by converting the reported visibility in accordance with Appendix 1 to OPS 1.430, subparagraph (h). (c) If, after passing the outer marker or equivalent position in accordance with (a) above, the reported RVR/visibility falls below the applicable minimum, the approach may be continued to DA/H or MDA/H. (d) Where no outer marker or equivalent position exists, the commander or the pilot to whom conduct of the flight has been delegated shall make the decision to continue or abandon the approach before descending below 1 000 ft above the aerodrome on the final approach segment. If the MDA/H is at or above 1 000 ft above the aerodrome, the operator shall establish a height, for each approach procedure, below which the approach shall not be continued if RVR/visibility is less than applicable minima. (e) The approach may be continued below DA/H or MDA/H and the landing may be completed provided that the required visual reference is established at the DA/H or MDA/H and is maintained.

132
Q

If the RVR drops after reaching the OM what do you do?

A

If, after passing the outer marker or equivalent position in accordance with (a) above, the reported RVR/visibility falls below the applicable minimum, the approach may be continued to DA/H or MDA/H. The approach may be continued below DA/H or MDA/H and the landing may be completed provided that the required visual reference is established at the DA/H or MDA/H and is maintained.

133
Q

How is the thrust produced by a turboprop?

A

A turboprop engine is a turbine engine that drives an aircraft propeller.[1] In contrast to a turbojet, the engine’s exhaust gases do not contain enough energy to create significant thrust, since almost all of the engine’s power is used to drive the propeller.

134
Q

Explain Hotel Mode? How is the prop braked? What parts of the engine are stopped and what parts are still turning? What turns the turbine?

A

Hotel mode is a feature on ATR 42/72 turboprops replacing an APU by locking the right hand #2 engine (PW100) with the help of a ‘propeller brake’ whilst allowing the turbine to run and therefore also the generator, providing power and bleed air. ATR describes this as the following: The propeller brake is fitted on a countershaft on the RH engine reduction gearbox in order to stop the propeller (and the power turbine) HP (High Pressure) spool drives the DC generator. Bleed pressure is available downstream the HP compressor and supplies both packs.

135
Q

What is Frequency wild (generator)? Where is it used?

A

Fixed frequency generators need to run at a constant speed, and this is impossible when an engine has to run at variable speeds. A frequency wild generator can run at virtually any speed which would result in a variable output frequency so this is normally rectified to a DC output and then converted to a constant frequency fixed AC output via an electronic control unit. Disadvantages are that you need a lot more conversion and control equipment.

136
Q

Is it easier to fly a line of longitude or latitude?

A

Maybe the answer is they are both equally easy to fly? If you fly constant Lat you will be flying a rhumb line (unless it’s along the equator), but it’s still constant heading so no trick there. Similarly for Longitude you will be flying a constant heading but by definition it will follow a great circle track.

137
Q

If an aircraft was on the ground, with a headwind of 100 kts, would the ASI read 100 kts?

A

YES little explanation = If their take-off speed is 150 kts IAS, then: If they take-off with a 100 kt headwind, they will have a Ground Speed of 50 kts as they lift off. On a calm day, with no wind, they will have a Ground Speed of 150 kts at lift off. If they take-off with a 20 kt tailwind, they will have a Ground Speed of 170 kts at lift off.

138
Q

How is the control column linked to the actual control surfaces in the following cases:- light aircraft, jet airliners, fly by wire

A

light aircraft = metal wire connected to the control column and control sufaces Jet airlines = fly by wire is a system that replaces the conventional manual flight controls of an aircraft with an electronic interface. The movements of flight controls are converted to electronic signals transmitted by wires (hence the fly-by-wire term), and flight control computers determine how to move the actuators at each control surface to provide the ordered response

139
Q

describe the Airbus / Boeing different Fly by wire concept

A

Airbus and Boeing commercial airplanes differ in their approaches in using fly-by-wire systems. In Airbus airliners, the flight-envelope control system always retains ultimate flight control when flying under normal law, and it will not permit the pilots to fly outside these performance limits unless flying under alternate law.[14] However, in the event of multiple failures of redundant computers, the A320 does have a mechanical back-up system for its pitch trim and its rudder. In the Boeing the two pilots can completely override the computerized flight-control system to permit the aircraft to be flown beyond its usual flight-control envelope during emergencies

140
Q

Are emergency procedures, memory or checklist?

A

the initial and most important steps have to be memorised then the rest is done by checklist

141
Q

What are the uses of hydraulics, if hydraulic power is lost can the landing gear still be lowered?

A

yes, emergency dumping lever

142
Q

How is electrical power generated in flight, does the aircraft use it’s batteries?

A

engine driven alternators for light planes 737 Primary electrical power is provided by two engine integrated drive generators (IDGs) which supply three-phase, 115 volt, 400 cycle alternating current. Each IDG supplies its own bus system in normal operation and can also supply essential and non-essential loads of the opposite side bus system when one IDG is inoperative

143
Q

When you open the bonnet of a car, what do you expect to see?

A

main thing is the engine …i guess

144
Q

What are the differences between precision and non precision approaches?

A

main difference is that the DA is lower for a precision approach and that for an non precision approach is called MDA

145
Q

How do aircraft navigate on the atlantic?

A

Well, most airlines do cross the ocean with GPS in today’s world. That being said, most (if not all) transcontinental airliners, and many flying domestic routes as well, have what’s called an inertial navigation system (a form of dead-reckoning where gyros and accelerometers are used to compute changes in position). The INS feeds into the flight management computer which is used to cross-check the GPS position, and can be used as a primary navigation source should the GPS signal be lost or corrupted. Prior to GPS, inertial navigation was the primary means of navigating across oceans.

146
Q

How does pressurisation work?

A

Cabin pressurisation is a process in which conditioned air is pumped into the cabin of an aircraft or spacecraft, in order to create a safe and comfortable environment for passengers and crew flying at high altitudes. For aircraft, this air is usually bled off from the gas turbine engines at the compressor stage, and for spacecraft, it is carried in high-pressure, often cryogenic tanks. The air is cooled, humidified, and mixed with recirculated air if necessary, before it is distributed to the cabin by one or more environmental control systems.[1] The cabin pressure is regulated by the outflow valve.

147
Q

What is false glideslope?

A

ILS - False Glideslope At an angle of about twice the angle of the real glideslope you can find a false glideslope (e.g., 3deg real glideslope, 6deg false glideslope). This is because the transmitter on the ground generates a mirror 150Hz sidelobe just above the 90Hz main lobe. You can prevent following a false glideslope by intercepting the G/S from below (During straight and level intercept altitude for example). When you are on the false glidslope, it can be recognised by the higher ROD.

148
Q

If you were flying to Europe, and were unable to retract the gear, how would you deal with it?

A

I would let ATC know and follow the emergency procedure

149
Q

What is the difference between MDA and DH?

A

DH/A = decision altitude for a precision approach where you decide to continue for a landing or going around MDA = minimum descent altitude, is the altitude you are allowed to descent to to look for runway clue and be able to land, it is also the altitude you are able to circle on

150
Q

What are the differences between a microwave and fan oven?

A

A convection oven (also known as a fan-assisted oven or simply a fan oven) is an oven that has fans to circulate air around food. The fans in convection ovens allow more heat to be transferred via convective heat transfer. A microwave oven, commonly referred to as a microwave, is a kitchen appliance that heats and cooks food by exposing it to electromagnetic radiation in the microwave spectrum. This induces polarised molecules in the food to rotate and produce thermal energy in a process known as dielectric heating.

151
Q

A wall socket is 220volts, but a bulb is 50 or 75 watts. How does this work?

A

the electricity goes trough the circuit the watt of the bulb make a different energy output as light intensity

152
Q

Taking off on runway 05, left hand circuit, what are the headings to turn onto?

A

320

153
Q

Scenario of engine fire while on approach, what procedure?

A

follow checklist and land asap

154
Q

What do sparkplugs do, how many per cylinder ?

A

they ignite the air/fuel mixture in the cylinder 2 per cylinder

155
Q

explain the ignition system

A

The simplest form of spark ignition is that using a magneto. The engine spins a magnet inside a coil, or, in the earlier designs, a coil inside a fixed magnet, and also operates a contact breaker, interrupting the current and causing the voltage to be increased sufficiently to jump a small gap. The spark plugs are connected directly from the magneto output, to the cylinder.

156
Q

differences between turbofans and turbojets, why are t/jets now scarce

A

in a turbojet most of the airflow flows around the engine core when with a turbo fan most of the airflow is ducted around the engine core, and most of the thrust is produced by the ducted airflow.

157
Q

If you lost hyd. ailerons, how else could you roll the aircraft

A

closing and opening the right and left engine alternating

158
Q

Why do we have SOPs?

A

Standard Operating Procedures for standard operations for everybody and to follow exact company procedures

159
Q

Explain what a great circle is? What map would be used for this?

A

great circle is the shortest distance between two point Lambert conformal conic projection approximates a great-circle route between endpoints for typical flight distances.

160
Q

what’s a rhumb line ? What map would be used for this?

A

a line that cuts meridian at the same angle Mercator chart, cylindrical map projection

161
Q

Draw a line of the take off roll and put the v speeds in order of how they come and why? Vmcg, V1, Vmca etc.

A

Vmcg, Vef, V1, Vmbe, Vr, Vmu, Vlof, Vmca and V2.

162
Q

what is the Standard Take Off Minimum ?

A

JAR OPS - 400 m standard. Anything below (down to 125 m or maybe less) is Low Visibility Take Off requiring special procedures and training. Although many crews are trained to the LVTO standard anyway and their manual may be written so that you cannot see a real difference between normal na LV take-off.

163
Q

Low Visibility Take Off

A

TAKE-OFF MINIMUMS The application of these minimums may be limited by the obstacle environment in the take-off and departure area. The RVR/VIS minimums are determined to ensure the visual guidance of the take-off run phase. The subsequent clearance of obstacles is the responsibility of the operator. Low visibility take-off with RVR/VIS below 400m requires the verification that Low Visibility Procedures (LVP) have been established and are in force. RVR/VIS for the initial part of take-off run can be replaced by pilot assessment. The multiple RVR requirement means, that the required RVR value must be achieved for all of the relevant RVR reporting points, except for the initial part, which can be determined by pilot assessment. Approved operators may reduce their take-off minimums to 125m (aircraft categories A, B, C), 150m (category D) or to 75m (all categories) with an approved lateral guidance system.

164
Q

what is the take off alternate requirement for a twin engine plane ?

A

For two-engined aeroplanes not approved for ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within: one hour flight time at one engine inoperative cruising speed

165
Q

IFR En Route Minimum Levels

A

Minimum Levels. Except when necessary for take-off and landing, or where specially authorised by the appropriate ATS authority, an IFR flight shall be flown at a level which is not below the minimum flight altitude established by the state whose territory is being overflown, or where no such minimum altitude is specified:  Over high terrain or mountainous areas (not defined further), the minimum level must be at least 600m (2000 ft) above the highest obstacle located within 8 km (5 nm) of the estimated position of the aircraft  In areas other than in a. above, minimum level is to be 300 m (1000 ft) above the highest obstacle within 8 km (5 nm) of the estimated position of the aircraft.

166
Q

What is your main consideration departing Dublin if the RVR is 300M?Take off alternate?

A

Low Visibility Take Off has to be performed, and make up for alternate one hour flight time at one engine inoperative cruising speed

167
Q

Does VMCA/VMCG vary with aircraft weight?

A

VMCG and VMCA are NOT effected by Weight. From what I understand about these two speeds, they are both control related. They are based on the critical engine failing. VMCG: The minimum control speed on the ground during the take off run. VMCA: The minimum control speed in the air that an aircraft is controllable. Both of these speeds decrease with increasing airfield elevation and Pressure Altitude. Reduced take off thrust and a large fin will also reduce VMCG. the only relation would be with the arm between the CofG and the stabiliser (fin). I.E a short arm (aft CofG) would require a larger rudder input and perhaps a higher VMC. But other than that I can’t find any relation.

168
Q

Does V1,VR and V2 vary with aircraft weight?

A

V1 = varies with aircraft weight. - if field length is restricted the higher the weight the lower the V1 because the distance to stop the plane in case on engine failure will be limited. - if field length is not limited the higher the weight the higher the V1 V2 and Vr as well change with weight

169
Q

main differences between INS/IRS

A

INS = Inertial Navigation System is a navigation aid that uses a computer, motion sensors (accelerometers) and rotation sensors (gyroscopes) to continuously calculate via dead reckoning the position, orientation, and velocity (direction and speed of movement) of a moving object without the need for external references. IRS = Inertial Reference System is an updated version of the INS Main Differences: IRS has: - Greater system integration - Laser gyro - Greater computer power - Strapdown System (no gimbals) - Vertical acceleration as well

170
Q

why do we fly at Mach Number ?

A

mainly, because the IAS is not anymore a actual figure of the A/C speed. We use Mach because flying high and fast it is mach number that determines our limits and our performance, rather than IAS.

171
Q

main differences between Carburettor and Fuel Injected Engine ?

A

in the Carburettor the fuel is sprayed into the venturi, where the air accelerates getting sucked into the engine. To create a fuel spray a bleed air duct is connected to the fuel duct. The fuel mixes with air and the mix goes into the piston. In the Fuel injected system the fuel is injected just before the air enters the cylinder. A Fuel Manifold Valve meters the fuel by sensing the amount of air coming into the cylinder and sprays the appropriate amount of fuel. Air and Fuel mix and enter the cylinder. Advantages - can work at any attitude - more precise - free of icing - more efficient for high performance engine Disadvantages - more complex - fuel vaporisation in fuel line

172
Q

How does a Carburettor Engine work ?

A

In the Carburettor the fuel is sprayed into the venturi, where the air accelerates getting sucked into the engine. To create a fuel spray a bleed air duct is connected to the fuel duct. The fuel mixes with air and the mix goes into the piston. Advantages - simple - very reliable - efficient enough for small engine Disadvantages - prone to carburettor ice - can’t work at all attitudes - can’t deliver same amount of mixture - inefficient with high performance plane

173
Q

Lift and Drag in a turn ?

A

L = W cos gamma D = W sin gamma

174
Q

What does Flat Rated mean ?

A

A flat rating simply means the engine has enough power to maintain a specified power level to a certain altitude (ie pressure and temp).

175
Q
A

myClass (1 decks)

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