RPL test Flashcards
<p>The form of drag which predominates at low air speed is called...</p>
<p>induced drag</p>
<p>A wing enjoys maximum efficiency in level flight when</p>
<p>total drag is least</p>
<p>Application of high power with low airspeed is accompanied by ............. producing a ..........</p>
<p>engine torque producing a roll</p>
<p>What is a design feature that can reduce induced drag ?</p>
<p>Reduce size of wing tip / increase the aspect ratio of the wing</p>
<p>The effect of propeller slipstream on a single engine is to produce a ............ at ......... IAS and .......... power.</p>
<p>..produce a yaw at low IAS and high power</p>
<p>The effect of a strong crosswind from the left while taxiing on level ground is</p>
<p>aircraft will yaw to the left</p>
<p>Consider an aircraft flying at 5, 500 ft in a headwind. Under these conditions (speed) ......... lower than ....... which would be higher than ........</p>
<p>IAS would be lower than TAS which would be higher than GS</p>
<p>If airspeed is kept constant, what happens after extending flap? lift ......... and drag ........</p>
<p>lift increases and drag increases</p>
<p>An effect of lowering the flap during a glide. (Glide path + airspeed)</p>
<p>A steeper descent path may be flown at the same airspeed</p>
<p>A plane that has been trimmed for low level: elevator (up/down) trim tab (up/down)</p>
<p>elevator up trim tab down</p>
<p>During take off in a tailwind an increase of ..........(IAS or distance) is required</p>
<p>In a tailwind the aircraft must accelerate to a speed equal to the wind speed just to have zero airflow. It must then continue to accelerate to normal flying speed. Take-off distance will be increased</p>
<p>The purpose of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces is to ..................................</p>
<p>Lighten the in-flight loads on the control column</p>
<p>During an approach, what is the effect of a sudden decrease in headwind component on IAS and rate of descent ?</p>
<p>There would be a decrease in IAS and increase in rate of descent due to the accompanying loss of lift. This is a wind shear</p>
<p>Define IAS TAS and GS</p>
<p>IAS: airspeed reading that can be influenced by atmospheric conditions and temperature
TAS: TAS=IAS at sea-level with standard atmopheric conditions and temperature
GS: TAS +- wind</p>
<p>The effect of a headwind on a descent at constant IAS the angle of descent ................ and the rate of descent..............</p>
<p>Angle increases but rate remains the same. The rate of descent is not affected by wind however the angle of descent relative to the ground is steeper in a headwind because less distance is covered over the ground for any given loss of height.</p>
<p>Compared to nil wind conditions, what effects will be noticed when climbing into a headwind ? (rate and angle)</p>
<p>Rate = same angle is increased</p>
<p>Comparing best rate (V...) of climb speed to best angle (V....) The best angle occurs at a ........... nose attitude and a ........... airspeed.</p>
<p>Rate: Vy
Angle: Vx
Lower attitude and higher airspeed</p>
<p>Effects of a tailwind on climb performance. Angle of climb is ........... and rate of climb is ................</p>
<p>Angle of climb is lower and rate of climb is unchanged. Wind has no effect on rate of climb.</p>
<p>Which factors would require highest nose attitude in level flight ? An ................. in weight and a .............. in airspeed</p>
<p>Increase weight and lower airspeed. Level flight requires that lift be equal to weight. Lift is produced by a combination of IAS and angle of attack.</p>
<p>An aerofoil is said to be at its stalling angle if any increase or decrease in angle attack produces less .............</p>
<p>Lift. For a given airspeed, the stalling angle produces the maximum possible lift.</p>
<p>If you are slipping on a turn you should apply .......... rudder in the direction of the turn.</p>
<p>more.</p>
<p>Which of the following would decrease the IAS at which athe stall has occured ?</p>
<p>a.increase in angle of bank</p>
<p>b. increase of flap extension</p>
<p>c. decrease in engine power</p>
<p>d. a strong headwind</p>
<p>increase of flap extension</p>
<p>You're about to take off from a runway immediately after a heavy jet aircraft has taken off from the same runway. How could you avoid its wake turbulence?</p>
<p>Takinf off before its lift point, using steeper angle of climb and turning to remain up wind of its flight path</p>
<p>Wing tip vortices in level flight will be strongest when weight is .................. and speed is ...................</p>
<p>Weight increase and speed is decreased.</p>
Wing-tip vortices only generate when heavy aircraft is airbourne.
True
During a 60 degree bank level turn, the load factor will be .......% that of in level flight.
200% the load factor is 2.
At 60 degree angle of bank the new stalling speed would be ........% greater than level flight.
40% Stalling speed is square root of load factor which is 2. square root 2 = 1.4
Wake turbulence would be most severe behind a .................. (H/L) aircraft flying ................... (slow/fast)
Heavy aircraft flying slow
As the throttle is moved towards the fully open position manifold pressure ............ and gas flow ...............
Manifold pressure increases Gas flow increases
What is the best action to take when you suspect detonation. Mixture and throttle control
Mixture full rich. Throttle less power
What is the correct sequence of strokes in a 4 stroke internal combustion engine?
Induction, Compression, Power, Exhaust
You are operating an engine with oil temperature too low, ............. than normal oil pressure and poor lubrication due to ......... oil viscosity.
Higher oil pressure and high oil viscosity
During a pre tack-off check, the pilot notices no drop in RPM when the switches are moved from BOTH to R and the engine continues to run smoothly. What would be a likely cause ?
There is a fault in the ignition switch or wiring
Oil fouling of spark plugs is most likely ......
When taxiing or idling for too long. Oil normally gets burnt however when at idle unburnt oil pools and can block bottom spark plug.
The purpose of an impulse coupling is to ......
provides sparks when the engine is being cranked during start up.
What is ISA temperature at 2000 feet ?
11 deg
What is ISA temperature at 5000 feet ?
5 deg
What is ISA temperature at 7500 feet ?
0 deg
What is ISA temperature at 23000 feet ?
-31 deg
What is ISA deviation at 6000 feet and 20 deg ?
+17 deg
What is ISA deviation at 12000 feet and 0 deg ?
+9 deg
What is ISA deviation at 3000 feet and 30 deg ?
+21 deg
What is ISA deviation at 2000 feet and 2 deg ?
-9 deg
Which two aircraft motions cause a spiral dive ?
Roll + yaw. The roll causes a side-slip which in turn causes a yaw which in turn causes a further roll. This is sometimes called spiral instability.
What is the correct sequence for a missed approach ?
Missed approach: 1. Full power 2. Control. Rudder straight. Low climb ATT. Wings level 3. Flaps 20 deg 4. Normal climb ATT trim for Vx 5. Safe height retract flaps 200' 10 deg 100' 0 deg
What are ISA conditions at sea level ?
Atmospheric pressure is 1013 hPa every 1 hPa = 30 ' Temperature is 15 deg and drops 2 deg/1000' Air is dry and uniform throughout
Why use right rudder when taking off ?
1. Propeller slipstream pushing on left side of rudder 2. Engine torque pushing the left wheel harder onto then runway surface
During an approach with a flapless landing compared to normal, what will the pilot notice in regards to attitude and approach path ?
Higher nose attitude and flatter approach path
What are immediate actions if you encounter a wind shear on approach
Wind Shear: Lower nose + add power
Aerodrome ground marker ++ is displayed what does it mean ?
Gliding operations are in progress
In a level balance 60 deg angle of bank lift = ........ weight
twice
If the elevator control is abruptly pully to fully aft position to induce a stall a stall will occur at .......... speed than normal
higher
Which of the folowwing has no effect on the stalling IAS of an aircraft? a. weight b. load factor c. power d. height
height
Where is best to land after a heavy aircraft to avoid wake turbulence?
aim to touch down a t a point ahead of the touch down point of the heavy aircraft
What is function of carburettor ?
To mix correct amount of fuel with air as it passes through the venturri on its way to the cylinders
When should you use carburettor heat during a long power-off glide ?
Carburettor heat should be applied before the throttle is closed and it should be left on during the glide. (While there is plenty of engine heat available).
If detonation is suspected during a long climb you should
Reduce power Check mixture is fully rich lower nose to climb at higher airspeed (do anything to cool the engine)
If altimeter fails to indicate height change most likel;y cause is
static vent is blocked
If you take off from an uncontrolled airstrip which has left hand circuits, what is the earliest point after takeoff at which you may turn right?
2500' AGL or 3 nautical miles from the aerodrome boundary
The lowest height at which you can fly in the training area is
1000' over populous area or town otherwise 500'
With regard to end of daylight you must leave training area in time to land ...... minutes before the end of dayligh
10 minutes
When turning from upwind to downwind at low level on a very windy day you may experience the illusion of .......
slipping in as you turn crosswind the wind pushes you into the direction of turn
What would happen if a mass balance lost during flight?
Without a mass balance, control surfaces would tend to 'flap' in the wind (like a flag). This is called flutter and it will not happen if the centre of gravity of the control surface is kept close to the hinge.
Which of the following would cause the greatest increase in landing distance?
a. approaching at a higher IAS than normal
b. landing at maximum weight
c. landing on an up-hill slope
d. raising the flaps immediately after touch down
The landing distance required depends on the kinetic energy of the aircraft. Put simply this descides how hard it is to stop. Increased speed causes a very rapid increase in kinetic energy, therefore a greater landing distance.
An aircraft cannot enter a spin unless
a. it is over its maximum take-off weight
b. the pilot allows it to stall
c. the centre of gravity is beyond the aft limit
d. the pilot has allowed the angle of bank to become too steep
A spin is a post stall phenomenon. A dropping stalled wing produces less lift but more drag. It therefore continues to drop and yaw.
What's the first thing you do after engine failure after take off ?
Lower nose to maintain speed
In a four stroke internal combustion engine what is the rocker arm connected to ?
One side to push rod + camshaft. One side to inlet/exhaust valve.
In a four stroke internal combustion engine what is a camshaft ?
A rotating metal object in the that has a cam. When the cam passes under the push rod it lifts the rod forcing it to lift one end of the rocker arm.
What is the propellor connected to in the engine ?
Crank shaft
In a four stroke internal combustion engine the crank shaft is attached to the pison by a ............
Connecting rod. Has a small end connected to piston big end connected to crank shaft
In a four stroke internal combustion engine the valves open when the push rod pushes against the ......
Rocker arm
What does an exhaust thermometer measure ?
Rich or lean mixtures burn cool. There is one fuel air mixture which produces the hottest burn. The easiest way to monitor temperature of combustion is the temperature of the exiting exhaust gases.
If an engine is allowed to overspeed (engine past the red line), engine damage could result because of .........
internal stresses on the bearings and valves. Pisons and valves have to continually change their direction of motion. They are not designed to tolerate higher RPM than indicated red line.
What happens if there is no RPM drop when switch is selected from BOTH to RIGHT or BOTH to LEFT ?
If there is no drop, the magnetos are not turning off as they should. This is very dangerous as a live magneto can cause a propeller on a parked aircraft to 'kick' when moved.
The zero fuel weight [ZFW] of an aircraft is .........
the weight of fully loaded aircraft without fuel
Taking off down wind greatly increases the take off distance required. It also....
Greatly decreases the ability to clear obstacles duting the climb after take off
Which of the following overnight conditions is most likely to be followed by early morning fog ?
a. heavy rain and low cloud
b. clear skies, strong winds and high humidity
c. clear skies, light winds and high humidity
d. cloudy skies, light winds and high humidity
c. Fog requires strong cooling and gentle mixing of the surface air. Clear skies provide the cooling and gentle winds provide the mixing.
What is the minimum distance bewtween an aircraft being fuelled and another stationary aircraft ?
6 metres
When light passes through the lens it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the -
Select one:
retina
optic nerve
cornea
iris
The retina is the layer of light receptors on the back of the eye and it is the retina which deals with the light being focused on it by the lens.
As light hits the eye, it passes through the transparent cornea, through the pupil (the size of which is controlled by the iris), into the lens which focuses the light onto the retina. The nerves in the retina then transmit their signals to the visual cortex of the brain along the thick bundle of nerve fibres known as the optic nerve.
If you have difficulty with this question you should review the anatomy of the eye in part 4 of the textbook.
The correct answer is: retina
While taxying, the tower shines a steady green light at your aircraft. This means:
Select one:
you are cleared for take-off if you are satisfied no collision risk exists.
you are cleared to continue taxying if you are satisfied no collision risk exists.
you should stop and check your landing lights.
you are cleared to return to the starting point of the runway.
This signal means you are cleared to take-off. (AIP ENR 1.5 14.1 & 14.2 or see your VFG)
The correct answer is: you are cleared for take-off if you are satisfied no collision risk exists.
Given that the recommended indicated air speed for best angle of climb in a particular aircraft is published as 60 knots. Which of the following would reduce the angle of climb?
Select one:
a headwind
climbing at a reduced indicated air speed
an increase in air density
a reduction in take-off weight
The best angle of climb occurs at a particular indicated air speed where the greatest excess of thrust over drag occurs. Any other speed, higher or lower, will result in a decreased angle of climb.
While in the cruise, you notice you are catching up to an aircraft ahead. In order to overtake this aircraft you should:
Select one:
alter heading to the left so the pilot of the slower aircraft can keep you in view.
alter heading to the right to keep the slower aircraft in view on the left.
rev the engine when you get close enough so the slower aircraft pulls over to the left.
dive to gain speed and pass underneath the slower aircraft.
CAR 162 (3) - When overtaking, you are required to keep clear and overtake the aircraft by passing to the right. In other words, you keep the slower aircraft on your left. You may not overtake by diving or climbing although you may overtake while climbing or descending.
The correct answer is: alter heading to the right to keep the slower aircraft in view on the left.
Which one of the following examples describes an undesired aircraft configuration state?
Select one:
incorrect fuel distribution.
icing system not operating in icing conditions.
taxiing too fast.
IAS too low during an approach to land.
Undesired Aircraft states can be split up into the following categories:
Aircraft Handling states: aircraft control [deviations in pitch, roll and yaw], altitude, track or speed deviations [deviations in flight path], placing the aircraft in a hazardous situation [weather or violation of CTA or CTAF procedures], exceeding structural load factor or speed limitations and poor technique in flying the approach or landing
Ground Navigation states: attempting to use the wrong taxiway or runway, taxiing too fast (ground handling)
Aircraft Configuration states: inappropriate flap or speed-brake selection, incorrect autopilot mode, incorrect programing of GPS or other navigation aid, incorrect fuel distribution, incorrect distribution of weight.
An inactive icing system and a too-low IAS are handling states, taxiing too fast is a ground navigation state. Incorrect fuel distribution is a configuration state.
Note: CAAP 5.59 does not mention Aircraft Handling, Ground Navigation or Configuration states specifically but they are still terms you should be familiar with.
The correct answer is: incorrect fuel distribution.
Regularly practising forced landings would be an example of
Select one:
an execution countermeasure employed to manage an anticipated threat.
a systemic countermeasure employed to manage an unexpected threat.
a planning countermeasure employed to manage a handling error.
a review countermeasure employed to manage a procedural error.
A forced landing would be the result of an engine failure and an engine failing in flight is an unexpected threat. The pilot is practising forced landings so that if it happens for real, the pilot is in the best position to deal with effectively. Since this practice is designed to minimise the effect of the threat it is classified as a countermeasure.
Countermeasures can be planning, execution and review countermeasures. Training is considered to be part of the operational system of countermeasures to reduce error so it is a Systemic countermeasure.
The correct answer is: a systemic countermeasure employed to manage an unexpected threat.
What are the VMC requirements in Class D airspace?
Select one:
1000ft above and 1000ft below and 1500m horizontal separation from cloud with an in-flight visibility of 5000m.
1000ft above and 1000ft below and 600m horizontal separation from cloud with an in-flight visibility of 5000m.
clear of cloud.
1000ft above and 500ft below and 600m horizontal separation from cloud with an in-flight visibility of 5000m.
See AIP ENR 1.2 or your VFG for the full description of VMC conditions.
The correct answer is: 1000ft above and 500ft below and 600m horizontal separation from cloud with an in-flight visibility of 5000m.
The basic empty weight is the measured or calculated weight of the aircraft is the weight of the aircraft
Select one:
including cargo and fuel but without passengers or crew
with all items of weight on board except for cargo
with all items of weight on board except for the weight of useable fuel
without any passengers, crew, cargo or usable fuel on board
The basic empty weight is the weight of the aircraft before any item is loaded. The weight of passengers, crew, cargo and fuel are not included in the basic empty weight. Unusable fuel and engine oil are usually included in the basic empty weight.
The correct answer is: without any passengers, crew, cargo or usable fuel on board
The purpose of an impulse coupling in a magneto is to
Select one:
provide a strong spark when the engine is being cranked at start-up
provide a hotter spark when the engine is at full power
prevent the spark plugs from being fouled with oil
provide current to the alternator field
Without the impulse coupling the magneto would not be turning fast enough to produce a proper spark while the engine is being cranked. The impulse coupling makes it possible to start the engine with very low rotational speed [even by hand!].
The correct answer is: provide a strong spark when the engine is being cranked at start-up
The application of full flap during a power-off glide would permit
Select one:
the current flight path to be maintained at a lower speed
the extra lift to produce a flatter approach path
the approach path to be steeper with no increase in airspeed
the aircraft to glide at a higher nose attitude
The extra drag created by flap extension allows a steeper descent path without an unwanted build-up of airspeed.
The correct answer is: the approach path to be steeper with no increase in airspeed
A heavy jet aircraft has just departed from a runway you are about to use. Select the actions that would give the best chance of avoiding an encounter with the jet’s wake turbulence
Select one:
aim to lift off after the jet's lift off point, maintain the best angle of climb and turn to remain upwind of the jet's flight path
aim to lift off after the jet's lift off point, maintain the best angle of climb and turn to remain downwind of the jet's flight path
aim to lift off before the jet's lift off point, maintain the best rate of climb and turn to remain upwind of the jet's flight path
aim to lift off before the jet’s lift off point, maintain the best angle of climb and turn to remain upwind of the jet’s flight path
Wake turbulence tends to behave like smoke, it drifts with the wind. It also sinks below the flight path of the generating aircraft. If you take off before it, and climb steeper, you must remain above the vortices.
The correct answer is: aim to lift off before the jet’s lift off point, maintain the best angle of climb and turn to remain upwind of the jet’s flight path
You are flying a Cessna 152 and you enter and line up on the runway just after a Cessna 150 has taken-off. If the runway is 2000m long, when would be the earliest you could start your take-off roll?
Select one:
1800m
After the preceding aircraft has crossed the upwind threshold without turning.
600m after the preceding aircraft has commenced a turn.
600m
AIP ENR 1.1 para 5.5 (ARC AU-717 para 6.2.2) states that an aircraft may not commence a take off unless any of the following apply: (a) The aircraft ahead has crossed the upwind end of the runway or has commenced a turn. (b) If the runway is more than 1800m long, you can start your take-off if the aircraft ahead is at least 1800m ahead. (c) If your aircraft has a MTOW of 2000kg or less and the preceding aircraft has a MTOW of 7000kg or less and you are slower, you can start your take-off after only 600m of separation. (d) If both aircraft are 2000kg or less, 600m is the minimum separation distance.
The correct answer is: 600m
Two examples of the basic classifications of threat derived from the TEM model are -
Select one:
environmental threats and organisational threats
mechanical threats and flight crew threats
weather related threats and flight crew experience related threats
latent threats and involuntary threats
Threats can be:
anticipated (expected) threats
unexpected threats, or
latent threats
This gives you a clue as to the nature of the threat. Threats are also classified as:
internal threats
external (environmental) threats
organisational threats (often latent)
You will be expected to recognise correct terminology in the exam and of the options, "environmental threats and organisational threats" is the only answer with the correct terms.
The correct answer is: environmental threats and organisational threats
When looking for information on an aerodromes circuit procedures, you would use which one of the following documents?
Select one:
CAR
CAAP
ERSA
AIP
The Enroute Supplement Australia contains a comprehensive list of aerodromes in Australia with vital operational information such as frequencies, local traffic regulations and runway information.
The correct answer is: ERSA
If the magnetic variation is marked on a map as 8° E and the track has been measured as 192°T, the magnetic direction would be
Select one:
200°M
008°M
192°M
184°M
When the variation is east, it is subtracted from the true direction to obtain the magnetic direction. “variation east – magnetic least”.
The correct answer is: 184°M
Entering the wrong way point data, while operating in a stressful cockpit environment, is an example of an -
Select one:
environmental threat
procedural error
expected threat
handling error
An error is flight crew actions or inactions that:
lead to a deviation from crew or organisational intentions or expectations;
reduce safety margins; and
increase the probability of adverse operational events on the ground and during flight.
The important thing here is an error involves an action or an absence of action. Errors are classified as handling errors, communication errors and procedural errors.
In this case, the pilot has entered the wrong waypoint data. He or she has interacted with the aircraft somehow. It is a handling error.
What about "procedural error"? No, these types of errors occur when working with checklists and procedures. Now you may turn around and argue:
"OK, but what if the co-pilot didn't double-check the input as specified in the company SOPs so it must be a procedural error".
No. Not double-checking is indeed a procedural error but actually putting in the wrong data is still a handling error. The handling error is the initial consequence of the procedural error.
The answers "stressful cockpit environment" and "external threat" are threats, not errors and as such are totally incorrect.
The correct answer is: handling error
Which of the following most fully describes the behaviour of an aerofoil that is operating at its stalling angle
Select one:
an increase in angle of attack results in less lift and less drag
any increase or decrease in angle of attack results in more drag
any increase or decrease in angle of attack results in less lift
a decrease in angle of attack results in more lift
For any given airspeed, the stalling angle produces the maximum possible lift. Increasing the angle of attack beyond the stalling angle causes a stall and therefore less lift. Decreasing the angle of attack also produces less lift.
The correct answer is: any increase or decrease in angle of attack results in less lift
If the wind is 090°M at 30kt and the runway in use is runway 06, the crosswind component on that runway would be approximately
Select one:
15kt from the left
15kt from the right
10kt from the right
27kt from the left
When a wind is 30° across the runway the crosswind component will be half the wind strength. If the number describing wind direction is greater than the number describing runway direction, the wind will be from you right.
The correct answer is: 15kt from the right
Which of the following would be classified as an execution countermeasure?
Select one:
planning a flight.
cross checking instruments.
pre-flight briefing.
modifying the original plan due to changed conditions.
Crosschecking instruments is an example of an execution countermeasure.
CAAP 5.59 describes Countermeasures as follows:
Systemic Countermeasures: electronic or mechanical devices or SOP's and checklists to ensure proper pilot actions:
stall warning devices
systems failure warnings e.g. annunciator panels
airborne collision avoidance systems (ACAS)
ground proximity warning systems (GPWS)
Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs)
Written Checklists
Briefings and training
Planning Countermeasures: actions taken before departure to ensure safe and proper operation of the flight:
flight planning,
briefing,
contingency planning
Execution Countermeasures: actions taken in-flight to protect against threats and errors:
monitoring,
cross-checking,
workload and systems management
Review Countermeasures: for coping with unexpected events in flight or for reviewing the flight after landing:
evaluating and modifying plans as the flight proceeds,
inquiry and assertiveness to identify and address issues in a timely way.
Make sure you know all of these examples and which type of countermeasure they belong to.
The correct answer is: cross checking instruments.
While approaching an aerodrome to land you see a series of red flashes directed at your aircraft from the tower. You should:
Select one:
continue your approach with caution.
remain circling and wait for a flashing green light.
remain circling and wait for a steady green light.
leave the circuit area and head for an alternate airport
A flashing red light means the aerodrome is unsafe, no not land. You would have no choice but to go to an alternate aerodrome. (AIP ENR 1.5 14.1 & 14.2 or see your VFG)
The correct answer is: leave the circuit area and head for an alternate airport
In Class G airspace, there is a broken overcast of stratocumulus clouds with bases of 4500ft. What is the highest VFR cruising altitude you should fly if you are heading 090 degrees magnetic and wish to remain below the clouds?
Select one:
2500ft
1500ft
3500ft
4500ft
You are below 5000ft so you should adhere to the hemispherical cruising level rules for Easterly tracks. Below 5000ft you don't have to adhere to these rules but it is strongly recommended you do so. This means cruising at odd thousands + 500ft. You are in Class G airspace so the standard VMC conditions apply to you which means you must maintain a vertical separation of 1000ft above and below clouds. Therefore the highest cruising level available to you below the clouds will be 3500ft. (AIP ENR 1.7 5 & 6 or see the VFG)
The correct answer is: 3500ft
The optical illusion created when approaching a sloping runway is an example of -
Select one:
a latent threat
an internal threat
an external threat
an expected threat
Some students might have difficulty correctly categorising optical illusions but since they are likely to appear in your CASA exam it is worth looking at them in more detail.
First off, let's eliminate "internal threat": the optical illusion has nothing to do with the pilot's physical or psychological state so it is not internal.
If you've been briefed on the airfield in question you could argue "Well, I expect there to be an optical illusion while I'm on approach so this is an expected threat". Good thinking, but the threat exists whether you've been briefed or not. A pilot without the briefing can still be affected by the optical illusion so it is not strictly an expected threat.
What about "external threat". The optical illusion is indeed a threat occurring in the environment of the flight so you'd be correct. However, the illusion is not always going to affect every pilot. It is like an accident waiting to happen. This is the clue indicating we are really talking about a latent threat.
Now, you would be correct if you said optical illusions are latent, external threats. The important thing is the term latent. If you need still need convincing, CAAP 5.59 14.1.3 explicitly lists optical illusions as examples of latent threats so you can be assured this is the answer CASA expects.
The correct answer is: a latent threat
When must passengers wear seatbelts?
Select one:
only when below 1000ft AGL or on an instrument approach.
whenever they must occupy a seat.
during take off and landing, when below 1000ft AMSL, flying in turbulence or when on an instrument approach.
only during take-off and landing.
CAO 20.16.3.3 and CAO 20.16.4.1 state that passengers must be seated during take off and landing, when below 1000ft AGL, flying in turbulence or when on an instrument approach. The CAO then goes on to say that when seated in these conditions, seatbelts or harnesses must be worn.
The correct answer is: whenever they must occupy a seat.
If the atmosphere is unstable with high humidity, strong solar heating of the surface is likely to produce
Select one:
fog
frost
dust storms
thunderstorms
The conditions necessary for a thunderstorm to form are: an unstable atmosphere, high humidity and a trigger mechanism to cause the initial lifting of the air. Strong solar heating results air rising due to convection.
The correct answer is: thunderstorms
Landing an aircraft at a weight above its maximum structural landing weight could result in
Select one:
difficulty with directional control during the final approach
permanent damage or deformation of the landing gear or fuselage
overheating of the brakes after touch-down
the aircraft becoming unstable in pitch
As the name implies, the maximum structural landing weight considers the actual structure of the aircraft. It is published in the aircraft flight manual and it considers the possibility of strong cross winds and rough surfaces.
The correct answer is: permanent damage or deformation of the landing gear or fuselage
The amount of water the average person will lose on a hot day is closest to -
Select one:
12 1itres
21 litres
5 litres
8 litres
An average person will lose about 5 litres of water on a hot day although, as you can expect this is highly variable and dependant on the climate, a persons acclimatisation exercise levels etc.
The value you should remember is "about 5 litres".
The correct answer is: 5 litres
The two different types of light sensitive elements on the retina are classified as -
Select one:
rods and cones both of which are responsible for colour vision
rods which are sensitive to colour and cones which work best in dim light
rods and cones both of which respond equally to all lighting conditions
cones which are sensitive to colour and rods which work best in dim light
The light sensitive elements of the retina are classified as the rods and cones:
Rods are most effective in dim light and cones are sensitive to coloured light and are responsible for colour vision.
To help remember which is which, think "C is for Colour, C is for Cone".
The correct answer is: cones which are sensitive to colour and rods which work best in dim light
You are considered to be overtaking another aircraft if you are approaching another aircraft:
Select one:
from the front.
from the rear.
from the rear in an arc subtending 180 degrees from wing tip to wing tip.
from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
CAR 160 Interpretation. If you are moving through an arc of +/- 70 degrees either side of a line extending out from the rear of the leading aircraft, you are considered to be overtaking the leading aircraft.
The correct answer is: from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
The onset of which conditions are likely to cause radiation fog to dissipate?
Select one:
an increase in wind strength and an increase in surface temperature
a decrease in wind strength and a decrease in surface temperature
an increase in wind strength and a decrease in surface temperature
a decrease in wind strength and an increase in surface temperature
Stronger winds cause more turbulence near the cold surface so that air in contact with the cold surface does not stay there for long and so does not become as cold. Any heating of the surface also results in convection that also promotes mixing of the air near the surface. Radiation fog almost always clears after the sun rises.
The correct answer is: an increase in wind strength and an increase in surface temperature
An aircraft suffers a bird strike which has caused some minor damage but no injuries. This is:
Select one:
a Routinely Reportable Matter (RRM) which must be reported in writing to CASA within 72 hours.
an Immediately Reportable Matter which must be phoned through to the ATSB within 24 hours and followed up in writing within 72 hours.
a Routinely Reportable Matter (RRM) which must be reported in writing to the ATSB within 72 hours.
an Immediately Reportable Matter which must be phoned through to CASA within 24 hours and followed up in writing within 72 hours.
See the textbook or AIP ENR 1.14 for information on IRM and RRM's.
The correct answer is: a Routinely Reportable Matter (RRM) which must be reported in writing to the ATSB within 72 hours.
Is the following statement true or false? “If the aircraft electrical system is turned off and the magneto switches are selected to ‘off’, it is safe to handle the propeller because there is no danger of ‘kick back’ as long as these switches are in the ‘off’ position”.
Select one:
the statement is false but only if the mixture is set to fully rich
the statement is true
the statement is false
the statement is true but only if the mixture is also set to idle cut-off
If there is a fault in the ignition switches or wiring, the magneto may remain 'live' even though the switches have been placed in the 'off' position. A very small movement of the propeller can be enough to trigger the spring and cause the magneto to flick, producing a spark. If any residual fuel vapour is present in that cylinder, a dangerous 'kick back' can occur inflicting serious injury.
The correct answer is: the statement is false
Which of the following statements is correct regarding a Special VFR clearance.
Select one:
It may be available in any airspace.
It may be available in Class C, D and E airspace.
It may be available in Class C and G airspace.
It may be available in Class C and D airspace only.
Special VFR clearances are only available in Class C and D airspace. It is a clearance issued by a controller so can't apply in Class G and it is not available in Class E airspace (AIP ENR 1.2 1.2 or see your VFG).
The correct answer is: It may be available in Class C and D airspace only.
A pilot who is running well behind schedule for the day, forgets to turn on the anti-icing system and consequently suffers severe airframe icing. This situation demonstrates
Select one:
an internal threat leading to a handling error
a latent threat leading to a communication error.
an anticipated threat leading to a procedural error.
a latent threat leading to a handling error.
In this situation we have a pilot running behind schedule. This is not an internal threat because the problem is possibly with the scheduling and not with the physiological or psychological condition of the pilot. The scheduling problem is not an anticipated threat since it probably developed once the day's flying was already underway. In any case, tight schedules are a likely problem here and CAAP 5.59 classifies scheduling issues as a latent threat.
The latent threat has lead to an error: the pilot forgot to turn on the anti-icing system. The pilot failed to interact with the aircraft in some way so we are dealing with a handling error (which has also resulted in an undesired aircraft state - an aircraft with severe airframe icing).
The correct answer is: a latent threat leading to a handling error.
You are training for your initial aerobatics endorsement at a coastal aerodrome. There is is a 300ft mast in the aerobatics training area. Assuming there are no other restrictions due to populated areas or airspace, which of the following is a correct statement?
Select one:
you may practice aerobatics down to 3000ft as long as the tower is never within a circle of 600m radius centred on a line extending vertically down below the aircraft.
you may practice aerobatics down to 3300ft only.
you may practice aerobatics down to 3000ft as long as the tower is never within a circle of 600m diameter centred on a line extending vertically down below the aircraft.
there is no altitude limitation.
You must remain 3000ft above terrain or obstacles within a circle of 600m radius (1200m diameter) directly below the aircraft (CAAP 155-1).
The correct answer is: you may practice aerobatics down to 3000ft as long as the tower is never within a circle of 600m radius centred on a line extending vertically down below the aircraft.
In Australian aviation, the term QNH refers to
Select one:
the atmospheric pressure at mean sea-level expressed in pounds per square inch
the atmospheric pressure at a particular aerodrome expressed in hectopascals
the height of the aircraft above mean sea-level
the atmospheric pressure at mean sea-level expressed in hectopascals
QNH is the atmospheric pressure at mean sea-level. The altimeter measures its height above the pressure level that has been set on the instrument’s sub-scale. So an altimeter with the correct QNH set will read height above sea-level. Some people remember it by saying “QNH = Question, Nil Height” or “QNH Question Nautical Height”.
The correct answer is: the atmospheric pressure at mean sea-level expressed in hectopascals
All of the aerodynamic forces acting on an aircraft can be resolved to a single force acting at a single point. This single force and the point at which it acts respectively are called
Select one:
the total lift and the centre of pressure
the total lift and the centre of gravity
the total reaction and the centre of pressure
the total reaction and the centre of gravity
The total reaction represents all of the forces acting on the aerofoil. It is resolved into two components - lift and drag.
The correct answer is: the total reaction and the centre of pressure
While returning from the training area, you are caught out by a lowering cloud base which is now down to about 800ft. You can just make out your home aerodrome because the visibility is still quite good. However, you will need to fly over the township if you are to reach your home airfield. If there are no alternative aerodromes available except a large open paddock below you. Which of the following what would be the most suitable course of action?
Select one:
Maintain 1000ft above the township even if that means you will pop into cloud and keep tracking towards the aerodrome.
Keep circling until the cloud base lifts to above 1000ft.
Immediately execute a forced landing in the paddock because you are not allowed to fly less than 1000ft above a built-up area.
Remain clear of cloud and keep tracking towards the aerodrome.
CAR 157 states you may not fly less than 1000ft above a built-up area unless you are actually in the process of take-off or landing or through stress of weather. A precautionary landing in the paddock is an option but continuing on, remaining clear of cloud would be far better and most likely far safer than putting down in an unprepared field.
The correct answer is: Remain clear of cloud and keep tracking towards the aerodrome.
The compass is affected to some degree by magnetic fields caused by electrical equipment and metal components within the cockpit. The error caused by these magnetic influences must be applied to the magnetic direction. This correction is called
Select one:
variation and it is obtained from a compass correction card displayed near the compass
magnetic-compass conversion factor and it is obtained from a compass correction card displayed near the compass
variation and it is obtained from a isogonals on a map
deviation and it is obtained from a isogonals on the map
deviation and it is obtained from a compass correction card displayed near the compass
Deviation is the name given the difference between magnetic and compass direction. It is obtained by reference to the compass correction card which is created after engineers have completed a ‘compass swing’.
The correct answer is: deviation and it is obtained from a compass correction card displayed near the compass
A pilot notices an alternator warning light illuminated during flight and responds by turning off all unnecessary electrical loads. This behaviour would be best described as
Select one:
an execution countermeasure
a systemic-based countermeasure
a planning countermeasure
a review countermeasure
The alternator warning light (a systemic countermeasure) comes on during the flight and the pilot has reacted to this unexpected flight condition by unloading the electrical system. He has performed a review countermeasure.
Why not call it an execution countermeasure? Well, execution countermeasures are taken to protect against threats in flight. Review countermeasures are a reaction to an existing threat. Let's assume for arguments sake that the panel was not equipped with an alternator warning light but the pilot still included a regular check of the ammeter in his scan. The regular checking of the ammeter is the execution countermeasure. Now once he noticed the problem, he unloaded the electrical system. Unloading the system is the review countermeasure.
For your reference, countermeasures are categorised as:
Systemic Countermeasures: electronic or mechanical devices or SOP's and checklists to ensure proper pilot actions:
stall warning devices
systems failure warnings e.g. annunciator panels
airborne collision avoidance systems (ACAS)
ground proximity warning systems (GPWS)
Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs)
Written Checklists
Briefings and training
Planning Countermeasures: actions taken before departure to ensure safe and proper operation of the flight:
flight planning,
briefing,
contingency planning
Execution Countermeasures: actions taken in-flight to protect against threats and errors:
monitoring,
cross-checking,
workload and systems management
Review Countermeasures: for coping with unexpected events in flight or for reviewing the flight after landing:
evaluating and modifying plans as the flight proceeds,
inquiry and assertiveness to identify and address issues in a timely way.
You should try and memorise these specific examples of countermeasures.
The correct answer is: a review countermeasure
A pilot who resorts to assertiveness to address a problem in flight is employing
Select one:
an execution countermeasure.
a planning countermeasure.
a handling countermeasure.
a review countermeasure.
CAAP 5.59 lists "inquiry and assertiveness to identify and address issues in a timely way" as an example of a Review Countermeasure. In CAAP 5.59 13.4.4, Review countermeasures are described as follows:
Review Countermeasures: for coping with unexpected events in flight or for reviewing the flight after landing:
evaluating and modifying plans as the flight proceeds,
inquiry and assertiveness to identify and address issues in a timely way.
The correct answer is: a review countermeasure.
As you are flying you notice a Cessna 172 converging with a constant relative bearing from the left. Which aircraft has right of way:
Select one:
They have right of way unless you are a powered aircraft.
The other aircraft has right of way.
You have right of way.
You have right of way unless you are a glider.
When two aircraft are converging, the aircraft with the other on its right must give way. However, powered aircraft must give way to gliders, and balloons; gliders must give way to balloons.
The correct answer is: You have right of way.
For unrestricted private operations, the lowest class of medical a private pilot will require is
Select one:
a Class 2 medical
a Driver Licence medical
a note from their GP
a Class 1 medical
In Australia, there is the Class 1 medical for commercial operations, Class 2 for private operations, Class 3 for Air Traffic Control and the Driver's licence medical which is valid for private operations under certain restrictions only. For unrestricted private operations then, the lowest class of medical required for a PPL holder a Class 2 medical. (CASR 67)
The correct answer is: a Class 2 medical
You are flying a Cessna 152 and you enter and line up on the runway just after a Cessna 150 has taken-off. If the runway is 900m long, when would be the earliest you could start your take-off roll?
Select one:
600m, after the preceding aircraft has crossed the upwind threshold or has commenced a turn.
After the preceding aircraft has crossed the upwind threshold without turning.
1800m
600m after the preceding aircraft has commenced a turn.
AIP ENR 1.1 para 5.5 (ARC AU-717 para 6.2.2) states that an aircraft may not commence a take off unless any of the following apply: (a) The aircraft ahead has crossed the upwind end of the runway or has commenced a turn. (b) If the runway is more than 1800m long, you can start your take-off if the aircraft ahead is at least 1800m ahead. (c) If your aircraft has a MTOW of 2000kg or less and the preceding aircraft has a MTOW of 7000kg or less and you are slower, you can start your take-off after only 600m of separation. (d) If both aircraft are 2000kg or less, 600m is the minimum separation distance.
The correct answer is: 600m, after the preceding aircraft has crossed the upwind threshold or has commenced a turn.
If ambient temperature increases, what affect will it have on take-off and landing distance required?
Select one:
take-off distance and landing distance required will both increase
take-off distance and landing distance required will both decrease
take-off distance required will decrease while landing distance required will increase
take-off distance required will increase while landing distance required will decrease
When temperature increases, the air becomes less dense. That results in reduce engine power for take-off and higher true airspeeds for both take-off and landing. The distance required increases for both take-off and landing.
The correct answer is: take-off distance and landing distance required will both increase
Drag is that component of the total reaction which acts
Select one:
in the same direction as motion and parallel to the relative airflow
at right angles to the relative airflow
opposite the to direction of motion and parallel to the relative airflow
at right angles to the chord line
Select the item that would cause the stall to occur at a lower indicated air speed
Select one:
a strong headwind
a reduction in engine power
an increase in angle of bank during a turn
an increase in flap extension during level flight
Flap extension allows the use of smaller angles of attack at any given airspeed. That is the same as saying it allows the use of less airspeed for any given angle of attack.
The correct answer is: an increase in flap extension during level flight
Regularly practising forced landings would be an example of
Select one:
a review countermeasure employed to manage a procedural error.
an execution countermeasure employed to manage an anticipated threat.
a planning countermeasure employed to manage a handling error.
a systemic countermeasure employed to manage an unexpected threat.
A forced landing would be the result of an engine failure and an engine failing in flight is an unexpected threat. The pilot is practising forced landings so that if it happens for real, the pilot is in the best position to deal with effectively. Since this practice is designed to minimise the effect of the threat it is classified as a countermeasure.
Countermeasures can be planning, execution and review countermeasures. Training is considered to be part of the operational system of countermeasures to reduce error so it is a Systemic countermeasure.
The correct answer is: a systemic countermeasure employed to manage an unexpected threat.
The operation of a starter motor is usually limited to somewhere between 5 and 10 seconds. This restriction is necessary because
Select one:
continued operation may cause overheating of the starter motor or damage to the alternator
continued operation may cause overheating of the starter motor or damage to the battery
engine damage may occur because of low oil pressure during start-up
fuel vapour accumulating in the engine can become a fire risk
Unlike most electric motors, the starter motor is not designed to be operated for long periods of time. About 5 seconds is usually the limit. It draws such a large current that continued operation will cause serious overheating and possible damage.
The correct answer is: continued operation may cause overheating of the starter motor or damage to the battery
You are in Class G airspace and there are clouds ahead with bases just above 2500ft AMSL. If you are maintaining a Westerly track, what is the highest available VFR cruising altitude available to you if you must remain below cloud?
Select one:
2000ft because you are below 5000ft and can choose which level to fly at.
2200ft because you are below 5000ft and can choose which level to fly at.
2500ft as long as you remain clear of cloud, have a radio, it is on and you are listening out.
1500ft so you remain 1000ft below cloud.
Being below 3000ft AMSL, your VMC requirements are now remain clear of cloud. However, you must have a radio, it must be on and you must maintain a listening watch. You are below 5000ft, you can theoretically choose any level to cruise at independent of the hemispherical rules but sticking to the recommended levels is recommended where possible. 2500ft would still be the highest VFR cruising altitude available. (AIP ENR 1.7 5 & 6 or see the VFG)
The correct answer is: 2500ft as long as you remain clear of cloud, have a radio, it is on and you are listening out.
With regards to aviation medicals for a pilot under 40 years of age, which of the following statements is correct?
Select one:
Class 1 medicals are valid for 1 year, Class 2 medicals are valid for 1 year
Class 1 medicals are valid for 1 year, Class 2 medicals are valid for 2 years
Class 1 medicals are valid for 1 year, Class 2 medicals are valid for 4 years
Class 1 medicals are valid for 2 years, Class 2 medicals are valid for 2 years
Two examples of the basic classifications of threat derived from the TEM model are -
Select one:
environmental threats and organisational threats
weather related threats and flight crew experience related threats
mechanical threats and flight crew threats
latent threats and involuntary threats
Threats can be:
anticipated (expected) threats
unexpected threats, or
latent threats
This gives you a clue as to the nature of the threat. Threats are also classified as:
internal threats
external (environmental) threats
organisational threats (often latent)
You will be expected to recognise correct terminology in the exam and of the options, "environmental threats and organisational threats" is the only answer with the correct terms.
The correct answer is: environmental threats and organisational threats
At night, there is a slower aircraft ahead and you can see the navigation lights on the right wing tip. Are you considered to be overtaking this aircraft under the terms of CAR 160?
Select one:
No because the other pilot is obviously turning away.
Yes because you are faster than the slower aircraft
Yes because if you can see the light, you are too close.
No, because the navigation light shielding prevents you from seeing the light unless you are more than 70 degrees off the tail of the leading aircraft.
The navigation lights are shielded from behind so they are only visible if you are actually outside the arc 70 degrees either side of the tail of the leading aircraft. This +/- 70 degree arc defines the “overtaking region as far as “CAR 160 Interpretation' is concerned.
The correct answer is: No, because the navigation light shielding prevents you from seeing the light unless you are more than 70 degrees off the tail of the leading aircraft.
In the absence of reliable visual information, which of the following states of motion would be most difficult to differentiate?
Select one:
a steep turn and a rapid deceleration in level flight
a rapid acceleration in level flight and a transition from level flight to a climb
a rapid deceleration in level flight and a transition from level flight to a climb
a rapid acceleration in level flight and a transition from level flight to a dive
Acceleration in level flight and a climb from level flight would be the most difficult to differentiate.
In the absence of visual cues, the body will tend to confuse acceleration for a climb. This is due to the acceleration effects on the vestibular system (namely the utricle and the saccule).
These effects give rise to what is known as a Somatogravic illusion. There are three situations where somatogravic illusions may occur:
Rapid linear acceleration can feel like a sudden pitch up.
Rapid linear deceleration can feel like a sudden pitch down.
Rapid transition from a climb attitude to straight and level flight may give the pilot the feeling they are tumbling backwards.
The correct answer is: a rapid acceleration in level flight and a transition from level flight to a climb
A Recreational Pilot Licence (RPL) remains valid:
Select one:
for 4 years unless renewed with a biennial flight review.
for 1 year unless CASA extends the validity period.
for 2 years unless renewed with a biennial flight review.
indefinitely until suspended or cancelled.
All pilot licences (RPL, PPL, CPL and ATPL) remain valid indefinitely unless they are cancelled or suspended by CASA. (CAR 269)
The correct answer is: indefinitely until suspended or cancelled.
If radiation fog forms, it will form in the early hours of the morning. This fog will be likely to be thickest
Select one:
just after sunrise
just after it first forms
at midnight
just before sunrise
The first feeble rays of sunlight cause gentle heating of the surface that leads to mild convection. The first effect of this increased mixing of the surface air is to actually thicken the fog. The top of the fog layer rises (think of a cake in an oven). This effect will not last long however, because more vigorous convection mixes so much air that the temperature can no longer be maintained below dew point. The fog will then dissipate.
The correct answer is: just after sunrise
CASA produces documents which describe possible methods of complying with a particular regulation. These documents are known as
Select one:
WACs
AIPs
AICs
CAAPs
CAAPs are Civil Aviation Advisory Publications and contain advisory information on what CASA considers a legally defensible way of conforming to the regulation to which the CAAP refers.
The correct answer is: CAAPs
The force of lift is
Select one:
that component of the total reaction acting parallel to the relative airflow
that component of the total reaction acting at right angles to the chord line of the wing
the combined effect of all of the aerodynamic forces acting on an aircraft
that component of the total reaction acting at right angles to the relative airflow
The total reaction acts at a point on the chord line [called the centre of pressure]. That component of the total reaction which acts at right angles to the relative airflow is called lift.
The correct answer is: that component of the total reaction acting at right angles to the relative airflow
The three primary categories of error in the TEM model are -
Select one:
crew resource error, air traffic control error and ground handling error
loss of heading control, loss of attitude control and loss of airspeed control
navigational error, radio frequency error, navaid error
aircraft handling errors, procedural errors and communication errors
According to CAAP 5.59 13.3.1, the three classifications of error are:
aircraft handling errors - occur while interacting with the aircraft
procedural errors - occur while using checklists, following company SOPs etc
communication errors - occur while communicating with ATC, other crew members
The correct answer is: aircraft handling errors, procedural errors and communication errors
What should you check during the take off run?
Select one:
Correct functioning of the engine.
Passenger seat belts.
Full, free and correct movement of the flight controls.
Tyre pressures.
CAR 245 (1) you need to satisfy yourself that the engine and associated items of equipment are functioning correctly within the permissible levels of performance.
The correct answer is: Correct functioning of the engine.
Which of the following would be classified as an external threat?
Select one:
health and fitness
pilot fatigue
pressure to meet timetables
lack of familiarity with other crew members
External threats originate from the environment in which the aircraft is operating and are outside of the operator's or pilot's control. Internal threats on the other hand are those the pilot brings with them into the cockpit (physiologically or psychologically).
Therefore, fatigue, state of health and fitness and familiarity with other crew members are examples of internal threats.
Pressure to meet timetables is an external threat to the safety of the flight and is probably also coupled with an organisational threat (bad scheduling).
The correct answer is: pressure to meet timetables
The somatogravic illusion [falsely identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb], is most likely to be encountered -
Select one:
during a go -around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually
during an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night
during and just after take -off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night
just after the transition from instrument to visual flight
A somatogravic illusion will be most intense when the pilot has no visual reference to conflict with the sensations coming from the inner ear. Therefore visual flight will help keep the pilot from becoming disoriented.
The somatogravic illusion will be most likley encountered during take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night. The worst part is the pilot may sense a pitch up due to the rapid acceleration and attempt to lower the nose. This will increase the speed even more thus aggravating the illusion.
If a pilot continues to follow their senses rather than the instruments, the aircraft may actually suffer controlled flight into terrain (CFIT).
The correct answer is: during and just after take -off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night
If the centre of gravity of an aircraft is beyond the aft limit, the aircraft may
Select one:
become unstable in roll
become too stable in pitch
be unable to maintain the required climb gradient
become unstable in pitch
An aft centre of gravity can generate such a strong nose-up moment that the elevator may be unable to prevent the nose from pitch up uncontrollably. This condition is very likely to result in a tragic accident.
The correct answer is: become unstable in pitch
An example of an expected threat is
Select one:
thunderstorms forecast on the TAF
becoming lost in flight
engine failure in flight
being diverted in flight by ATC
Diversions, getting lost and engine failures are all events which will occur unexpectedly in a flight. They are unexpected threats. On the other hand, the TAF has informed you of thunderstorms forecast at your destination. The thunderstorms are defintely a threat but you know they are likely to be there so they are not unexpected.
The correct answer is: thunderstorms forecast on the TAF
While taxiing to the runway you notice the tower is flashing a red light at you. You should:
Select one:
give way to all traffic.
return to your starting point on the airport.
taxi clear of the landing area and check your radio.
stop immediately.
A flashing red light from the tower means you should taxi clear of the landing area. If a tower is using the signal lamps to contact you, they mustn't be unable to contact you by radio. You should therefore check your radio equipment and frequency settings. (AIP ENR 1.5 14.1 & 14.2 or see your VFG)
The correct answer is: taxi clear of the landing area and check your radio.
You are given a special VFR clearance by the controller at Sunshine Coast (YBSU) airport. What are the VMC requirements associated with that clearance?
Select one:
You must remain clear of cloud with an in-flight visibility of not less than 1600ft.
You must maintain 500ft below cloud, 1000ft above cloud and 1600m visibility.
You must remain clear or cloud, maintain an in-flight visibility of no less than 1600m
You must remain clear of cloud with 5000m visibility.
Special VFR is described in AIP ENR 1.2 1.2 or see your VFG.
The correct answer is: You must remain clear or cloud, maintain an in-flight visibility of no less than 1600m
Providing the aerofoil does not reach the stalling angle, an increase in angle of attack at constant airspeed will always produce
Select one:
less lift and less drag
more lift and more drag
more lift and less drag
less lift and more drag
When operating at angles below the stalling angle, an increase in angle of attack produces a stronger total reaction, both lift and drag increase.
The correct answer is: more lift and more drag
Mismanaged threats usually lead to
Select one:
errors which are then linked to undesired aircraft states
diversion from standard operating procedures
aircraft handling errors which then lead to environmental errors
undesired aircraft states which are then linked to errors
The typical timeline of events is unmanaged Threats leading to Errors which may result in an Undesired Aircraft State (UAS). If an undesired aircraft state is not correctly managed, it results in an Outcome which may be an accident or incident.
It is also possible a threat will lead directly to an undesired aircraft state (e.g. severe turbulence causing a dramatic loss of altitude)
The correct answer is: errors which are then linked to undesired aircraft states
The pilot of an aircraft in level flight increases the speed from just above the stalling speed to maximum level flight cruising speed. This would cause the induced drag to
Select one:
decrease then increase
increase then decrease
increase continuously
decrease continuously
Induced drag is greatest at low speed and it continuously decreases as speed is increased.
The correct answer is: decrease continuously
A landing climb weight limit applying to an aircraft considers the aircraft’s ability to
Select one:
climb at a specified climb gradient under the ambient conditions and in the landing configuration.
climb during final if the approach becomes too low
safely stop in the available landing distance
manoeuvre on final if it becomes necessary
A landing climb weight limit is concerned only with the possibility of a go around. It ensures the aircraft will be able to climb at a specified gradient under the ambient conditions. It is based on the aircraft’s ability to climb while still in the landing configuration [full flap and landing gear down].
The correct answer is: climb at a specified climb gradient under the ambient conditions and in the landing configuration.
The average time of useful consiousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 20 000 ft is closest to
a. 1 minute
b. 3 minutes
c. 20 minutes
d. 10 minutes
Effective Performance Times
20 000 feet 10 minutes
25 000 feet 3 minutes
30 000 feet 1 minute
The best lift/drag ratio is acvheived by flying at:
a. the lowest possible airspeed where the least disturbance to the airflow occurs
b. at a medium angle of attack where the required lift is accompanied by the least drag
c. the stalling angle of attack where maximum lift is being generated
d. the smallest possible angle of attack where minimum drag is being produced
In level flight, the force of lift is not negotiable, it must equal weight. The value of lift / drag therefore, must be the greatest when drag is least. The best lift/drag ratio occurs at the speed where total drag is least.
at a medium angle of attack where the required lift is accompanied by the least drag
When suffering from hypoxia at high level in an unpressurised aircraft, why do you not feel like you are suffocating ?
The levels of carbon dioxide in the blood will remain constant and it is the increase in carbon dioxide level which triggers feelings of suffocation. The dropping levels of oxygen in the blood do not trigger a reaction even though the brain is becoming progressively hypoxic.
in the absence of physical exertion, there is no change in the carbon dioxide level in the blood so the brain does not respond
A pilot's tolerance to high G loads would not be increased by:
a. adopting a more erect seating position
b. adopting a more reclined seating position
c. tensing of the stomach muscles just before the onset of, and during the G load
adopting a more erect seating position
A reclined seating position means there is less of an uphill for the heart the pump the blood against. Compare that to an upright sitting position where the heart is pushing blood vertically. Sitting upright will definitely not increase your g-tolerence.
If the centre of gravity of an aircraft is beyond the forward limit, the aircraft may...
a. become too stable in roll
b. become unstable in pitch
c. be unable to fly wings-level
d. become too stable in pitch
If the centre of gravity is too far forward, the aircraft will resist any change in attitude - especially in pitch. The pilot will notice that the elevator control feels unusually 'heavy'.
become too stable in pitch
