RXPREP Chapter 6: Controlled substances part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What does CSA stand for

A

controll substance act

  • the DEA, under the DOJ, enforces the requirements in the CSA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

the schedule is determined based on wheter the drug has currently accepted…

A

medical use,
its relative abuse potential

and the potential for it to cause dependence when abused

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

the higher the abuse potential the higher/lower the schedule number

A

lower

schedule I drugs have the highest abuse potential and are considered to have no accepted medical use

(heroin and LSD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Schedule __-__ drugs are considered to have currently accepted medical uses

A

schedule II-V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What schedule?

no currently accepted medical use; high potential for abuse and lack of accepted safety under medical supervision

A

schedule I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what schedule?

high potential for abuse and may cause severe psychologiacl or physical dependence

A

schedule II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

lower abuse potential than schedules I and II; abuse may cause moderate or low potential for physical dependence or high psychological dependence

A

schedule III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

low potential for abuse relative to the next schedule, abuse may cause limited physical or psychological dependence

A

schedule IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

low potential for abuse relative it the next schedule, abuse may cause limited physical or psychological dependence relative to schedule IV

A

schedule V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
MDMA
GHB
Heroin
LSD
Marijuana/Cannabis sativa
mescaline
peyote
what schedule?
A

I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Alfentanil
codeine
fentanyl
hydrocodone, single ingredient

what schedule?

A

II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

hydrocodone combo products
hydromorphone/ Diluadid
levorphanol
meperidine / Demerol

what schedule?

A

II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

methadone/ Methadose
morphine / Kadian, MS Contin
oxycodone single ingredient/ OxyContin, Roxicodone

what schedule?

A

II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

oxycodone combo products/ Endocet, Percocet, Percodan
oxymorphone
sufentanil
tapentadol

what schedule?

A

II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Actiq

what schedule?

A

fentanyl

II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Duragesic

what schedule?

A

fentanyl

II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Hysingla ER

what schedule?

A

hydrocodone

II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Zohydro ER

what schedule?

A

hydrocodone

II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Lortab, Norco, Tussicaps, Tussionex, vicodin, vicoprofen

what schedule?

A

hydrocodone combo products

II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Opana

what schedule?

A

oxymorphone

II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Nucynta, Nucynta ER

A

Tapentadol

II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Focalin, Focalin XR

what schedule?

A

amphetamine/dextro

II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Dexerdrine

what schedule?

A

dextroamphetamine

II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Cocaine

what schedule?

A

II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Dronabinol solution (Syndros)

what schedule?

A

II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Levo-alpha-acetyl-methadol (LAAM(

what schedule?

A

II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Phentobarbital

what schedule?

A

II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Secobarbital

A

what schedule?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Benzphetamine

what schedule?

A

III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Buprenorphine, single ingredient (Butrans)

A

III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Buprenorphine/naloxone (Suboxone)

A

III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Butabarbital

A

III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Butalbital (Fioicet with codeine, Fiorinal, Fiorinal with codeine)

A

III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Codiene/acetaminophen (tylenol with codeine #3, tylenol with codeine #4)

A

III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Dronabinol capsules (Marinol)

A

III

NOTE: solution (Syndros is schedule II)

36
Q

Ketamine

A

III

37
Q

Paregoric

A

III

38
Q

Perampanel (Fycompa)

A

III

39
Q

Phendimetrazine

A

III

40
Q

Sodium oxybate (Xyrem)

A

III

41
Q

Testosterone and all anaboolic steroids (look for andro)

Androderm, Androgel

A

III

42
Q

What schedule are benzos?

A

IV

alprazolam/xanax, lorazepam/ativan, all the pams!

43
Q

Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)

A

benzo

IV

44
Q

Clobazam (Onfi)

A

benzo

IV

45
Q

Klonopin

A

benzo, IV

46
Q

Clorazepate (Tranxene-T)

A

benzo, IV

47
Q

Diastat AcuDial, Valium

A

benzo, IV

48
Q

Estazolam

A

benzo, IV

49
Q

Flurazepam

A

benzo, IV

50
Q

Versed

A

midazolam, IV

51
Q

Byfavo

A

Remimazolam, IV

52
Q

Restoril

A

Temazepam, IV

53
Q

Halcion

A

Triazolam, IV

54
Q

What schedule are hypnotics?

A

IV

55
Q

Lunesta, Sonata, Ambien, Edluar, Zolpimist

A

IV

56
Q

Suvorexant, Lemborexant, Zaleplon

A

IV

57
Q

Weight loss drugs are what schedule?

A

IV

Adipex-P
Qysmia
Diethylpropion

58
Q

Armodafinil/Nuvigil

Modafinil

A

schedule IV

59
Q

Butorphanol (Stadol)

A

schedule IV

60
Q

Carisoprodol (Soma)

A

schedule IV

61
Q

Difenoxin/atropin

A

IV

62
Q

eluxadolin

A

IV

63
Q

Phenobarbital

A

IV

64
Q

tramadol (Ultram)

tramadol/APAP (Ultracet)

A

IV

65
Q

Brivacetam

A

V

66
Q

Codeine containing cough syrups (codeine/promethazine, codeine/peomethazine/phenylephrine, codeine/guaifenasin)

A

V

Ceratussin AC

anything with AC

67
Q

Diphenoxylate/atropine (Lomotil)

A

V

68
Q

Lacosamide

A

V

Vimpat

69
Q

PRegabalin

A

V

lyrica

70
Q

when a schedule change occurs, a pharmacy must complete …

A

an inventory of the drug on the DATE of the changes becomes EFFECTIVE

71
Q

barbiturate schedules–

a single entity oral formulation, such as pentobarbital is scheduled as:

when it is used in combination and formulated as a supposititory, schedule:

A

II

III

phenobarbital: IV

federally non control –> Fioricet, but iowa i think it is scheduled

72
Q

Codeine schedules:

single entitiy products:

combination tablets/capsules:

combination cough syrups:

A

II

III

V

73
Q

Dronabinol schedules:

Oral solution:

oral capsules:

A

II (Syndros)

III (Marinol)

74
Q

The scheduling of some opioid-containing combintation drugs depends on the

A

opioid concentration compared to the other non-narcotic active ingredients

**we must know how to calculate the opioid concentration

if a drug exceeds the “not more than” quantity for schedule V, look to the next/more restrictive schedule cirtera

75
Q

A drug will be classified as schedule ____ if the opioid quantity is NMT:

1.8g of codeine per 100mL or 90mg per dosage unit when combined with an equal or greater quantity of an isoquinoline alkaloid of opium

A

schedule III

rule of 3

76
Q

A drug will be classified as schedule ____ if the opioid quantity is NMT:

1.8g of codeine per 100mL or 90mg per dosage unit when combined with one or more active non narcotic ingredient

A

schedule III

rule of 3

77
Q

A drug will be classified as schedule ____ if the opioid quantity is NMT:

1.8g of dihydrocodeine per 100mL or 90mg per dosage unit when combined with one or more active non narcotic ingredient

A

III

rule of 3

78
Q

A drug will be classified as schedule ____ if the opioid quantity is NMT:

50mg per 100mL or 100g per dosage unit when combined with one or more active non narcotic ingredient

A

III

rule of 3

79
Q

A drug will be classified as schedule ____ if the opioid quantity is NMT:

1mg difenoxin and lot les than 25mcg of atropine sulfate per dosage unit

A

IV

80
Q

A drug will be classified as schedule ____ if the opioid quantity is NMT:

200mg of codeine per 100mL or per 100g when combined with one or more active non nacotic ingredient (robitussin AC cough syrup)

A

V

rule of 5

81
Q

A drug will be classified as schedule ____ if the opioid quantity is NMT:

100mg of dihydrocodeine per 100mL or per 100g when combined with one or more active non nacotic ingredient (dihydrocodeine/clorpheniramine/phenylephrine cough syrup)

A

V

rule of 5

82
Q

A drug will be classified as schedule ____ if the opioid quantity is NMT:

2.5mg of diphenoxylate and not less than 25mcg of atropine sulfate per dosage unit (lomotil)

A

V

rule of 5

83
Q

Epidiolex (cannabidiol) the first FDA approved CBD derived product that is indicated for seizures associated with several disorders, is what schedule?

A

NON-CONTROLLED. (containing no more than 0.1% (w/w) residual THC

84
Q

Dronabinol (synthetic THC) is what schedule?

A

schedule II: syndros (oral solution)

schedule III (marinol oral capsule)

85
Q

Nabilone (Cesamet) what schedule?

A

II

86
Q

Legally, can CBD be extracted from hemp and used in topical products?

A

yes

FDA still regulates hemp and hemp-derived products, but they are no longer classified as schedule I – allows retail pharmacies to sell CBD containing topical products in select states