RPL test Flashcards

Question 1

Q

The form of drag which predominates at low air speed is called...

Answer

A

induced drag

Question 2

Q

A wing enjoys maximum efficiency in level flight when

Answer

A

total drag is least

Question 3

Q

Application of high power with low airspeed is accompanied by ............. producing a ..........

Answer

A

engine torque producing a roll

Question 4

Q

What is a design feature that can reduce induced drag ?

Answer

A

Reduce size of wing tip / increase the aspect ratio of the wing

Question 5

Q

The effect of propeller slipstream on a single engine is to produce a ............ at ......... IAS and .......... power.

Answer

A

..produce a yaw at low IAS and high power

Question 6

Q

The effect of a strong crosswind from the left while taxiing on level ground is

Answer

A

aircraft will yaw to the left

Question 7

Q

Consider an aircraft flying at 5, 500 ft in a headwind. Under these conditions (speed) ......... lower than ....... which would be higher than ........

Answer

A

IAS would be lower than TAS which would be higher than GS

Question 8

Q

If airspeed is kept constant, what happens after extending flap? lift ......... and drag ........

Answer

A

lift increases and drag increases

Question 9

Q

An effect of lowering the flap during a glide. (Glide path + airspeed)

Answer

A

A steeper descent path may be flown at the same airspeed

Question 10

Q

A plane that has been trimmed for low level: elevator (up/down) trim tab (up/down)

Answer

A

elevator up trim tab down

Question 11

Q

During take off in a tailwind an increase of ..........(IAS or distance) is required

Answer

A

In a tailwind the aircraft must accelerate to a speed equal to the wind speed just to have zero airflow. It must then continue to accelerate to normal flying speed. Take-off distance will be increased

Question 12

Q

The purpose of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces is to ..................................

Answer

A

Lighten the in-flight loads on the control column

Question 13

Q

During an approach, what is the effect of a sudden decrease in headwind component on IAS and rate of descent ?

Answer

A

There would be a decrease in IAS and increase in rate of descent due to the accompanying loss of lift. This is a wind shear

Question 14

Q

Define IAS TAS and GS

Answer

A

IAS: airspeed reading that can be influenced by atmospheric conditions and temperature
TAS: TAS=IAS at sea-level with standard atmopheric conditions and temperature
GS: TAS +- wind

Question 15

Q

The effect of a headwind on a descent at constant IAS the angle of descent ................ and the rate of descent..............

Answer

A

Angle increases but rate remains the same. The rate of descent is not affected by wind however the angle of descent relative to the ground is steeper in a headwind because less distance is covered over the ground for any given loss of height.

Question 16

Q

Compared to nil wind conditions, what effects will be noticed when climbing into a headwind ? (rate and angle)

Answer

A

Rate = same angle is increased

Question 17

Q

Comparing best rate (V...) of climb speed to best angle (V....) The best angle occurs at a ........... nose attitude and a ........... airspeed.

Answer

A

Rate: Vy
Angle: Vx
Lower attitude and higher airspeed

Question 18

Q

Effects of a tailwind on climb performance. Angle of climb is ........... and rate of climb is ................

Answer

A

Angle of climb is lower and rate of climb is unchanged. Wind has no effect on rate of climb.

Question 19

Q

Which factors would require highest nose attitude in level flight ? An ................. in weight and a .............. in airspeed

Answer

A

Increase weight and lower airspeed. Level flight requires that lift be equal to weight. Lift is produced by a combination of IAS and angle of attack.

Question 20

Q

An aerofoil is said to be at its stalling angle if any increase or decrease in angle attack produces less .............

Answer

A

Lift. For a given airspeed, the stalling angle produces the maximum possible lift.

Question 21

Q

If you are slipping on a turn you should apply .......... rudder in the direction of the turn.

Answer

A

more.

Question 22

Q

Which of the following would decrease the IAS at which athe stall has occured ?

a.increase in angle of bank

b. increase of flap extension

c. decrease in engine power

d. a strong headwind

Answer

A

increase of flap extension

Question 23

Q

You're about to take off from a runway immediately after a heavy jet aircraft has taken off from the same runway. How could you avoid its wake turbulence?

Answer

A

Takinf off before its lift point, using steeper angle of climb and turning to remain up wind of its flight path

Question 24

Q

Wing tip vortices in level flight will be strongest when weight is .................. and speed is ...................

Answer

A

Weight increase and speed is decreased.

Question 25

Q

Wing-tip vortices only generate when heavy aircraft is airbourne.

Answer

A

True

Question 26

Q

During a 60 degree bank level turn, the load factor will be .......% that of in level flight.

Answer

A

200% the load factor is 2.

Question 27

Q

At 60 degree angle of bank the new stalling speed would be ........% greater than level flight.

Answer

A

40% Stalling speed is square root of load factor which is 2. square root 2 = 1.4

Question 28

Q

Wake turbulence would be most severe behind a .................. (H/L) aircraft flying ................... (slow/fast)

Answer

A

Heavy aircraft flying slow

Question 29

Q

As the throttle is moved towards the fully open position manifold pressure ............ and gas flow ...............

Answer

A

Manifold pressure increases Gas flow increases

Question 30

Q

What is the best action to take when you suspect detonation. Mixture and throttle control

Answer

A

Mixture full rich. Throttle less power

Question 31

Q

What is the correct sequence of strokes in a 4 stroke internal combustion engine?

Answer

A

Induction, Compression, Power, Exhaust

Question 32

Q

You are operating an engine with oil temperature too low, ............. than normal oil pressure and poor lubrication due to ......... oil viscosity.

Answer

A

Higher oil pressure and high oil viscosity

Question 33

Q

During a pre tack-off check, the pilot notices no drop in RPM when the switches are moved from BOTH to R and the engine continues to run smoothly. What would be a likely cause ?

Answer

A

There is a fault in the ignition switch or wiring

Question 34

Q

Oil fouling of spark plugs is most likely ......

Answer

A

When taxiing or idling for too long. Oil normally gets burnt however when at idle unburnt oil pools and can block bottom spark plug.

Question 35

Q

The purpose of an impulse coupling is to ......

Answer

A

provides sparks when the engine is being cranked during start up.

Question 36

Q

What is ISA temperature at 2000 feet ?

Answer

A

11 deg

Question 37

Q

What is ISA temperature at 5000 feet ?

Answer

A

5 deg

Question 38

Q

What is ISA temperature at 7500 feet ?

Answer

A

0 deg

Question 39

Q

What is ISA temperature at 23000 feet ?

Answer

A

-31 deg

Question 40

Q

What is ISA deviation at 6000 feet and 20 deg ?

Answer

A

+17 deg

Question 41

Q

What is ISA deviation at 12000 feet and 0 deg ?

Answer

A

+9 deg

Question 42

Q

What is ISA deviation at 3000 feet and 30 deg ?

Answer

A

+21 deg

Question 43

Q

What is ISA deviation at 2000 feet and 2 deg ?

Answer

A

-9 deg

Question 44

Q

Which two aircraft motions cause a spiral dive ?

Answer

A

Roll + yaw.
The roll causes a side-slip which in turn causes a yaw which in turn causes a further roll. This is sometimes called spiral instability.

Question 45

Q

What is the correct sequence for a missed approach ?

Answer

A

Missed approach:
1. Full power
2. Control. Rudder straight. Low climb ATT. Wings level
3. Flaps 20 deg
4. Normal climb ATT trim for Vx
5. Safe height retract flaps
200' 10 deg
100' 0 deg

Question 46

Q

What are ISA conditions at sea level ?

Answer

A

Atmospheric pressure is 1013 hPa
every 1 hPa = 30 '
Temperature is 15 deg and drops 2 deg/1000'
Air is dry and uniform throughout

Question 47

Q

Why use right rudder when taking off ?

Answer

A

1. Propeller slipstream pushing on left side of rudder
2. Engine torque pushing the left wheel harder onto then runway surface

Question 48

Q

During an approach with a flapless landing compared to normal, what will the pilot notice in regards to attitude and approach path ?

Answer

A

Higher nose attitude and flatter approach path

Question 49

Q

What are immediate actions if you encounter a wind shear on approach

Answer

A

Wind Shear:
Lower nose + add power

Question 50

Q

Aerodrome ground marker ++ is displayed what does it mean ?

Answer

A

Gliding operations are in progress

Question 51

Q

In a level balance 60 deg angle of bank lift = ........ weight

Answer

A

twice

Question 52

Q

If the elevator control is abruptly pully to fully aft position to induce a stall a stall will occur at .......... speed than normal

Answer

A

higher

Question 53

Q

Which of the folowwing has no effect on the stalling IAS of an aircraft?
a. weight
b. load factor
c. power
d. height

Answer

A

height

Question 54

Q

Where is best to land after a heavy aircraft to avoid wake turbulence?

Answer

A

aim to touch down a t a point ahead of the touch down point of the heavy aircraft

Question 55

Q

What is function of carburettor ?

Answer

A

To mix correct amount of fuel with air as it passes through the venturri on its way to the cylinders

Question 56

Q

When should you use carburettor heat during a long power-off glide ?

Answer

A

Carburettor heat should be applied before the throttle is closed and it should be left on during the glide. (While there is plenty of engine heat available).

Question 57

Q

If detonation is suspected during a long climb you should

Answer

A

Reduce power
Check mixture is fully rich
lower nose to climb at higher airspeed

(do anything to cool the engine)

Question 58

Q

If altimeter fails to indicate height change most likel;y cause is

Answer

A

static vent is blocked

Question 59

Q

If you take off from an uncontrolled airstrip which has left hand circuits, what is the earliest point after takeoff at which you may turn right?

Answer

A

2500' AGL or 3 nautical miles from the aerodrome boundary

Question 60

Q

The lowest height at which you can fly in the training area is

Answer

A

1000' over populous area or town otherwise 500'

Question 61

Q

With regard to end of daylight you must leave training area in time to land ...... minutes before the end of dayligh

Answer

A

10 minutes

Question 62

Q

When turning from upwind to downwind at low level on a very windy day you may experience the illusion of .......

Answer

A

slipping in
as you turn crosswind the wind pushes you into the direction of turn

Question 63

Q

What would happen if a mass balance lost during flight?

Answer

A

Without a mass balance, control surfaces would tend to 'flap' in the wind (like a flag). This is called flutter and it will not happen if the centre of gravity of the control surface is kept close to the hinge.

Question 64

Q

Which of the following would cause the greatest increase in landing distance?

a. approaching at a higher IAS than normal

b. landing at maximum weight

c. landing on an up-hill slope

d. raising the flaps immediately after touch down

Answer

A

The landing distance required depends on the kinetic energy of the aircraft. Put simply this descides how hard it is to stop. Increased speed causes a very rapid increase in kinetic energy, therefore a greater landing distance.

Answer 65

A

A spin is a post stall phenomenon. A dropping stalled wing produces less lift but more drag. It therefore continues to drop and yaw.

Answer 66

A

Lower nose to maintain speed

Answer 67

A

One side to push rod + camshaft. One side to inlet/exhaust valve.

Answer 68

A

A rotating metal object in the that has a cam. When the cam passes under the push rod it lifts the rod forcing it to lift one end of the rocker arm.

Answer 69

A

Crank shaft

Answer 70

A

Connecting rod. Has a small end connected to piston big end connected to crank shaft

Answer 71

A

Rocker arm

Answer 72

A

Rich or lean mixtures burn cool. There is one fuel air mixture which produces the hottest burn. The easiest way to monitor temperature of combustion is the temperature of the exiting exhaust gases.

Answer 73

A

internal stresses on the bearings and valves. Pisons and valves have to continually change their direction of motion. They are not designed to tolerate higher RPM than indicated red line.

Answer 74

A

If there is no drop, the magnetos are not turning off as they should. This is very dangerous as a live magneto can cause a propeller on a parked aircraft to 'kick' when moved.

Answer 75

A

the weight of fully loaded aircraft without fuel

Answer 76

A

Greatly decreases the ability to clear obstacles duting the climb after take off

Answer 77

A

c. Fog requires strong cooling and gentle mixing of the surface air. Clear skies provide the cooling and gentle winds provide the mixing.

Answer 78

A

6 metres

Answer 79

A

The retina is the layer of light receptors on the back of the eye and it is the retina which deals with the light being focused on it by the lens. 
 
As light hits the eye, it passes through the transparent cornea, through the pupil (the size of which is controlled by the iris), into the lens which focuses the light onto the retina. The nerves in the retina then transmit their signals to the visual cortex of the brain along the thick bundle of nerve fibres known as the optic nerve. 
 
If you have difficulty with this question you should review the anatomy of the eye in part 4 of the textbook.

The correct answer is: retina

Answer 80

A

This signal means you are cleared to take-off. (AIP ENR 1.5 14.1 & 14.2 or see your VFG)

The correct answer is: you are cleared for take-off if you are satisfied no collision risk exists.

Answer 81

A

The best angle of climb occurs at a particular indicated air speed where the greatest excess of thrust over drag occurs. Any other speed, higher or lower, will result in a decreased angle of climb.

Answer 82

A

CAR 162 (3) - When overtaking, you are required to keep clear and overtake the aircraft by passing to the right. In other words, you keep the slower aircraft on your left. You may not overtake by diving or climbing although you may overtake while climbing or descending.

The correct answer is: alter heading to the right to keep the slower aircraft in view on the left.

Answer 83

A

Undesired Aircraft states can be split up into the following categories:

Aircraft Handling states: aircraft control [deviations in pitch, roll and yaw], altitude, track or speed deviations [deviations in flight path], placing the aircraft in a hazardous situation [weather or violation of CTA or CTAF procedures], exceeding structural load factor or speed limitations and poor technique in flying the approach or landing

Ground Navigation states: attempting to use the wrong taxiway or runway, taxiing too fast (ground handling)

Aircraft Configuration states: inappropriate flap or speed-brake selection, incorrect autopilot mode, incorrect programing of GPS or other navigation aid, incorrect fuel distribution, incorrect distribution of weight.

An inactive icing system and a too-low IAS are handling states, taxiing too fast is a ground navigation state. Incorrect fuel distribution is a configuration state. 
 
Note: CAAP 5.59 does not mention Aircraft Handling, Ground Navigation or Configuration states specifically but they are still terms you should be familiar with.

The correct answer is: incorrect fuel distribution.

Answer 84

A

A forced landing would be the result of an engine failure and an engine failing in flight is an unexpected threat. The pilot is practising forced landings so that if it happens for real, the pilot is in the best position to deal with effectively. Since this practice is designed to minimise the effect of the threat it is classified as a countermeasure. 
 
Countermeasures can be planning, execution and review countermeasures. Training is considered to be part of the operational system of countermeasures to reduce error so it is a Systemic countermeasure.

The correct answer is: a systemic countermeasure employed to manage an unexpected threat.

Answer 85

A

See AIP ENR 1.2 or your VFG for the full description of VMC conditions.

The correct answer is: 1000ft above and 500ft below and 600m horizontal separation from cloud with an in-flight visibility of 5000m.

Answer 86

A

The basic empty weight is the weight of the aircraft before any item is loaded. The weight of passengers, crew, cargo and fuel are not included in the basic empty weight. Unusable fuel and engine oil are usually included in the basic empty weight.

The correct answer is: without any passengers, crew, cargo or usable fuel on board

Answer 87

A

Without the impulse coupling the magneto would not be turning fast enough to produce a proper spark while the engine is being cranked. The impulse coupling makes it possible to start the engine with very low rotational speed [even by hand!].

The correct answer is: provide a strong spark when the engine is being cranked at start-up

Answer 88

A

The extra drag created by flap extension allows a steeper descent path without an unwanted build-up of airspeed.

The correct answer is: the approach path to be steeper with no increase in airspeed

Answer 89

A

Wake turbulence tends to behave like smoke, it drifts with the wind. It also sinks below the flight path of the generating aircraft. If you take off before it, and climb steeper, you must remain above the vortices.

The correct answer is: aim to lift off before the jet’s lift off point, maintain the best angle of climb and turn to remain upwind of the jet’s flight path

Answer 90

A

AIP ENR 1.1 para 5.5 (ARC AU-717 para 6.2.2) states that an aircraft may not commence a take off unless any of the following apply: (a) The aircraft ahead has crossed the upwind end of the runway or has commenced a turn. (b) If the runway is more than 1800m long, you can start your take-off if the aircraft ahead is at least 1800m ahead. (c) If your aircraft has a MTOW of 2000kg or less and the preceding aircraft has a MTOW of 7000kg or less and you are slower, you can start your take-off after only 600m of separation. (d) If both aircraft are 2000kg or less, 600m is the minimum separation distance.

The correct answer is: 600m

Answer 91

A

Threats can be:

anticipated (expected) threats

unexpected threats, or

latent threats

This gives you a clue as to the nature of the threat. Threats are also classified as:

internal threats

external (environmental) threats

organisational threats (often latent)

You will be expected to recognise correct terminology in the exam and of the options, "environmental threats and organisational threats" is the only answer with the correct terms.

The correct answer is: environmental threats and organisational threats

Answer 92

A

The Enroute Supplement Australia contains a comprehensive list of aerodromes in Australia with vital operational information such as frequencies, local traffic regulations and runway information.

The correct answer is: ERSA

Answer 93

A

When the variation is east, it is subtracted from the true direction to obtain the magnetic direction. “variation east – magnetic least”.

The correct answer is: 184°M

Answer 94

A

An error is flight crew actions or inactions that:

lead to a deviation from crew or organisational intentions or expectations;

reduce safety margins; and

increase the probability of adverse operational events on the ground and during flight.

The important thing here is an error involves anactionor anabsence of action. Errors are classified as handling errors, communication errors and procedural errors. 
 
In this case, the pilot has entered the wrong waypoint data. He or she has interacted with the aircraft somehow. It is a handling error. 
 
What about "procedural error"? No, these types of errors occur when working with checklists and procedures. Now you may turn around and argue: 
 
"OK, but what if the co-pilot didn't double-check the input as specified in the company SOPs so it must be a procedural error". 
 
No. Not double-checking is indeed a procedural error but actually putting in the wrong data is still a handling error. The handling error is the initial consequence of the procedural error. 
 
The answers "stressful cockpit environment" and "external threat" are threats, not errors and as such are totally incorrect.

The correct answer is: handling error

Answer 95

A

For any given airspeed, the stalling angle produces the maximum possible lift. Increasing the angle of attack beyond the stalling angle causes a stall and therefore less lift. Decreasing the angle of attack also produces less lift.

The correct answer is: any increase or decrease in angle of attack results in less lift

Answer 96

A

When a wind is 30° across the runway the crosswind component will be half the wind strength. If the number describing wind direction is greater than the number describing runway direction, the wind will be from you right.

The correct answer is: 15kt from the right

Answer 97

A

Crosschecking instruments is an example of an execution countermeasure. 
 
CAAP 5.59 describes Countermeasures as follows: 
Systemic Countermeasures: electronic or mechanical devices or SOP's and checklists to ensure proper pilot actions:

stall warning devices

systems failure warnings e.g. annunciator panels

airborne collision avoidance systems (ACAS)

ground proximity warning systems (GPWS)

Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs)

Written Checklists

Briefings and training

Planning Countermeasures: actions taken before departure to ensure safe and proper operation of the flight:

flight planning,

briefing,

contingency planning

Execution Countermeasures: actions taken in-flight to protect against threats and errors:

monitoring,

cross-checking,

workload and systems management

Review Countermeasures: for coping with unexpected events in flight or for reviewing the flight after landing:

evaluating and modifying plans as the flight proceeds,

inquiry and assertiveness to identify and address issues in a timely way.

Make sure you know all of these examples and which type of countermeasure they belong to.

The correct answer is: cross checking instruments.

Answer 98

A

A flashing red light means the aerodrome is unsafe, no not land. You would have no choice but to go to an alternate aerodrome. (AIP ENR 1.5 14.1 & 14.2 or see your VFG)

The correct answer is: leave the circuit area and head for an alternate airport

Answer 99

A

You are below 5000ft so you should adhere to the hemispherical cruising level rules for Easterly tracks. Below 5000ft you don't have to adhere to these rules but it is strongly recommended you do so. This means cruising at odd thousands + 500ft. You are in Class G airspace so the standard VMC conditions apply to you which means you must maintain a vertical separation of 1000ft above and below clouds. Therefore the highest cruising level available to you below the clouds will be 3500ft. (AIP ENR 1.7 5 & 6 or see the VFG)

The correct answer is: 3500ft

Answer 100

A

Some students might have difficulty correctly categorising optical illusions but since they are likely to appear in your CASA exam it is worth looking at them in more detail. 
 
First off, let's eliminate "internal threat": the optical illusion has nothing to do with the pilot's physical or psychological state so it is notinternal. 
 
If you've been briefed on the airfield in question you could argue "Well, I expect there to be an optical illusion while I'm on approach so this is an expected threat". Good thinking, but the threat exists whether you've been briefed or not. A pilot without the briefing can still be affected by the optical illusion so it is not strictly an expected threat. 
 
What about "external threat". The optical illusion is indeed a threat occurring in the environment of the flight so you'd be correct. However, the illusion is not always going to affect every pilot. It is like an accident waiting to happen. This is the clue indicating we are really talking about a latent threat. 
 
Now, you would be correct if you said optical illusions are latent, external threats. The important thing is the termlatent. If you need still need convincing, CAAP 5.59 14.1.3 explicitly lists optical illusions as examples of latent threats so you can be assured this is the answer CASA expects.

The correct answer is: a latent threat

Answer 101

A

CAO 20.16.3.3 and CAO 20.16.4.1 state that passengers must be seated during take off and landing, when below 1000ft AGL, flying in turbulence or when on an instrument approach. The CAO then goes on to say that when seated in these conditions, seatbelts or harnesses must be worn.

The correct answer is: whenever they must occupy a seat.

Answer 102

A

The conditions necessary for a thunderstorm to form are: an unstable atmosphere, high humidity and a trigger mechanism to cause the initial lifting of the air. Strong solar heating results air rising due to convection.

The correct answer is: thunderstorms

Answer 103

A

As the name implies, the maximum structural landing weight considers the actual structure of the aircraft. It is published in the aircraft flight manual and it considers the possibility of strong cross winds and rough surfaces.

The correct answer is: permanent damage or deformation of the landing gear or fuselage

Answer 104

A

An average person will lose about 5 litres of water on a hot day although, as you can expect this is highly variable and dependant on the climate, a persons acclimatisation exercise levels etc. 
 
The value you should remember is "about 5 litres".

The correct answer is: 5 litres

Answer 105

A

The light sensitive elements of the retina are classified as the rods and cones: 
 
Rods are most effective in dim light and cones are sensitive to coloured light and are responsible for colour vision. 
 
To help remember which is which, think "C is for Colour, C is for Cone".

The correct answer is: cones which are sensitive to colour and rods which work best in dim light

Answer 106

A

CAR 160 Interpretation. If you are moving through an arc of +/- 70 degrees either side of a line extending out from the rear of the leading aircraft, you are considered to be overtaking the leading aircraft.

The correct answer is: from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter

Answer 107

A

Stronger winds cause more turbulence near the cold surface so that air in contact with the cold surface does not stay there for long and so does not become as cold. Any heating of the surface also results in convection that also promotes mixing of the air near the surface. Radiation fog almost always clears after the sun rises.

The correct answer is: an increase in wind strength and an increase in surface temperature

Answer 108

A

See the textbook or AIP ENR 1.14 for information on IRM and RRM's.

The correct answer is: a Routinely Reportable Matter (RRM) which must be reported in writing to the ATSB within 72 hours.

Answer 109

A

If there is a fault in the ignition switches or wiring, the magneto may remain 'live' even though the switches have been placed in the 'off' position. A very small movement of the propeller can be enough to trigger the spring and cause the magneto to flick, producing a spark. If any residual fuel vapour is present in that cylinder, a dangerous 'kick back' can occur inflicting serious injury.

The correct answer is: the statement is false

Answer 110

A

Special VFR clearances are only available in Class C and D airspace. It is a clearance issued by a controller so can't apply in Class G and it is not available in Class E airspace (AIP ENR 1.2 1.2 or see your VFG).

The correct answer is: It may be available in Class C and D airspace only.

Answer 111

A

In this situation we have a pilot running behind schedule. This is not an internal threat because the problem is possibly with the scheduling and not with the physiological or psychological condition of the pilot. The scheduling problem is not an anticipated threat since it probably developed once the day's flying was already underway. In any case, tight schedules are a likely problem here and CAAP 5.59 classifies scheduling issues as a latent threat. 
 
The latent threat has lead to an error: the pilot forgot to turn on the anti-icing system. The pilot failed to interact with the aircraft in some way so we are dealing with a handling error (which has also resulted in an undesired aircraft state - an aircraft with severe airframe icing).

The correct answer is: a latent threat leading to a handling error.

Answer 112

A

You must remain 3000ft above terrain or obstacles within a circle of 600m radius (1200m diameter) directly below the aircraft (CAAP 155-1).

The correct answer is: you may practice aerobatics down to 3000ft as long as the tower is never within a circle of 600m radius centred on a line extending vertically down below the aircraft.

Answer 113

A

QNH is the atmospheric pressure at mean sea-level. The altimeter measures its height above the pressure level that has been set on the instrument’s sub-scale. So an altimeter with the correct QNH set will read height above sea-level. Some people remember it by saying “QNH = Question, Nil Height” or “QNH Question Nautical Height”.

The correct answer is: the atmospheric pressure at mean sea-level expressed in hectopascals

Answer 114

A

The total reaction represents all of the forces acting on the aerofoil. It is resolved into two components - lift and drag.

The correct answer is: the total reaction and the centre of pressure

Answer 115

A

CAR 157 states you may not fly less than 1000ft above a built-up area unless you are actually in the process of take-off or landing or through stress of weather. A precautionary landing in the paddock is an option but continuing on, remaining clear of cloud would be far better and most likely far safer than putting down in an unprepared field.

The correct answer is: Remain clear of cloud and keep tracking towards the aerodrome.

Answer 116

A

Deviation is the name given the difference between magnetic and compass direction. It is obtained by reference to the compass correction card which is created after engineers have completed a ‘compass swing’.

The correct answer is: deviation and it is obtained from a compass correction card displayed near the compass

Answer 117

A

The alternator warning light (a systemic countermeasure) comes on during the flight and the pilot has reacted to this unexpected flight condition by unloading the electrical system. He has performed a review countermeasure. 
 
Why not call it an execution countermeasure? Well, execution countermeasures are taken to protect against threats in flight. Review countermeasures are a reaction to an existing threat. Let's assume for arguments sake that the panel was not equipped with an alternator warning light but the pilot still included a regular check of the ammeter in his scan. The regular checking of the ammeter is the execution countermeasure. Now once he noticed the problem, he unloaded the electrical system. Unloading the system is the review countermeasure. 
 
For your reference, countermeasures are categorised as: 
Systemic Countermeasures: electronic or mechanical devices or SOP's and checklists to ensure proper pilot actions:

stall warning devices

systems failure warnings e.g. annunciator panels

airborne collision avoidance systems (ACAS)

ground proximity warning systems (GPWS)

Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs)

Written Checklists

Briefings and training

Planning Countermeasures: actions taken before departure to ensure safe and proper operation of the flight:

flight planning,

briefing,

contingency planning

Execution Countermeasures: actions taken in-flight to protect against threats and errors:

monitoring,

cross-checking,

workload and systems management

Review Countermeasures: for coping with unexpected events in flight or for reviewing the flight after landing:

evaluating and modifying plans as the flight proceeds,

inquiry and assertiveness to identify and address issues in a timely way.

You should try and memorise these specific examples of countermeasures.

The correct answer is: a review countermeasure

Answer 118

A

CAAP 5.59 lists "inquiry and assertiveness to identify and address issues in a timely way" as an example of a Review Countermeasure. In CAAP 5.59 13.4.4, Review countermeasures are described as follows: 
Review Countermeasures: for coping with unexpected events in flight or for reviewing the flight after landing:

evaluating and modifying plans as the flight proceeds,

inquiry and assertiveness to identify and address issues in a timely way.

The correct answer is: a review countermeasure.

Answer 119

A

When two aircraft are converging, the aircraft with the other on its right must give way. However, powered aircraft must give way to gliders, and balloons; gliders must give way to balloons.

The correct answer is: You have right of way.

Answer 120

A

In Australia, there is the Class 1 medical for commercial operations, Class 2 for private operations, Class 3 for Air Traffic Control and the Driver's licence medical which is valid for private operations under certain restrictions only. For unrestricted private operations then, the lowest class of medical required for a PPL holder a Class 2 medical. (CASR 67)

The correct answer is: a Class 2 medical

Answer 121

A

AIP ENR 1.1 para 5.5 (ARC AU-717 para 6.2.2) states that an aircraft may not commence a take off unless any of the following apply: (a) The aircraft ahead has crossed the upwind end of the runway or has commenced a turn. (b) If the runway is more than 1800m long, you can start your take-off if the aircraft ahead is at least 1800m ahead. (c) If your aircraft has a MTOW of 2000kg or less and the preceding aircraft has a MTOW of 7000kg or less and you are slower, you can start your take-off after only 600m of separation. (d) If both aircraft are 2000kg or less, 600m is the minimum separation distance.

The correct answer is: 600m, after the preceding aircraft has crossed the upwind threshold or has commenced a turn.

Answer 122

A

When temperature increases, the air becomes less dense. That results in reduce engine power for take-off and higher true airspeeds for both take-off and landing. The distance required increases for both take-off and landing.

The correct answer is: take-off distance and landing distance required will both increase

Answer 123

A

Flap extension allows the use of smaller angles of attack at any given airspeed. That is the same as saying it allows the use of less airspeed for any given angle of attack.

The correct answer is: an increase in flap extension during level flight

Answer 124

A

A forced landing would be the result of an engine failure and an engine failing in flight is an unexpected threat. The pilot is practising forced landings so that if it happens for real, the pilot is in the best position to deal with effectively. Since this practice is designed to minimise the effect of the threat it is classified as a countermeasure. 
 
Countermeasures can be planning, execution and review countermeasures. Training is considered to be part of the operational system of countermeasures to reduce error so it is a Systemic countermeasure.

The correct answer is: a systemic countermeasure employed to manage an unexpected threat.

Answer 125

A

Unlike most electric motors, the starter motor is not designed to be operated for long periods of time. About 5 seconds is usually the limit. It draws such a large current that continued operation will cause serious overheating and possible damage.

The correct answer is: continued operation may cause overheating of the starter motor or damage to the battery

Answer 126

A

Being below 3000ft AMSL, your VMC requirements are now remain clear of cloud. However, you must have a radio, it must be on and you must maintain a listening watch. You are below 5000ft, you can theoretically choose any level to cruise at independent of the hemispherical rules but sticking to the recommended levels is recommended where possible. 2500ft would still be the highest VFR cruising altitude available. (AIP ENR 1.7 5 & 6 or see the VFG)

The correct answer is: 2500ft as long as you remain clear of cloud, have a radio, it is on and you are listening out.

Answer 127

A

Threats can be:

anticipated (expected) threats

unexpected threats, or

latent threats

This gives you a clue as to the nature of the threat. Threats are also classified as:

internal threats

external (environmental) threats

organisational threats (often latent)

You will be expected to recognise correct terminology in the exam and of the options, "environmental threats and organisational threats" is the only answer with the correct terms.

The correct answer is: environmental threats and organisational threats

Answer 128

A

The navigation lights are shielded from behind so they are only visible if you are actually outside the arc 70 degrees either side of the tail of the leading aircraft. This +/- 70 degree arc defines the “overtaking region as far as “CAR 160 Interpretation' is concerned.

The correct answer is: No, because the navigation light shielding prevents you from seeing the light unless you are more than 70 degrees off the tail of the leading aircraft.

Answer 129

A

Acceleration in level flight and a climb from level flight would be the most difficult to differentiate. 
 
In the absence of visual cues, the body will tend to confuse acceleration for a climb. This is due to the acceleration effects on the vestibular system (namely the utricle and the saccule). 
 
These effects give rise to what is known as a Somatogravic illusion. There are three situations where somatogravic illusions may occur:

Rapid linear acceleration can feel like a sudden pitch up.

Rapid linear deceleration can feel like a sudden pitch down.

Rapid transition from a climb attitude to straight and level flight may give the pilot the feeling they are tumbling backwards.

The correct answer is: a rapid acceleration in level flight and a transition from level flight to a climb

Answer 130

A

All pilot licences (RPL, PPL, CPL and ATPL) remain valid indefinitely unless they are cancelled or suspended by CASA. (CAR 269)

The correct answer is: indefinitely until suspended or cancelled.

Answer 131

A

The first feeble rays of sunlight cause gentle heating of the surface that leads to mild convection. The first effect of this increased mixing of the surface air is to actually thicken the fog. The top of the fog layer rises (think of a cake in an oven). This effect will not last long however, because more vigorous convection mixes so much air that the temperature can no longer be maintained below dew point. The fog will then dissipate.

The correct answer is: just after sunrise

Answer 132

A

CAAPs are Civil Aviation Advisory Publications and contain advisory information on what CASA considers a legally defensible way of conforming to the regulation to which the CAAP refers.

The correct answer is: CAAPs

Answer 133

A

The total reaction acts at a point on the chord line [called the centre of pressure]. That component of the total reaction which acts at right angles to the relative airflow is called lift.

The correct answer is: that component of the total reaction acting at right angles to the relative airflow

Answer 134

A

According to CAAP 5.59 13.3.1, the three classifications of error are:

aircraft handling errors - occur while interacting with the aircraft

procedural errors - occur while using checklists, following company SOPs etc

communication errors - occur while communicating with ATC, other crew members

The correct answer is: aircraft handling errors, procedural errors and communication errors

Answer 135

A

CAR 245 (1) you need to satisfy yourself that the engine and associated items of equipment are functioning correctly within the permissible levels of performance.

The correct answer is: Correct functioning of the engine.

Answer 136

A

External threats originate from the environment in which the aircraft is operating and are outside of the operator's or pilot's control. Internal threats on the other hand are those the pilot brings with them into the cockpit (physiologically or psychologically). 
 
Therefore, fatigue, state of health and fitness and familiarity with other crew members are examples of internal threats. 
 
Pressure to meet timetables is an external threat to the safety of the flight and is probably also coupled with an organisational threat (bad scheduling).

The correct answer is: pressure to meet timetables

Answer 137

A

A somatogravic illusion will be most intense when the pilot has no visual reference to conflict with the sensations coming from the inner ear. Therefore visual flight will help keep the pilot from becoming disoriented. 
 
The somatogravic illusion will be most likley encountered during take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night. The worst part is the pilot may sense a pitch up due to the rapid acceleration and attempt to lower the nose. This will increase the speed even more thus aggravating the illusion. 
 
If a pilot continues to follow their senses rather than the instruments, the aircraft may actually suffer controlled flight into terrain (CFIT).

The correct answer is: during and just after take -off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night

Answer 138

A

An aft centre of gravity can generate such a strong nose-up moment that the elevator may be unable to prevent the nose from pitch up uncontrollably. This condition is very likely to result in a tragic accident.

The correct answer is: become unstable in pitch

Answer 139

A

Diversions, getting lost and engine failures are all events which will occur unexpectedly in a flight. They are unexpected threats. On the other hand, the TAF has informed you of thunderstorms forecast at your destination. The thunderstorms are defintely a threat but you know they are likely to be there so they are not unexpected.

The correct answer is: thunderstorms forecast on the TAF

Answer 140

A

A flashing red light from the tower means you should taxi clear of the landing area. If a tower is using the signal lamps to contact you, they mustn't be unable to contact you by radio. You should therefore check your radio equipment and frequency settings. (AIP ENR 1.5 14.1 & 14.2 or see your VFG)

The correct answer is: taxi clear of the landing area and check your radio.

Answer 141

A

Special VFR is described in AIP ENR 1.2 1.2 or see your VFG.

The correct answer is: You must remain clear or cloud, maintain an in-flight visibility of no less than 1600m

Answer 142

A

When operating at angles below the stalling angle, an increase in angle of attack produces a stronger total reaction, both lift and drag increase.

The correct answer is: more lift and more drag

Answer 143

A

The typical timeline of events is unmanaged Threats leading to Errors which may result in an Undesired Aircraft State (UAS). If an undesired aircraft state is not correctly managed, it results in an Outcome which may be an accident or incident. 
 
It is also possible a threat will lead directly to an undesired aircraft state (e.g. severe turbulence causing a dramatic loss of altitude)

The correct answer is: errors which are then linked to undesired aircraft states

Answer 144

A

Induced drag is greatest at low speed and it continuously decreases as speed is increased.

The correct answer is: decrease continuously

Answer 145

A

A landing climb weight limit is concerned only with the possibility of a go around. It ensures the aircraft will be able to climb at a specified gradient under the ambient conditions. It is based on the aircraft’s ability to climb while still in the landing configuration [full flap and landing gear down].

The correct answer is: climb at a specified climb gradient under the ambient conditions and in the landing configuration.

Answer 146

A

Effective Performance Times

20 000 feet 10 minutes

25 000 feet 3 minutes

30 000 feet 1 minute

Answer 147

A

In level flight, the force of lift is not negotiable, it must equal weight. The value of lift / drag therefore, must be the greatest when drag is least. The best lift/drag ratio occurs at the speed where total drag is least.

at a medium angle of attack where the required lift is accompanied by the least drag

Answer 148

A

The levels of carbon dioxide in the blood will remain constant and it is the increase in carbon dioxide level which triggers feelings of suffocation. The dropping levels of oxygen in the blood do not trigger a reaction even though the brain is becoming progressively hypoxic.

in the absence of physical exertion, there is no change in the carbon dioxide level in the blood so the brain does not respond

Answer 149

A

adopting a more erect seating position

A reclined seating position means there is less of an uphill for the heart the pump the blood against. Compare that to an upright sitting position where the heart is pushing blood vertically. Sitting upright will definitely not increase your g-tolerence.

Answer 150

A

If the centre of gravity is too far forward, the aircraft will resist any change in attitude - especially in pitch. The pilot will notice that the elevator control feels unusually 'heavy'.

become too stable in pitch

Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

RPL test Flashcards

Brainscape's Knowledge Genome^TM