Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Class + Laura Reviews > RR - Patient Care, Procedures, and Safety PRACTICE EXAMS > Flashcards

RR - Patient Care, Procedures, and Safety PRACTICE EXAMS Flashcards

1
Q

A patient who has a skin reaction to radiation therapy should follow all of the following: (Select all that apply.)

-Use lotions only as prescribed

-Ventilate the area

-Wash the area with hot water and soap

-Avoid direct sunlight to the area

A

-Use lotions only as prescribed

-Ventilate the area

-Avoid direct sunlight to the area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which blood examination tests the kidney function?

Hematocrit
CBC
Hemoglobin
Creatinine

A

Creatinine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Radiation treatments that use electrons can be billed as a:

-Simple Treatment
-Intermediate Treatment
-Complex Treatment
-Simple Simulation

A

-Complex Treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What part of the staging system describes metastatic disease?

T
N
M
G

A

M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the normal range for hemoglobin?

12.0 - 17.5 g/dL
3.5 - 10.5 billion cells/L
150,000 - 450,000/mcL
3.9 - 5.7 million/mcL

A

12.0 - 17.5 g/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The term used to describe how many people have a specific disease is:

Epidemiology
Etiology
Specificity
Sensitivity

A

Epidemiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Urine drainage bags should be kept at what level?

-Above level of patient’s chest
-Below level of bladder
-Above level of bladder
-At the same level of bladder

A

-Below level of bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If the radiation therapist restrains a patient without the appropriate approval from a physician, this is considered:

Assault
False imprisonment
Negligence
Malpractice

A

False imprisonment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following is an example of aseptic technique for medical equipment?

Bactericides
Steam under pressure
Moist heat
Dry heat

A

Bactericides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Giving nutrients to a malnourished patient through an IV is known as -

-Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy
-Myelosuppression
-Nasogastric tube
-Hyperalimentation

A

-Hyperalimentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Malnutrition due to an illness is known as:

-Anorexia
-Cachexia
-Kwashiorkor
-Marasmus

A

Cachexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the appropriate ratio of compressions to breaths during CPR for an adult?

30:2
15:2
20:2
60:2

A

30:2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following would be prescribed if the patient needs an anti-inflammatory medication?

Torecan
Lomotil
Hydrocortisone
Compazine

A

Hydrocortisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

All of the following are examples of early effects of radiation EXCEPT:

Nausea
Fatigue
Telangiectasis
Erythema

A

Telangiectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When all organisms and their spores are destroyed, this is termed:

Asepsis
Sterilization
Cleansing
Anti-bacterial

A

Sterilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

-Denial, Depression, Anger, Bargaining, Acceptance

-Bargaining, Denial, Depression, Acceptance, Anger

-Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, Acceptance

-Bargaining, Denial, Anger, Depression, Acceptance

A

-Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, Acceptance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The term “battery” means:

-Harmfully touching another person

-Threatening to harm someone

-Verbally insulting someone’s character

-Writing insulting words about someone’s character

A

-Harmfully touching another person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the normal range for red blood cells?

12.0 - 17.5 g/dL
3.5 - 10.5 billion cells/L
150,000 - 450,000/mcL
3.90 - 5.70 million/mcL

A

3.90 - 5.70 million/mcL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following defines the standards for patient confidentiality?

HIPPA
OSHA
DICOM
PACS

A

HIPPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the minimum number of ways a patient must be identified?

1
2
3
4

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What part of the staging system describes the tumor size?

T
N
M
G

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the most efficient way to reduce the spread of infection in the healthcare setting?

Gloves
Gowns
Hand Washing
Protective Eyewear

A

Hand Washing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Informed consent must inform the patient about all of the following EXCEPT:

-The procedure and treatment
-Risks of having the treatment
-Alternative treatment options
-Costs of treatments

A

-Costs of treatments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Tuberculosis can be transmitted through which mode of transmission?

Vehicle-borne
Vector-borne
Airborne
Droplet

A

Airborne

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

-The Radiation Oncologists who prescribed dose

-The Doisimetrist who planned the treatment

-The Radiation Therapists involved in the treatment

-The Nurses involved in the patient’s care

A

-The Radiation Therapists involved in the treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Flies, mosquitos and ticks are examples of which mode of transmission?

Vehicles
Vectors
Droplets
Fomites

A

Vectors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following is NOT a severe reaction to contrast media?

Anaphylactic shock
Unresponsiveness
Nausea
Pallor

A

Pallor

Pallor = an unhealthy pale appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The legal doctrine that states the employee is liable for themselves when they are negligent is known as:

Res ipsa loquitar
Respondeat superior
Tort
Res ipsa superior

A

Res ipsa loquitar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When transferring a patient from a wheelchair to the treatment table, the wheelchair should be positioned:

-Parallel to the table
-Perpendicular to the table
-At a 45 degree angle to the table
-Away from the table

A

-Parallel to the table

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Patients with Tuberculosis should follow what type of precaution?

-Reverse isolation precaution
-Contact precaution
-Droplet precaution
-Airborne precaution

A

-Airborne precaution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A health care proxy is someone who:

-Makes decisions for the patient when they are not able to

-Creates the treatment plan for the patients therapy

-Provides religious services to patients

-Provides counseling and information to patients and their families

A

-Makes decisions for the patient when they are not able to

– also known as Medical Power of Attorney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which of the following sets the standards for handling toxic materials such as Cerrobend?

HIPAA
OSHA
DICOM
PACS

A

OSHA

–OSHA = Occupational Safety and Health Administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which of the following is an example of how a droplet infection can be spread?

Sneeze
Touch
Food
Mosquitos

A

Sneeze

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Cancer screening tests that can determine a CERTAIN TYPE of cancer is:

Sensitive
Specific
Detailed
Precise

A

**Sensitive – accurately detects a tumor in the early stages

**Specific – detects a particular type of cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Regarding needle safety, therapists must do all of the following EXCEPT:

-Discard the needle in a puncture-resistant container
-Use a new needle for each patient
-Recap needles after use
-Report unwarranted needle sticks

A

-Recap needles after use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Written defamation of character is:
Slander
Libel
Negligence
Assault

A

Libel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

In an emergency situation a patient is unable to give consent for a procedure due to their mental state. Therefore someone else has to make this decision for them. This type of consent is:

Written consent
Verbal consent
Implied consent
Inadequate consent

A

Implied consent

Implied consent = implied that the patient would consent if conditions permitted; especially used in emergency situations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which of the following behaviors are helpful when speaking with patients who are hard of hearing? (Choose all correct answers.)

-Yell at patient
-Speak slower
-Face patient when speaking
-Only use written communication

A

-Speak slower
-Face patient when speaking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Thrush may be treated with -

Antiemetics
Antifungal infections
Antibiotics
Corticosteroids

A

Antifungal infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What device may be used to move patient who cannot stand from a wheelchair to the treatment table?

Slider board
Hoyer lift
Transfer board
Gait Belt

A

Hoyer lift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

If a patient has 2 different types of treatments at the same time, what is this termed?

Adjuvant
Sequential
Substatial
Concurrent

A

Concurrent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which of the following is a radioprotector?

Doxorubicin
Amifostine
Cyclophosphamide
5-FU

A

Amifostine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Surgery is never used prophylactically.
True
False

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

A common combination of chemotherapy drugs used to treat breast cancer is:

CMF
ABVD
MOPP
CHOP

A

CMF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

A surgical procedure in which an incision is made through the abdominal wall to examine lymph nodes and establish the extent of disease is called a(n):

Incisional biopsy
Laparoscopy
Mastectomy
Radical excision

A

Laparoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The type of chemotherapy drug that has a chemical structure similar to that of mustard gas is?

Antimetabolite
Antitumor antibiotic
Alkylating agent
Nitrosource

A

Alkylating agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

When a brachytherapy source is placed directly into a vessel this is?

Intracavitary
Interstitial
Intervascular
Interluminal

A

intervascular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Gemcitabine is what type of chemotherapy drug?

Alkylating
Plant Alkaloid
Antimetabolite
Platinum based

A

Antimetabolite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Actinomycin D is a(n):
Alkylating agent
Antitumor antibiotic
Antiemetic
Hormonal agent

A

Antitumor antibiotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

A patient may be inoperable if:

  • tumor adjacent to heart
  • pre-existing health condition
  • tumor on the face
  • tumor location difficult to obtain negative margins
A
  • pre-existing health condition
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which type of biopsy would be useful to obtain cells from a cystic tumor?

Fine needle Aspiration
Core needle biopsy
Excisional biopsy
Wedge biopsy

A

Fine needle Aspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Brachytherapy treatment to the breast is an example of:

Intracavitary
Surface
Interstitial
Intralumen

A

Interstitial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

The class of cytotoxic agents that has the potential to burn the skin of the administrator is:

Alkylating agents
Antimetabolism
Plant alkaloids
Hormones

A

Alkylating agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which of the following is NOT a radiation sensitizer?

Actinomycin D
Misonidozol
Stylbesterol
Oxygen

A

Actinomycin D

– Actinomycin D = anti bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The newest modality used in the treatment of cancer is:

Surgery
Radiation therapy
Chemotherapy
Surveillance

A

Chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Voxels represent the _________ of a CT image.

Brightness
Contrast
Slice thickness
Number of pixels

A

Slice thickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Why are diagnostic CTs not optimal for treatment planning?

– Flat couch top
- Small bore
- Slice thickness cannot be changed
- Spacing between slices cannot be changed

A

Small bore

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The DRR is created from?

CT
MRI
X-ray
Port film

A

CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

In which plane are CT slices originally obtained?

Axial
Coronal
Sagittal
Lateral

A

Axial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

DRRs can be created from the CT scans after a process called:

Registration
Reconstruction
Transmission
Transformation

A

Reconstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The Hounsfield unit of air is:

+1000
-1000
0
-100

A

-1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the term that describes the average level of shades of gray present on a CT image?

Window level
Window median
Window width
Window height

A

Window level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What part of the CT simulator is often referred to as the “bore”?

X-ray tube
Gantry
Fan Beam Detectors
X-ray Tube

A

Gantry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

The standard format used to transfer images from diagnostic imaging computers to treatment planning computers is defined by:

DICOM
PACS
DRR
EMR

A

DICOM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

The CT number for bone is?

-1000
0
1000
100

A

1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

All of the following are contraindications for using contrast media EXCEPT:

-Patients under 50
-Patient over 50
-Patients with impaired kidney function.
-Patients who have had reactions to contrast media in the past.

A

-Patients under 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

During the CT simulation, the mA needs to be increased to create a change in the image quality, this will also lead to:

-An increased patient dose
-A decreased patient dose
-The same patient dose
-No patient dose

A

-An increased patient dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

4D treatment planning incorporates _________ in addition to regular treatment planning.

  • Involuntary motion
  • Respiratory motion
  • Multiple treatment sites
  • Larger treatment margins
A
  • Respiratory motion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Images within the therapy department are shared and stored through:

DICOM
PACS
DRR
EMR

A

PACS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The contrast given during CT simulation will highlight specific organs to further help create the treatment plan by: (Select all that apply.)

-Contrast can highlight the area to be treated.
-Contrast can highlight the bones.
-Contrast can highlight critical structures to be avoided.
-Contrast can highlight hair.

A

-Contrast can highlight the area to be treated.

-Contrast can highlight critical structures to be avoided.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

The contrast given during CT simulation will highlight specific organs to further help create the treatment plan by: (Select all that apply.)

-Contrast can highlight the area to be treated.
-Contrast can highlight the bones.
-Contrast can highlight critical structures to be avoided.
-Contrast can highlight hair.

A

-Contrast can highlight the area to be treated.

-Contrast can highlight critical structures to be avoided.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

DRR stands for:

  • Digitally reconstructed radiograph
  • Digitally represented radiograph
  • Diagnostic radiograph reconstruction
  • Dose ration reconstruction
A
  • Digitally reconstructed radiograph
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

A name for a value that represents a specific shade of gray on the CT image is:

Window width
Window level
CT number
CT density

A

CT number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What part of the CT simulator is often referred to as the “bore”?

X-ray tube
Gantry
Fan Beam Detectors
X-ray Tube

A

Gantry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Images within the therapy department are shared and stored through:

DICOM
PACS
DRR
EMR

A

PACS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Voxels represent the _________ of a CT image.
Brightness
Contrast
Slice thickness
Number of pixels

A

Slice thickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

The ideal bolus material must have which of the following:

  • The same density as the soft tissue it replaces.
  • High density additives to reduce skin doses.
  • The ability to reduce penumbra.
  • All of the above.
A

The same density as the soft tissue it replaces.

78
Q

The isodose curve is obtained by joining points that have the same:

Dose
Depth
SSD
TAR

A

Dose

79
Q

During the CT simulation, the mA needs to be increased to create a change in the image quality, this will also lead to:

  • An increased patient dose
  • A decreased patient dose
  • The same patient dose
  • No patient dose
A
  • An increased patient dose
80
Q

4D treatment planning incorporates _________ in addition to regular treatment planning.

  • Involuntary motion
  • Respiratory motion
  • Multiple treatment sites
  • Larger treatment margins
A
  • Respiratory motion
81
Q

The CT number for water is?

-1000
0
1
1000

A

0

82
Q

The tumor and normal surrounding tissue enclosed by an isodose surface is called the:

  • Dose-volume histogram
  • Average gradient volume
  • Treatment volume
  • Minimum target volume
A
  • Treatment volume
83
Q

The CT number for bone is?

-1000
0
1000
100

A

1000

84
Q

Why are diagnostic CTs not optimal for treatment planning?

– Flat couch top
– Small bore
– Slice thickness cannot be changed
– Spacing between slices cannot be changed

A

– Small bore

85
Q

When selecting a field arrangement you must first:

– check the limits & capability of the treatment machines available
– identify target volume and its position relative to adjacent radiosensitive structures
– construct the appropriate ancillary treatment devices
– select the appropriate fractionation scheme

A

– identify target volume and its position relative to adjacent radiosensitive structures

86
Q

Treatment couches (PSA’s) are typically constructed of:

Carbon fiber
Lucite
Lead
Cerrobend

A

Carbon fiber

87
Q

A common combination of chemotherapy drugs used to treat breast cancer is:

CMF
ABVD
MOPP
CHOP

A

CMF

88
Q

When creating an IMRT treatment plan, the type of planning used is most likely:

Forward planning
Inverse planning
2D planning
3D planning

A

Inverse planning

89
Q

All of the following are characteristics of collimating jaws in modern day linear accelerators: (Select all that apply.)

Moveable
Asymmetric
Tungsten
Cerrobend

A

Moveable
Asymmetric
Tungsten

90
Q

4D treatment planning incorporates _________ in addition to regular treatment planning.

Involuntary motion
Respiratory motion
Multiple treatment sites
Multiple immobilization devices

A

Respiratory motion

91
Q

Surgery is never used prophylactically.
True
False

A

False

92
Q

What is true regarding preoperative radiation therapy or chemotherapy?

– Uses higher doses than when used alone
– Used to treat microscopic disease
– Are used to increase resectability of tumor in surgery
– Is never used preoperatively

A

– Are used to increase resectability of tumor in surgery

93
Q

Cerrobend (Lipowitz metal) is made up of the following combination:

Tin, Lead, Cadmium, Bismuth

Iron, Bismuth, Aluminum, Lead

Titanium, Lead, Cadmium, Bismuth

Tin, Lead, Copper, Bismuth

A

Tin, Lead, Cadmium, Bismuth

94
Q

Which of the following is not a type of biopsy?
Fine-needle
Past point
Core needle
Incisional

A

Past point

95
Q

Which type of biopsy would be useful to obtain cells from a cystic tumor?

Fine needle Aspiration
Core needle biopsy
Excisional biopsy
Wedge biopsy

A

Fine needle Aspiration

96
Q

Viewing images prior to the patient’s treatment and making any necessary adjustments is considered?

CT Simulation
Online review
Offline review
Reconstruction

A

Online review

97
Q

Patient marks can be effectively applied by all of the following EXCEPT:
Tattoo
Ballpoint pen
Paint Pen
Carfusion

A

Ballpoint pen

98
Q

Which of the following drugs causes heart toxicity?
bleomycin
cisplatin
5 FU
adriamycin

A

adriamycin

99
Q

Which of the following is not a radiation sensitizer?

Actinomycin D
Misonidozol
Stylbesterol
Oxygen

A

Stylbesterol

100
Q

tumor adjacent to heart

pre-existing health condition

tumor on the face

tumor location difficult to obtain negative margins

A

pre-existing health condition

101
Q

Which of the following WOULD be included on a radiation therapy treatment prescription?

Bolus
Monitor Units
Contrast
Immobilization Device(s)

A

Bolus

102
Q

Patient marks can be effectively applied by all of the following EXCEPT:
Tattoo
Ballpoint pen
Paint Pen
Carfusion

A

Ballpoint pen

103
Q

An immobilization device that is made up of a thick plastic bag with small styrofoam pellets and uses a vacuum to shape the bag is:

Alpha Cradles
Vac-Lok
Aquaplast
Bolus

A

Vac-Lok

104
Q

If the tolerance doses for the organs at risk and the tumor volume are chosen then the treatment computer creates a plan, this is most likely?

Forward planning
Inverse planning
2D planning
3D planning

A

Inverse planning

105
Q

IMRT is a sophisticated method of radiation delivery to a target area and dose not require port film verification.

True
False

A

False

106
Q

When creating an IMRT treatment plan, the type of planning used is most likely:

Forward planning
Inverse planning
2D planning
3D planning

A

Inverse planning

107
Q

4D treatment planning incorporates _________ in addition to regular treatment planning.

Involuntary motion
Respiratory motion
Multiple treatment sites
Multiple immobilization devices

A

Respiratory motion

108
Q

All of the following could be found on the treatment prescription EXCEPT:

Total dose
Fractionated dose
Monitor Units
Bolus

A

Monitor Units

109
Q

All of the following are characteristics of collimating jaws in modern day linear accelerators: (Select all that apply.)

Moveable
Assymetric
Tungsten
Cerrobend

A

Moveable
Assymetric
Tungsten

110
Q

The target to skin distance (TSD) is measured using:

Meter scale
SSD rod
ODI indicator
Lasers

A

ODI indicator

111
Q

A treatment plan calls for adjacent fields 15 cm & 20 cm long. The plan will achieve uniform dose distribution at a depth of 11 cm. The SSD is 100 cm. What is the gap?

1.925 cm
2.135 cm
0.845 cm
3.675 cm

A

1.925 cm

112
Q

Output for electron cones depends on:

– Distance from the source to the opening
– Size of the cone
– Size of the insert
– Position of primary collimators
– All of the above

A

– All of the above

113
Q

Which isodose curve defines the “therapeutic range” of an electron beam?

50%
80%
90%
100%

A

90%

114
Q

As SSD increases what happens to the percentage depth dose?

– PDD increases
– It is dependent on the treatment unit.
– PDD decreases
– PDD remains unchanged

A

– PDD increases

115
Q

A patient is receiving arc therapy for 30 treatments. The total dose is 54 Gy, with a daily dose of 180 cGy. The are will deliver 200 MU. The gantry is moving from 345 to 179 in a clockwise rotation. Calculate the arc speed.

0.79 degrees/MU
0.97 degrees/MU
0.83 degrees/MU
1.21 degrees/MU

A

0.97 degrees/MU

116
Q

The most suitable electron beam energy for the treatment of a tumor located within 4 cm of the skin surface:
1 MEV
3 MEV
4 MEV
12 MEV

A

12 MEV

117
Q

What is the equivalent square for a rectangular field measuring 8 cm x 12 cm?

4.8 cm x 4.8 cm
9.6 cm x 9.6 cm
10.5 cm x 10.5 cm
11.2 cm x 11.2 cm

A

9.6 cm x 9.6 cm

118
Q

A patient is treated at a nonstandard distance of 125 cm. What will be the field dimension on the skin surface if the collimator indicates a size of 16 x 32 cm, for a distance of 80 cm?

18 x 34 cm
25 x 50 cm
28 x 53 cm
30 x 55 cm

A

28 x 53 cm

119
Q

All of the following are a direct relationship with PDD: (select all that apply)

Energy
Depth
Field Size
SSD

A

Energy
Field Size
SSD

120
Q

What is often employed in order to remove the SSD dependence of PDD calculations?

– Source attenuation ratio
– Mayneord F factor
– Beam spoiler
– TAR or TMR

A

– TAR or TMR

121
Q

What is the dmax for a 12 MeV beam?

1.5 cm
2.2 cm
2.8 cm
3.0 cm

A

2.8 cm

122
Q

In order to measure patient dosimetry accurately, which of the following factors must be considered?
-choose all that apply

Field Size
Body contours
Tissue density
Target depth

A

Field Size
Body contours
Tissue density
Target depth

123
Q

Percent Depth Dose is affected by:
-choose all that apply

Quality of beam
Depth of lesion
Area of treatment port
SSD

A

SSD
Area of treatment port

124
Q

Alpha particles are chemically similar to?
Carbon
Helium
Nitrogen
Hydrogen

A

Helium

125
Q

Clarkson integration

Equivalent square

Monte Carlo Computation

Mayneord F factor

A

Mayneord F factor

126
Q

What is the largest gland in the body?
Stomach
Pancreas
Liver
Spleen

A

Liver

127
Q

The following areas will all need a supplemental boost after TSEBT: (Select all that apply.)

Feet
Hands
Scalp
Skin Folds
Perineum
Eye Lids

A

feet
scalp
perineum
skin folds

128
Q

External beam radiation to the lung typically begins with AP/PA fields, followed by oblique fields beginning at a dose of:
3,000 cGy
4,500 cGy
5,500 cGy
6,500 cGy

A

6,500 cGy

129
Q

PRIMARY lymphatic drainage of the cervix is the:

Obturator nodes
Inguinal nodes
Para-aortic nodes
Nodal spread is rare

A

Obturator nodes

130
Q

When treating a superficial lesion with electron therapy on the lip, what can be used to prevent dose to the gingiva?

Block
Transmission filter
Internal Shield
Bolus

A

Internal Shield

131
Q

Radiation to the local site can stop the bleeding by activating anti-coagulating cells.
True
False

A

False

132
Q

Be authoritative and firm

Make sure that they do not cry

Give them extra time for dressing and undressing

Acknowledge that modesty and privacy are paramount

A

Acknowledge that modesty and privacy are paramount

133
Q

What is the staging system used for colorectal cancer?
Ann Arbor
FIGO
Duke’s
TMN

A

Duke’s

134
Q

When treating the pelvis for gynecological cancer, what is not an organ at risk?

Bladder
Small bowel
Liver
Rectum

A

Liver

135
Q

The histologic type of lung cancer most closely associated with asbestos exposure is:

– Adenocarcinoma
– Mesothelioma
– Squamous cell carcinoma
– Oat cell carcinoma

A

– Mesothelioma

136
Q

Lymph nodes are what length?

4 – 6 cm
10 – 15 cm
1 – 25 mm
2 – 4 in

A

1 – 25 mm

137
Q

Multifocal metastatic brain tumors

Recurrent 5 cm brain tumors

Solitary 2 cm primary brain tumors

Solitary 5 cm primary brain tumors

A

Solitary 2 cm primary brain tumors

138
Q

Which of the leukemias is NOT associated with previous radiation exposure?
ALL
AML
CLL
CML

A

CLL

139
Q

When the supraclavicular fossa is treated along with the opposing tangents, the supraclavicular field is being treated using:

AP/PA ports
Wedged Pair
Rotational beam
Half field technique

A

Half field technique

140
Q

A typical field size for the treatment of T5 - T10 would be:

15x20 cm
12x36 cm
15x8 cm
8x15 cm

A

8x15 cm

–> Field widths will range from 6-8 cm to cover the transverse processes depending on region of spine. Allow a length of : 1.5cm for each c-spine 2.5cm for each t-spine 3.0cm for each l-spine Fields should include on vertebral body above and below the affected vertebrae.

141
Q

What acronym represents the fundamental radiation safety principle used in radiation therapy?
ALARA
OAR
TAR
HVL

A

ALARA

142
Q

The 3 principles of ALARA include:
-choose all that apply
———————————-
Personnel and facilities monitoring

Time

Neutron contamination

Distance

Shielding

A

time
distance
shielding

143
Q

Double the shielding

Double the Time

Double the distance

Doubling the Time, Doubling the Distance and Doubling the shielding have the same effect

A

Double the distance

144
Q

What organization sets the recommended dose limits for radiation workers and the general public?

NRC
NCRP
ACR
ASRT

A

NCRP

145
Q

The annual dose equivalent limit for whole-body occupational exposure is:

0.05 rem
0.5 rem
5 rem
50 rem

A

5 rem

146
Q

The annual dose equivalent limit for occupational exposure of the extremity is:

0.05 rem
0.5 rem
5 rem
50 rem

A

50 rem

147
Q

Personnel must be monitored for radiation exposure if they are expected to receive ___ % of the dose equivalent limit.

10
30
50
70

A

10

148
Q

Inexpensive

Can be used for different types and energies of radiation

Easy to use

Accurate

A

Accurate

149
Q

Thermoluminescent dosimeters are commonly made of what material?

Lithium fluoride
Aluminum oxide
Silver bromide
Sulfur hexafluoride

A

Lithium fluoride

150
Q

Which of the following personnel monitors provides immediate readings?

Film badge dosimeters

Thermoluminescent dosimeters

Optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter

Pocket ionization chambers

A

Pocket ionization chambers

151
Q

What is an advantage of using optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter (OSL) over another type of personnel dosimeter?

Can be read immediately

Can detect different energies of radiation

Are the most inexpensive personnel dosimeter

Do not require additional equipment to measure readings

A

Can detect different energies of radiation

152
Q

“Caution - Radiation Area” signs are used to identify areas in which radiation workers may receive:

Any amount of radatiation

5 mrem/h

100 rem/h

500 rem/h

A

5 mrem/h

153
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding radiation protection surveys?

Geiger-Muller counters are used to measure exposure

Are used to verify exposure levels

Completed periodically per regulatory body recommendations

Are used to ensure shielding levels are adequate

A

Geiger-Muller counters are used to measure exposure

154
Q

How often the beam is on each week

Fraction of time beam is directed at each barrier

Fraction of time the adjacent area will be occupied

Distance from source of radiation to adjacent area

A

How often the beam is on each week

155
Q

An occupancy factor of _____ should be used for control rooms when planning shielding thickness.

50
1/2
1
100

A

1

156
Q

The orbital electron shell that is closest to the nucleus is:

J
K
L
M

A

K

157
Q

The number of protons in an atom is also known as:

Atomic mass number
A
Atomic number
X

A

Atomic number
(Z)

158
Q

Isotopes have the same number of ___ and different number of ____.
Neutrons, protons
Electrons, neutrons
Protons, neutrons
Neutrons, electrons

A

Protons, neutrons

159
Q

Characteristic X-rays and Auger electrons are produced

A positron and negatron are emitted from the nucleus

A Helium nucleus is emitted.

A proton is transformed into a neutron.

A

A positron and negatron are emitted from the nucleus

160
Q

With electron capture (choose all correct answers):
———————————–
Characteristic X-rays and Auger electrons are produced

Occurs in High Z materials

A Helium nucleus is emitted

A proton is transformed into a neutron

A

– Characteristic X-rays and Auger electrons are produced
– A proton is transformed into a neutron

161
Q

Which of the following radioisotopes is used for LDR Gyn Brachytherapy?

I-131
Cs-137
Pd-103
Ir-192

A

Cs-137

162
Q

The half-life of Pd-103 is:
74.2 days
30 years
17 days
2.7 days

A

17 days

163
Q

Which of the following is not a type of electromagnetic radiation?

Microwaves
Neutrons
X-rays
Radiowaves

A

Neutrons

164
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the wavelength frequencies of electro-magnetic radiation?

– Wavelength is measured in Hertz
– Wavelength and frequency are inversely related
– The product of frequency and wavelength is Planck’s constant
– Frequency is represented by X

A

– Wavelength and frequency are inversely related

165
Q

_______ describes the thickness of the medium needed to attenuate the beam’s original intensity in half.

– Linear attenuation coefficient
– Half-value layer
– Inverse Square Law
– Decay constant

A

Half-value layer

166
Q

What term describes the relationship with beam intensity and distance from the source of a beam for photons as it travels through some medium?

– Linear attenuation coefficient
– Inverse square law
– Quantum model
– Transmission proportionality

A

– Inverse square law

167
Q

Which of the following is not a filter used for low-energy treatment machines?

Copper
Thoraeus
Tungsten
Aluminum

A

Tungsten

168
Q

Which photon interaction with matter is most likely to occur with diagnostic imaging?

Coherent scattering
Photoelectric effect
Compton effect
Pair production

A

Photoelectric effect

169
Q

Which photon interaction with matter is most likely to occur with radiation therapy delivery via linear accelerators?

Coherent scattering
Photoelectric effect
Compton effect
Pair production

A

Compton effect

170
Q

Which photon interaction with matter is most likely to occur with radiation therapy delivery via orthovoltage?

Coherent scattering
Photoelectric effect
Compton effect
Pair production

A

Photoelectric effect

171
Q

What interaction is responsible for neutron contamination in radiation therapy?

Coherent scattering
Photoelectric effect
Pair production
Photodisintegration

A

Photodisintegration

172
Q

Pair production occurs in:

– Photon beams greater than or equal to 1.022 keV
– Photon beams greater than or equal to 1.022 MeV
– Electron beams greater than or equal to 1.022 keV
– Electron beams greater than or equal to 1.022 MeV

A

– Photon beams greater than or equal to 1.022 MeV

173
Q

In the coherent scattering interaction, the energy of the ejected photon is _______ than the incident photon.

Lower
Greater
Equal
A photon is not ejected in coherent scattering.

A

Equal

174
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding inelastic electron-electron collisions?

– Occurs in matter with high Z
– Rate of energy loss is dependent on density of the matter it passes through
– Incident electrons do not interact with electrons of the matter in which it passes through
– Kinetic energy is not lost

A

– Rate of energy loss is dependent on density of the matter it passes through

175
Q

The ________ tail is seen at the end of electron depth dose curves.

Bragg
Bremsstrahlung
Characteristic
Auger

A

Bremsstrahlung

176
Q

Proton and alpha particles exhibit a _______ peak at the end of their range of travel, where most of their energy is deposited.

Bragg
Bremsstrahlung
Characteristic
Auger

A

Bragg

177
Q

What is not true regarding neutron interactions?

– Are directly ionizing
– Wax and water are used for blocking neutrons
– Interact with the nucleus
– Do not lose much energy when they react with target nuclei

A

– Do not lose much energy when they react with target nuclei

178
Q

The traditional unit for exposure is:

Gray (Gy)
Roentgens (R)
Rem
Rad

A

Roentgens (R)

179
Q

Absorbed dose is measured in (select all that apply):

Gray
Becquerel
Rem
Rad
Sievert

A

Gray
Rad

180
Q

What is NOT true regarding dose equivalent?

– Rem is the SI unit
– Gamma rays have a QF of 1
– Alpha particles have a QF of 20
– Can be measured in Sv

A

– Rem is the SI unit

181
Q

10 to the -3

2.7 x 10 to the 11 Ci

0.693

100 ergs/g

A

0.693

182
Q

Which of the following are used to calibrate linear accelerators?

– Pocket ionization chambers
– Cutie Pie ionization chambers
– Thimble chambers
– Geiger-Muller chambers

A

– Thimble chambers

183
Q

Patient dose monitoring can be accurately measured with:

Radiographic film
Diode detectors
Neutron detectors
Farmer chambers

A

Diode detectors

184
Q

Somatic effects of radiation:

– Occurs in the irradiated individual
– Is passed on to future generations
– Has a threshold dose
– Severity increases with increased dose

A

– Occurs in the irradiated individual

185
Q

Acute effects are within ____ months of radiation exposure.
2
4
6
8

A

6

186
Q

The most radioSENSITIVE phase of the cell cycle is:
G1
S
G2
M

A

M

S = most resistant!

187
Q

Hypofractionation uses:

– Multiple fractions per day
– Lower dose per fraction
– Increased number of fractions
– Increased dose per fraction

A

– Increased dose per fraction

188
Q

Dividing the total dose into multiple fractions to improve tumor control and reduce normal effects

The time in which the total dose is delivered

The total dose the patient receives

Increased dose per fraction with decreased number of fractions

A

The time in which the total dose is delivered

189
Q

Linear-exponential model

Alpha-linear model

Single target, multi-hit model

Linear-quadratic model

A

Single target, multi-hit model

190
Q

Linear Energy Transfer (LET) is measured in units of:

keV/μm
MeV/μm
keV/mm
MeV/mm

A

keV/μm

Class + Laura Reviews (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions