RR - Patient Care, Procedures, and Safety PRACTICE EXAMS Flashcards by Olivia Miller

A patient who has a skin reaction to radiation therapy should follow all of the following: (Select all that apply.)

-Use lotions only as prescribed

-Ventilate the area

-Wash the area with hot water and soap

-Avoid direct sunlight to the area

-Use lotions only as prescribed

-Ventilate the area

-Avoid direct sunlight to the area

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Which blood examination tests the kidney function?

Hematocrit
CBC
Hemoglobin
Creatinine

Creatinine

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Radiation treatments that use electrons can be billed as a:

-Simple Treatment
-Intermediate Treatment
-Complex Treatment
-Simple Simulation

-Complex Treatment

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What part of the staging system describes metastatic disease?

T
N
M
G

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What is the normal range for hemoglobin?

12.0 - 17.5 g/dL
3.5 - 10.5 billion cells/L
150,000 - 450,000/mcL
3.9 - 5.7 million/mcL

12.0 - 17.5 g/dL

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The term used to describe how many people have a specific disease is:

Epidemiology
Etiology
Specificity
Sensitivity

Epidemiology

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Urine drainage bags should be kept at what level?

-Above level of patient’s chest
-Below level of bladder
-Above level of bladder
-At the same level of bladder

-Below level of bladder

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If the radiation therapist restrains a patient without the appropriate approval from a physician, this is considered:

Assault
False imprisonment
Negligence
Malpractice

False imprisonment

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Which of the following is an example of aseptic technique for medical equipment?

Bactericides
Steam under pressure
Moist heat
Dry heat

Bactericides

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Giving nutrients to a malnourished patient through an IV is known as -

-Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy
-Myelosuppression
-Nasogastric tube
-Hyperalimentation

-Hyperalimentation

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Malnutrition due to an illness is known as:

-Anorexia
-Cachexia
-Kwashiorkor
-Marasmus

Cachexia

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What is the appropriate ratio of compressions to breaths during CPR for an adult?

30:2
15:2
20:2
60:2

30:2

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Which of the following would be prescribed if the patient needs an anti-inflammatory medication?

Torecan
Lomotil
Hydrocortisone
Compazine

Hydrocortisone

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All of the following are examples of early effects of radiation EXCEPT:

Nausea
Fatigue
Telangiectasis
Erythema

Telangiectasis

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When all organisms and their spores are destroyed, this is termed:

Asepsis
Sterilization
Cleansing
Anti-bacterial

Sterilization

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-Denial, Depression, Anger, Bargaining, Acceptance

-Bargaining, Denial, Depression, Acceptance, Anger

-Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, Acceptance

-Bargaining, Denial, Anger, Depression, Acceptance

-Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, Acceptance

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The term “battery” means:

-Harmfully touching another person

-Threatening to harm someone

-Verbally insulting someone’s character

-Writing insulting words about someone’s character

-Harmfully touching another person

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What is the normal range for red blood cells?

12.0 - 17.5 g/dL
3.5 - 10.5 billion cells/L
150,000 - 450,000/mcL
3.90 - 5.70 million/mcL

3.90 - 5.70 million/mcL

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Which of the following defines the standards for patient confidentiality?

HIPPA
OSHA
DICOM
PACS

HIPPA

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What is the minimum number of ways a patient must be identified?

1
2
3
4

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What part of the staging system describes the tumor size?

T
N
M
G

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What is the most efficient way to reduce the spread of infection in the healthcare setting?

Gloves
Gowns
Hand Washing
Protective Eyewear

Hand Washing

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Informed consent must inform the patient about all of the following EXCEPT:

-The procedure and treatment
-Risks of having the treatment
-Alternative treatment options
-Costs of treatments

-Costs of treatments

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Tuberculosis can be transmitted through which mode of transmission?

Vehicle-borne
Vector-borne
Airborne
Droplet

Airborne

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Who should sign the patient's chart when entering daily treatments? ------------------------------ -The Radiation Oncologists who prescribed dose -The Doisimetrist who planned the treatment -The Radiation Therapists involved in the treatment -The Nurses involved in the patient's care

-The Radiation Therapists involved in the treatment

Flies, mosquitos and ticks are examples of which mode of transmission? Vehicles Vectors Droplets Fomites

Vectors

Which of the following is NOT a severe reaction to contrast media? Anaphylactic shock Unresponsiveness Nausea Pallor

Pallor Pallor = an unhealthy pale appearance

The legal doctrine that states the employee is liable for themselves when they are negligent is known as: Res ipsa loquitar Respondeat superior Tort Res ipsa superior

Res ipsa loquitar

When transferring a patient from a wheelchair to the treatment table, the wheelchair should be positioned: -Parallel to the table -Perpendicular to the table -At a 45 degree angle to the table -Away from the table

-Parallel to the table

Patients with Tuberculosis should follow what type of precaution? -Reverse isolation precaution -Contact precaution -Droplet precaution -Airborne precaution

-Airborne precaution

A health care proxy is someone who: -Makes decisions for the patient when they are not able to -Creates the treatment plan for the patients therapy -Provides religious services to patients -Provides counseling and information to patients and their families

-Makes decisions for the patient when they are not able to -- also known as Medical Power of Attorney

Which of the following sets the standards for handling toxic materials such as Cerrobend? HIPAA OSHA DICOM PACS

OSHA --OSHA = Occupational Safety and Health Administration

Which of the following is an example of how a droplet infection can be spread? Sneeze Touch Food Mosquitos

Sneeze

Cancer screening tests that can determine a CERTAIN TYPE of cancer is: Sensitive Specific Detailed Precise

Specific --------------------------------- **Sensitive – accurately detects a tumor in the early stages **Specific – detects a particular type of cancer

Regarding needle safety, therapists must do all of the following EXCEPT: -Discard the needle in a puncture-resistant container -Use a new needle for each patient -Recap needles after use -Report unwarranted needle sticks

-Recap needles after use

Written defamation of character is: Slander Libel Negligence Assault

Libel

In an emergency situation a patient is unable to give consent for a procedure due to their mental state. Therefore someone else has to make this decision for them. This type of consent is: Written consent Verbal consent Implied consent Inadequate consent

Implied consent Implied consent = implied that the patient would consent if conditions permitted; especially used in emergency situations

Which of the following behaviors are helpful when speaking with patients who are hard of hearing? (Choose all correct answers.) -Yell at patient -Speak slower -Face patient when speaking -Only use written communication

-Speak slower -Face patient when speaking

Thrush may be treated with - Antiemetics Antifungal infections Antibiotics Corticosteroids

Antifungal infections

What device may be used to move patient who cannot stand from a wheelchair to the treatment table? Slider board Hoyer lift Transfer board Gait Belt

Hoyer lift

If a patient has 2 different types of treatments at the same time, what is this termed? Adjuvant Sequential Substatial Concurrent

Concurrent

Which of the following is a radioprotector? Doxorubicin Amifostine Cyclophosphamide 5-FU

Amifostine

Surgery is never used prophylactically. True False

False

A common combination of chemotherapy drugs used to treat breast cancer is: CMF ABVD MOPP CHOP

CMF

A surgical procedure in which an incision is made through the abdominal wall to examine lymph nodes and establish the extent of disease is called a(n): Incisional biopsy Laparoscopy Mastectomy Radical excision

Laparoscopy

The type of chemotherapy drug that has a chemical structure similar to that of mustard gas is? Antimetabolite Antitumor antibiotic Alkylating agent Nitrosource

Alkylating agent

When a brachytherapy source is placed directly into a vessel this is? Intracavitary Interstitial Intervascular Interluminal

intervascular

Gemcitabine is what type of chemotherapy drug? Alkylating Plant Alkaloid Antimetabolite Platinum based

Antimetabolite

Actinomycin D is a(n): Alkylating agent Antitumor antibiotic Antiemetic Hormonal agent

Antitumor antibiotic

A patient may be inoperable if: - tumor adjacent to heart - pre-existing health condition - tumor on the face - tumor location difficult to obtain negative margins

- pre-existing health condition

Which type of biopsy would be useful to obtain cells from a cystic tumor? Fine needle Aspiration Core needle biopsy Excisional biopsy Wedge biopsy

Fine needle Aspiration

Brachytherapy treatment to the breast is an example of: Intracavitary Surface Interstitial Intralumen

Interstitial

The class of cytotoxic agents that has the potential to burn the skin of the administrator is: Alkylating agents Antimetabolism Plant alkaloids Hormones

Alkylating agents

Which of the following is NOT a radiation sensitizer? Actinomycin D Misonidozol Stylbesterol Oxygen

Actinomycin D -- Actinomycin D = anti bacteria

The newest modality used in the treatment of cancer is: Surgery Radiation therapy Chemotherapy Surveillance

Chemotherapy

Voxels represent the _________ of a CT image. Brightness Contrast Slice thickness Number of pixels

Slice thickness

Why are diagnostic CTs not optimal for treatment planning? -- Flat couch top - Small bore - Slice thickness cannot be changed - Spacing between slices cannot be changed

Small bore

The DRR is created from? CT MRI X-ray Port film

In which plane are CT slices originally obtained? Axial Coronal Sagittal Lateral

Axial

DRRs can be created from the CT scans after a process called: Registration Reconstruction Transmission Transformation

Reconstruction

The Hounsfield unit of air is: +1000 -1000 0 -100

-1000

What is the term that describes the average level of shades of gray present on a CT image? Window level Window median Window width Window height

Window level

What part of the CT simulator is often referred to as the "bore"? X-ray tube Gantry Fan Beam Detectors X-ray Tube

Gantry

The standard format used to transfer images from diagnostic imaging computers to treatment planning computers is defined by: DICOM PACS DRR EMR

DICOM

The CT number for bone is? -1000 0 1000 100

1000

All of the following are contraindications for using contrast media EXCEPT: -Patients under 50 -Patient over 50 -Patients with impaired kidney function. -Patients who have had reactions to contrast media in the past.

-Patients under 50

During the CT simulation, the mA needs to be increased to create a change in the image quality, this will also lead to: -An increased patient dose -A decreased patient dose -The same patient dose -No patient dose

-An increased patient dose

4D treatment planning incorporates _________ in addition to regular treatment planning. - Involuntary motion - Respiratory motion - Multiple treatment sites - Larger treatment margins

- Respiratory motion

Images within the therapy department are shared and stored through: DICOM PACS DRR EMR

PACS

The contrast given during CT simulation will highlight specific organs to further help create the treatment plan by: (Select all that apply.) -Contrast can highlight the area to be treated. -Contrast can highlight the bones. -Contrast can highlight critical structures to be avoided. -Contrast can highlight hair.

-Contrast can highlight the area to be treated. -Contrast can highlight critical structures to be avoided.

DRR stands for: - Digitally reconstructed radiograph - Digitally represented radiograph - Diagnostic radiograph reconstruction - Dose ration reconstruction

- Digitally reconstructed radiograph

A name for a value that represents a specific shade of gray on the CT image is: Window width Window level CT number CT density

CT number

What part of the CT simulator is often referred to as the "bore"? X-ray tube Gantry Fan Beam Detectors X-ray Tube

Gantry

Images within the therapy department are shared and stored through: DICOM PACS DRR EMR

PACS

Voxels represent the _________ of a CT image. Brightness Contrast Slice thickness Number of pixels

Slice thickness

The ideal bolus material must have which of the following: - The same density as the soft tissue it replaces. - High density additives to reduce skin doses. - The ability to reduce penumbra. - All of the above.

The same density as the soft tissue it replaces.

The isodose curve is obtained by joining points that have the same: Dose Depth SSD TAR

Dose

During the CT simulation, the mA needs to be increased to create a change in the image quality, this will also lead to: - An increased patient dose - A decreased patient dose - The same patient dose - No patient dose

- An increased patient dose

4D treatment planning incorporates _________ in addition to regular treatment planning. - Involuntary motion - Respiratory motion - Multiple treatment sites - Larger treatment margins

- Respiratory motion

The CT number for water is? -1000 0 1 1000

The tumor and normal surrounding tissue enclosed by an isodose surface is called the: - Dose-volume histogram - Average gradient volume - Treatment volume - Minimum target volume

- Treatment volume

The CT number for bone is? -1000 0 1000 100

1000

Why are diagnostic CTs not optimal for treatment planning? -- Flat couch top -- Small bore -- Slice thickness cannot be changed -- Spacing between slices cannot be changed

-- Small bore

When selecting a field arrangement you must first: -- check the limits & capability of the treatment machines available -- identify target volume and its position relative to adjacent radiosensitive structures -- construct the appropriate ancillary treatment devices -- select the appropriate fractionation scheme

-- identify target volume and its position relative to adjacent radiosensitive structures

Treatment couches (PSA's) are typically constructed of: Carbon fiber Lucite Lead Cerrobend

Carbon fiber

A common combination of chemotherapy drugs used to treat breast cancer is: CMF ABVD MOPP CHOP

CMF

When creating an IMRT treatment plan, the type of planning used is most likely: Forward planning Inverse planning 2D planning 3D planning

Inverse planning

All of the following are characteristics of collimating jaws in modern day linear accelerators: (Select all that apply.) Moveable Asymmetric Tungsten Cerrobend

Moveable Asymmetric Tungsten

4D treatment planning incorporates _________ in addition to regular treatment planning. Involuntary motion Respiratory motion Multiple treatment sites Multiple immobilization devices

Respiratory motion

Surgery is never used prophylactically. True False

False

What is true regarding preoperative radiation therapy or chemotherapy? -- Uses higher doses than when used alone -- Used to treat microscopic disease -- Are used to increase resectability of tumor in surgery -- Is never used preoperatively

-- Are used to increase resectability of tumor in surgery

Cerrobend (Lipowitz metal) is made up of the following combination: Tin, Lead, Cadmium, Bismuth Iron, Bismuth, Aluminum, Lead Titanium, Lead, Cadmium, Bismuth Tin, Lead, Copper, Bismuth

Tin, Lead, Cadmium, Bismuth

Which of the following is not a type of biopsy? Fine-needle Past point Core needle Incisional

Past point

Which type of biopsy would be useful to obtain cells from a cystic tumor? Fine needle Aspiration Core needle biopsy Excisional biopsy Wedge biopsy

Fine needle Aspiration

Viewing images prior to the patient's treatment and making any necessary adjustments is considered? CT Simulation Online review Offline review Reconstruction

Online review

Patient marks can be effectively applied by all of the following EXCEPT: Tattoo Ballpoint pen Paint Pen Carfusion

Ballpoint pen

Which of the following drugs causes heart toxicity? bleomycin cisplatin 5 FU adriamycin

adriamycin

Which of the following is not a radiation sensitizer? Actinomycin D Misonidozol Stylbesterol Oxygen

Stylbesterol

A patient may be inoperable if: ----------------------------------- tumor adjacent to heart pre-existing health condition tumor on the face tumor location difficult to obtain negative margins

pre-existing health condition

Which of the following WOULD be included on a radiation therapy treatment prescription? Bolus Monitor Units Contrast Immobilization Device(s)

Bolus

Patient marks can be effectively applied by all of the following EXCEPT: Tattoo Ballpoint pen Paint Pen Carfusion

Ballpoint pen

An immobilization device that is made up of a thick plastic bag with small styrofoam pellets and uses a vacuum to shape the bag is: Alpha Cradles Vac-Lok Aquaplast Bolus

Vac-Lok

If the tolerance doses for the organs at risk and the tumor volume are chosen then the treatment computer creates a plan, this is most likely? Forward planning Inverse planning 2D planning 3D planning

Inverse planning

IMRT is a sophisticated method of radiation delivery to a target area and dose not require port film verification. True False

False

When creating an IMRT treatment plan, the type of planning used is most likely: Forward planning Inverse planning 2D planning 3D planning

Inverse planning

4D treatment planning incorporates _________ in addition to regular treatment planning. Involuntary motion Respiratory motion Multiple treatment sites Multiple immobilization devices

Respiratory motion

All of the following could be found on the treatment prescription EXCEPT: Total dose Fractionated dose Monitor Units Bolus

Monitor Units

All of the following are characteristics of collimating jaws in modern day linear accelerators: (Select all that apply.) Moveable Assymetric Tungsten Cerrobend

Moveable Assymetric Tungsten

The target to skin distance (TSD) is measured using: Meter scale SSD rod ODI indicator Lasers

ODI indicator

A treatment plan calls for adjacent fields 15 cm & 20 cm long. The plan will achieve uniform dose distribution at a depth of 11 cm. The SSD is 100 cm. What is the gap? 1.925 cm 2.135 cm 0.845 cm 3.675 cm

1.925 cm

Output for electron cones depends on: -- Distance from the source to the opening -- Size of the cone -- Size of the insert -- Position of primary collimators -- All of the above

-- All of the above

Which isodose curve defines the "therapeutic range" of an electron beam? 50% 80% 90% 100%

90%

As SSD increases what happens to the percentage depth dose? -- PDD increases -- It is dependent on the treatment unit. -- PDD decreases -- PDD remains unchanged

-- PDD increases

A patient is receiving arc therapy for 30 treatments. The total dose is 54 Gy, with a daily dose of 180 cGy. The are will deliver 200 MU. The gantry is moving from 345 to 179 in a clockwise rotation. Calculate the arc speed. 0.79 degrees/MU 0.97 degrees/MU 0.83 degrees/MU 1.21 degrees/MU

0.97 degrees/MU

The most suitable electron beam energy for the treatment of a tumor located within 4 cm of the skin surface: 1 MEV 3 MEV 4 MEV 12 MEV

12 MEV

What is the equivalent square for a rectangular field measuring 8 cm x 12 cm? 4.8 cm x 4.8 cm 9.6 cm x 9.6 cm 10.5 cm x 10.5 cm 11.2 cm x 11.2 cm

9.6 cm x 9.6 cm

A patient is treated at a nonstandard distance of 125 cm. What will be the field dimension on the skin surface if the collimator indicates a size of 16 x 32 cm, for a distance of 80 cm? 18 x 34 cm 25 x 50 cm 28 x 53 cm 30 x 55 cm

28 x 53 cm

All of the following are a direct relationship with PDD: (select all that apply) Energy Depth Field Size SSD

Energy Field Size SSD

*** What is often employed in order to remove the SSD dependence of PDD calculations? -- Source attenuation ratio -- Mayneord F factor -- Beam spoiler -- TAR or TMR

-- TAR or TMR

What is the dmax for a 12 MeV beam? 1.5 cm 2.2 cm 2.8 cm 3.0 cm

2.8 cm

In order to measure patient dosimetry accurately, which of the following factors must be considered? -choose all that apply Field Size Body contours Tissue density Target depth

Field Size Body contours Tissue density Target depth

*** Percent Depth Dose is affected by: -choose all that apply Quality of beam Depth of lesion Area of treatment port SSD

SSD Area of treatment port

Alpha particles are chemically similar to? Carbon Helium Nitrogen Hydrogen

Helium

When determining the monitor units needed to treat fields at extended distances, what is needed for calculation? ---------------------------------- Clarkson integration Equivalent square Monte Carlo Computation Mayneord F factor

Mayneord F factor

What is the largest gland in the body? Stomach Pancreas Liver Spleen

Liver

The following areas will all need a supplemental boost after TSEBT: (Select all that apply.) Feet Hands Scalp Skin Folds Perineum Eye Lids

feet scalp perineum skin folds

External beam radiation to the lung typically begins with AP/PA fields, followed by oblique fields beginning at a dose of: 3,000 cGy 4,500 cGy 5,500 cGy 6,500 cGy

6,500 cGy

PRIMARY lymphatic drainage of the cervix is the: Obturator nodes Inguinal nodes Para-aortic nodes Nodal spread is rare

Obturator nodes

When treating a superficial lesion with electron therapy on the lip, what can be used to prevent dose to the gingiva? Block Transmission filter Internal Shield Bolus

Internal Shield

Radiation to the local site can stop the bleeding by activating anti-coagulating cells. True False

False

When caring for an adolescent, it is important to: ---------------------------------- Be authoritative and firm Make sure that they do not cry Give them extra time for dressing and undressing Acknowledge that modesty and privacy are paramount

Acknowledge that modesty and privacy are paramount

What is the staging system used for colorectal cancer? Ann Arbor FIGO Duke's TMN

Duke's

When treating the pelvis for gynecological cancer, what is not an organ at risk? Bladder Small bowel Liver Rectum

Liver

The histologic type of lung cancer most closely associated with asbestos exposure is: -- Adenocarcinoma -- Mesothelioma -- Squamous cell carcinoma -- Oat cell carcinoma

-- Mesothelioma

Lymph nodes are what length? 4 – 6 cm 10 – 15 cm 1 – 25 mm 2 – 4 in

1 – 25 mm

Single dose stereotactic radiosurgery is most appropriate for: ----------------------------------- Multifocal metastatic brain tumors Recurrent 5 cm brain tumors Solitary 2 cm primary brain tumors Solitary 5 cm primary brain tumors

Solitary 2 cm primary brain tumors

Which of the leukemias is NOT associated with previous radiation exposure? ALL AML CLL CML

CLL

When the supraclavicular fossa is treated along with the opposing tangents, the supraclavicular field is being treated using: AP/PA ports Wedged Pair Rotational beam Half field technique

Half field technique

A typical field size for the treatment of T5 - T10 would be: 15x20 cm 12x36 cm 15x8 cm 8x15 cm

8x15 cm --> Field widths will range from 6-8 cm to cover the transverse processes depending on region of spine. Allow a length of : 1.5cm for each c-spine 2.5cm for each t-spine 3.0cm for each l-spine Fields should include on vertebral body above and below the affected vertebrae.

What acronym represents the fundamental radiation safety principle used in radiation therapy? ALARA OAR TAR HVL

ALARA

The 3 principles of ALARA include: -choose all that apply ---------------------------------- Personnel and facilities monitoring Time Neutron contamination Distance Shielding

time distance shielding

Regarding radiation protection for photon beams, which of the following would have the greatest effect to minimize dose? -------------------------------- Double the shielding Double the Time Double the distance Doubling the Time, Doubling the Distance and Doubling the shielding have the same effect

Double the distance

What organization sets the recommended dose limits for radiation workers and the general public? NRC NCRP ACR ASRT

NCRP

The annual dose equivalent limit for whole-body occupational exposure is: 0.05 rem 0.5 rem 5 rem 50 rem

5 rem

The annual dose equivalent limit for occupational exposure of the extremity is: 0.05 rem 0.5 rem 5 rem 50 rem

50 rem

Personnel must be monitored for radiation exposure if they are expected to receive ___ % of the dose equivalent limit. 10 30 50 70

What is NOT an advantage of the use of film badge dosimeters for personnel monitoring? ---------------------------------- Inexpensive Can be used for different types and energies of radiation Easy to use Accurate

Accurate

Thermoluminescent dosimeters are commonly made of what material? Lithium fluoride Aluminum oxide Silver bromide Sulfur hexafluoride

Lithium fluoride

Which of the following personnel monitors provides immediate readings? Film badge dosimeters Thermoluminescent dosimeters Optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter Pocket ionization chambers

Pocket ionization chambers

What is an advantage of using optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter (OSL) over another type of personnel dosimeter? Can be read immediately Can detect different energies of radiation Are the most inexpensive personnel dosimeter Do not require additional equipment to measure readings

Can detect different energies of radiation

"Caution - Radiation Area" signs are used to identify areas in which radiation workers may receive: Any amount of radatiation 5 mrem/h 100 rem/h 500 rem/h

5 mrem/h

Which of the following is not true regarding radiation protection surveys? Geiger-Muller counters are used to measure exposure Are used to verify exposure levels Completed periodically per regulatory body recommendations Are used to ensure shielding levels are adequate

Geiger-Muller counters are used to measure exposure

When determining shielding of radiation oncology departments, work load describes: ----------------------------------- How often the beam is on each week Fraction of time beam is directed at each barrier Fraction of time the adjacent area will be occupied Distance from source of radiation to adjacent area

How often the beam is on each week

An occupancy factor of _____ should be used for control rooms when planning shielding thickness. 50 1/2 1 100

The orbital electron shell that is closest to the nucleus is: J K L M

The number of protons in an atom is also known as: Atomic mass number A Atomic number X

Atomic number (Z)

Isotopes have the same number of ___ and different number of ____. Neutrons, protons Electrons, neutrons Protons, neutrons Neutrons, electrons

Protons, neutrons

With beta decay: --------------------------------- Characteristic X-rays and Auger electrons are produced A positron and negatron are emitted from the nucleus A Helium nucleus is emitted. A proton is transformed into a neutron.

A positron and negatron are emitted from the nucleus

***** With electron capture (choose all correct answers): ----------------------------------- Characteristic X-rays and Auger electrons are produced Occurs in High Z materials A Helium nucleus is emitted A proton is transformed into a neutron

-- Characteristic X-rays and Auger electrons are produced -- A proton is transformed into a neutron

Which of the following radioisotopes is used for LDR Gyn Brachytherapy? I-131 Cs-137 Pd-103 Ir-192

Cs-137

The half-life of Pd-103 is: 74.2 days 30 years 17 days 2.7 days

17 days

Which of the following is not a type of electromagnetic radiation? Microwaves Neutrons X-rays Radiowaves

Neutrons

Which of the following is true regarding the wavelength frequencies of electro-magnetic radiation? -- Wavelength is measured in Hertz -- Wavelength and frequency are inversely related -- The product of frequency and wavelength is Planck's constant -- Frequency is represented by X

-- Wavelength and frequency are inversely related

_______ describes the thickness of the medium needed to attenuate the beam's original intensity in half. -- Linear attenuation coefficient -- Half-value layer -- Inverse Square Law -- Decay constant

Half-value layer

What term describes the relationship with beam intensity and distance from the source of a beam for photons as it travels through some medium? -- Linear attenuation coefficient -- Inverse square law -- Quantum model -- Transmission proportionality

-- Inverse square law

****** Which of the following is not a filter used for low-energy treatment machines? Copper Thoraeus Tungsten Aluminum

Tungsten

Which photon interaction with matter is most likely to occur with diagnostic imaging? Coherent scattering Photoelectric effect Compton effect Pair production

Photoelectric effect

Which photon interaction with matter is most likely to occur with radiation therapy delivery via linear accelerators? Coherent scattering Photoelectric effect Compton effect Pair production

Compton effect

Which photon interaction with matter is most likely to occur with radiation therapy delivery via orthovoltage? Coherent scattering Photoelectric effect Compton effect Pair production

Photoelectric effect

What interaction is responsible for neutron contamination in radiation therapy? Coherent scattering Photoelectric effect Pair production Photodisintegration

Photodisintegration

Pair production occurs in: -- Photon beams greater than or equal to 1.022 keV -- Photon beams greater than or equal to 1.022 MeV -- Electron beams greater than or equal to 1.022 keV -- Electron beams greater than or equal to 1.022 MeV

-- Photon beams greater than or equal to 1.022 MeV

In the coherent scattering interaction, the energy of the ejected photon is _______ than the incident photon. Lower Greater Equal A photon is not ejected in coherent scattering.

Equal

Which of the following is not true regarding inelastic electron-electron collisions? -- Occurs in matter with high Z -- Rate of energy loss is dependent on density of the matter it passes through -- Incident electrons do not interact with electrons of the matter in which it passes through -- Kinetic energy is not lost

-- Rate of energy loss is dependent on density of the matter it passes through

The ________ tail is seen at the end of electron depth dose curves. Bragg Bremsstrahlung Characteristic Auger

Bremsstrahlung

Proton and alpha particles exhibit a _______ peak at the end of their range of travel, where most of their energy is deposited. Bragg Bremsstrahlung Characteristic Auger

Bragg

What is not true regarding neutron interactions? -- Are directly ionizing -- Wax and water are used for blocking neutrons -- Interact with the nucleus -- Do not lose much energy when they react with target nuclei

-- Do not lose much energy when they react with target nuclei

The traditional unit for exposure is: Gray (Gy) Roentgens (R) Rem Rad

Roentgens (R)

Absorbed dose is measured in (select all that apply): Gray Becquerel Rem Rad Sievert

Gray Rad

What is NOT true regarding dose equivalent? -- Rem is the SI unit -- Gamma rays have a QF of 1 -- Alpha particles have a QF of 20 -- Can be measured in Sv

-- Rem is the SI unit

Decay constant (λ) can be determined by dividing the element's half-life by: ---------------------------------- 10 to the -3 2.7 x 10 to the 11 Ci 0.693 100 ergs/g

0.693

Which of the following are used to calibrate linear accelerators? -- Pocket ionization chambers -- Cutie Pie ionization chambers -- Thimble chambers -- Geiger-Muller chambers

-- Thimble chambers

Patient dose monitoring can be accurately measured with: Radiographic film Diode detectors Neutron detectors Farmer chambers

Diode detectors

Somatic effects of radiation: -- Occurs in the irradiated individual -- Is passed on to future generations -- Has a threshold dose -- Severity increases with increased dose

-- Occurs in the irradiated individual

Acute effects are within ____ months of radiation exposure. 2 4 6 8

The most radioSENSITIVE phase of the cell cycle is: G1 S G2 M

M S = most resistant!

Hypofractionation uses: -- Multiple fractions per day -- Lower dose per fraction -- Increased number of fractions -- Increased dose per fraction

-- Increased dose per fraction

Protraction describes: ----------------------------------- Dividing the total dose into multiple fractions to improve tumor control and reduce normal effects The time in which the total dose is delivered The total dose the patient receives Increased dose per fraction with decreased number of fractions

The time in which the total dose is delivered

The cell survival curves used in radiation therapy are described as: ---------------------------------- Linear-exponential model Alpha-linear model Single target, multi-hit model Linear-quadratic model

Single target, multi-hit model

Linear Energy Transfer (LET) is measured in units of: keV/μm MeV/μm keV/mm MeV/mm

keV/μm