RTC 2 Flashcards
A Stabilised Approach is defined as:
An approach which is flown in a controlled and appropriate manner in terms of configuration, energy and control of the flight path from a pre-determined point or altitude to landing
After being intercepted during the day, the intercepting aircraft circles an aerodrome, lowering its landing gear and over flies the runway in the direction of landing. This means:
Land at this aerodrome
After being intercepted, the intercepting aircraft abruptly breaks away by climbing turning 90 degrees or more away from the path of your aircraft. This means:
You may proceed
Aircraft is traveling at 150kts GS and with a rate of descent of 775 fpm. What is the aircraft descent gradient?
5.1%
An aircraft losing two-way communication with ATC shall squawk?
7600
An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall:
Select one:
a. Squawk 7600 and attempt contact on 121.50MHz
b. Not change Squawk but shall attempt contact on the current assigned frequency
c. Squawk 7700 and attempt contact on 121.50 MHz
c. Squawk 7700 and attempt contact on 121.50 MHz
An IFR flight shall not be flown below the minimum flight altitude established by the State concerned, or where no such minimum is established, over high terrain or in mountainous areas the level will be?
2000ft where the obstacle is within 5m(8km) and elsewhere 1000ft within the same radius
An intercepting aircraft shall normally position itself relative to the intercepted aircraft:
Slightly above, ahead and to the left
Communication Failure. The following is true when “Transmitting Blind”:
Transmit all messages twice with the prefix “Transmitting Blind” and include the addressee for which the message is intended
Which of the following is true regarding communication failure?
Select one:
a. All countries have different procedures.
b. Different countries may have a different procedure.
c. All countries have the same procedure.
b. Different countries may have a different procedure.
Communication Failure: On take-off from Dublin you experience a radio failure. You do maintain…
…the last assigned level for 3 mins then continue with the flight plan
(Special Dublin procedure on chart)
Communication Failure: What is the ICAO/EUR procedure if you experience a radio failure under radar controlled airspace?
Maintain last assigned speed and level or MSA if higher for a period of 7 minutes
Emergency procedure: The pilot of an aircraft encountering a state of emergency shall squawk
7700
GPS/GNSS approaches are:
Select one:
a. Are permitted provided LNAV is used for lateral guidance
b. Not currently approved for our aircraft
c. Are permitted provided the aircraft has a single FMC
a. Are permitted provided LNAV is used for lateral guidance
Hijack: An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference shall squawk?
7500
ICAO Runway Markings: The ‘Aiming Point Markings’ are located at:
Select one:
a. 1,000 feet from the threshold when the runway is >= 2200m and 700 feet for a runway < 2200m but >=1000m
b. 400 m from the threshold when the runway is >= 2400m and 300m for a runway < 2400m but >=1200m
c. 311 metres from the threshold in all cases
b. 400 m from the threshold when the runway is >= 2400m and 300m for a runway < 2400m but >=1200m
If asked by ATC to hold at FL80 at a present position hold, what is the maximum speed and time you can hold at in non-turbulent conditions?
1 min legs / 230kts
Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA) provides:
1000 ft obstacle / terrain clearance within 25nm radius of the navigation facility
Navtech SID clearance reads: ‘At or Above FL080; Climb 6000ft, at CALTA cleared FL080’. What altitude is set in the MCP window?
6000
On a NPA approach, within how many degrees of the inbound track should you be to start descent?
5 degrees
On a racetrack procedure turn joining from sector 2 (offset) the time spent on the 30 degree offset leg for a racetrack procedure turn will be:
no more than 1min 30 seconds
Runway Lights: The abbreviation ALSF-II stands for:
Approach Light System with sequenced Flashing Lights CAT 2
Runway Lights: The abbreviation ‘CLL’ stands for:
Centreline Lights
Runway Lights: The abbreviation ‘HRCLL’ stands for:
High Intensity Runway Centre Line Lights
Runway Lights: The abbreviation ‘REIL’ stands for:
Runway Approach End Identifier Lights (threshold)
The effect on a CATIII A approach (DH50’) of unserviceable ‘Approach Lights’ is:
No effect on a CAT IIIA, however a CATII is not allowed
The effect on a CATIII A approach of one RVR reading (mid point or stop end) being uavailable due to failed equipment is:
No effect
The Final Approach Fix (FAF) is defined as:
A Maltese Cross for NPA’s
The maximum Circle to Land speeds and dimensions for the B737-800 are:
180kts/4.20nm
What does the abbreviation RAIM stand for in relation to GPS/GNSS approaches?
Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring
The CAT II/III holding position where a closer NPA or CAT I taxi holding point is provided
Intermediate taxi-holding position at an intersection of two paved taxiways.
Grooved Runway
What is an ‘Obstacle Clearance Height’ defined as?
Is the lowest height above the relevant runway threshold or aerodrome elevation, used in establishing compliance with the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria?
What is the definition of a Fail Passive flight control system?
In the event of failure there is no significant out of trim condition but the landing cannot be completed automatically
What is the missed approach point (MaPt) defined as?
The point in an instrument approach procedure at or before, which the prescribed missed approach must be initiated in order to ensure the minimum obstacle is not infringed
What is the range of Final Approach Speed that defines a Category C aircraft?
115/160 kts
What is the range of Initial Approach Speed that defines a Category C aircraft?
160/240
What is the wake turbulence category for the B737-800?
Medium (M), 7,000kg – 136,000kg
What will ATC do in the event of severe turbulence, that is forecasted, in relation to RVSM airspace:
ATC shall determine whether RVSM should be suspended or not
When an aircraft is unable to communicate due to receiver failure it shall use the prefix
“Transmitting Blind due to Receiver Failure”
Minimum Eye Height over threshold
When on a precision approach, when is it allowable to descend with the glide path in relation to the localiser?
Half scale deflection
When you are in a procedure turn and a descent is required after the inbound turn, how close must you be established in order to descend:
Plus or minus 5 degrees of the inbound track
Whilst completing a procedure turn (45degrees/180 degrees) in a B737-800, when shall the timing begin and for how long?
At the start of the turn for 1 min and 15 sec
You are asked to hold at FL160, how long would your outbound timing be and what speed would you maintain in normal conditions?
90 seconds and 240 kts
‘Standard’ (STD) altimeter setting is
1013.2hPa (29.92 in)
A Captains Special Report (CSR) should be submitted for:
OFP does not agree with the ATC flight plan, SAFA inspections findings.
(Answer not verified)
A flight plan will automatically deactivate at STD plus:
15mins
After departing an airport and currently below MSA, ATC give radar vectors that deviates from the SID/PLOG. Can you accept it?
Yes, provided obstacle clearance criteria and operating conditions are observed
After using the “Controlled Rest” procedure how long should you leave between the rest and recovery period to overcome the effects of sleep inertia?
20 mins
At what distance must you be at least in order to use a mobile phone whilst refuelling the aircraft?
3.5m of the refuelling point
At what height off the ground is the tower reported wind?
10 m AGL
At what N2% indication should the anti-collision beacon be switched off after engine shutdown?
Below 20% N2
Can reported meteorological visibility be converted to RVR for calculation of take-off minima?
No, the conversion may not be used for calculating take off minima
Can the aircraft be refuelled with the engines running?
Refuelling or defueling is not authorised with engine(s) running
Can the Captain self-position onto stand where electronic guidance or marshalling is required?
No, it is not permitted to self-position onto stands for which electronic guidance or marshalling is required
Contingency fuel shall be:
The higher of: Either 5% or 3% (En-route alternate) of the planned trip fuel or, in the event of in-flight re-planning, 5% or 3% (ERA) of the trip fuel for the remainder of the flight OR an amount to fly for five minutes at holding speed at 1500ft above the destination aerodrome in standard conditions
Does RYR use dedicated CAT IIIA approach plates?
No. Airports with CAT III approaches are included on the applicable ILS chart
For brake cooling on a turnaround the parking brake shall be released, only after complying with company procedure, for:
The brakes must be released for brake cooling, and the brakes shall be set when brake cooling times are satisfied
Fuel: What is the definition of Final Reserve Fuel (Reserve/Hold fuel)
Fuel to allow 30 minutes of flight at holding speed at 1500ft AAL in standard conditions
Fuel: Which of the following would lead you to declare a Fuel Mayday?
When the calculated usable fuel on landing is less than final reserve fuel
How are FIR boundaries highlighted during the cruise?
Highlight FIR boundaries on the OFP. Identify FIR point and insert fix into the FMC
How many minutes for wake separation do you need when departing from an intermediate holding point on the same runway as an A380:
4 minutes
How many minutes for wake separation do you need when departing from an intermediate holding point on the same runway as an B757 which departed from the full length:
No minimum wake turbulence gap
How much fuel over Flight Plan fuel may be carried without explanation on the voyage report?
Block fuel rounded up to the nearest 100kg plus 100kgs
How should details of a delayed departure be officially recorded?
Using the EFL delay menu and supported with CP remarks
If no Outer Marker/4NM position exists, above what altitude must the Captain decide to continue or go-around if the reported RVR is less than landing minima?
1000ft AAL
If the NOTAM’s or ATC give a report of failed or downgraded lighting or approach equipment at your destination, where can you obtain information on how this affects your approach and landing minima regarding a CAT II approach?
c. Operations Manual Part A 8.4.1.5
If the surface wind at destination exceeds 20kts the Captain will make the following PA when releasing Cabin Crew:
Cabin Crew, doors to manual and crosscheck, caution due to high winds
If you were unable to shut an engine down using the normal means, what should the Captain do at the end of the duty day?
File an ASR
In the cruise, for operations other than LNAV
Fly at least 10 kts above the minimum manoeuvring speed (lower amber band)
In the event that two weather related missed approaches have been carried out, can a third approach be made?
Yes, but only if weather information shows an improvement to double the visibility and cloud base of previous reported weather
Is it acceptable to practice a CAT II/III A approach to a CAT I runway?
Yes, if visibility is 1500m or greater and ceiling 500ft or higher
Is it allowed to fuel and board with Persons of Reduced Mobility (PRM) on board?
Yes, subject to local airport byelaws & restrictions
Is it necessary to file an ASR for all Go-arounds?
Only for those initiated below 1000ft AAL or above if there are additional reportable circumstances
Is the sight of only Sequenced Flashing Lights at CAT I minima considered sufficient visual reference to continue the approach below DA?
Select one:
a. No, you need the all the lights from the last 300m of the approach lighting system
b. Yes, any lights will suffice.
c. No. They give no roll reference.
d. Yes, no lights are required as it is an Autoland.
a. No, you need the all the lights from the last 300m of the approach lighting system
(Answer nit verified)
It is considered best practice to request “standard speeds” from ATC when higher speeds are offered. These speeds are:
220kts at the IAF, 180kts on base and 180kts on final approach track
May the Cockpit Voice Recorder CB be pulled in flight?
NO