Rotation Tid Bits Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Rosacea description and treatment

A

adult acne -> metrogel (metronidazole) -> can cause rhinophyma (inappropriately attributed to alcoholism)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Oxybutinin - MOA and use

A

muscarinic receptor antagonist -> used for overactive bladder (loss of bladder control, urge incontinence) by reducing detrusor muscle tone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Triamcinolone

Trazadone

Tramadol

Toradol

A

Triamcinolone - steroid used for redness, itching, swelling of skin… betamethasone is stronger

Trazadone - serotonin antagonist and reuptake inhibitor - used as sleep aid.

Tramadol - opiod analgesic - round the clock treatment

Toradol (ketorolac) - strong NSAID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Anastrazole

Trastuzumab

A

A - aromatase inhibitor used for breast cancer prophylaxis - comes with side effects (bone weakness, BPH, gynecomastia, hypogonadism signs, stroke heart attack inflammation) *remember aromatization is increased in adipose tissue

T - HER2 antagonist “herceptin” - can cause cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is a good rule of thumb for wound care management?

A

if its wet dry it

if its dry wet it - diabetic wounds get debridement, vasaline, foam protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

stroke work up?

A
CT -> MRI
HbA1c
Lipids
Tele
Echo w/ bubble study
Carotid U/S
Swallow Study / SLP - PT/OT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Plaquenil

Synthroid

A

P - hydroxychloroquine - treats and prevents malaria, lupus, RA, Porphyria Cutanea Tarda, photodermatidis - macular degeneration possible…accumulates in lysosomes increasing pH decreases proteolysis and immune function

S - levothyroxine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

whats a clinical sign of spinal stenosis? differentiate from herniated disc…

A

shopping cart sign = stenosis

herniated disc = dont like leaning forward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

PreOperative Exam

A

FAIL IF —

CHF EF 20%
LFTs - bili > 2, PT >16, ammonia >150
Recent weight loss
DKA is absolute contraindication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Levoquin

A

levoflaxacin - flouroquinolone - topoII inhibitor - broad spec - achilles tendon rupture / tendonitis and QTc prolongation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Provigil

Flexeril

Gabapentin

A

P = Modafinil - not clearly understood action - unlike amphetamines - seems to inhibit dopamine reuptake - astronauts and military and narcolepsy …used for narcolepsy, shift work disorder, daytime sleepiness, OSA

F - cyclobenzaprine - muscle relaxant - causes sleepiness, not good to use while driving a car …antagonist at histamine, serotonin, and muscarinic receptors

G - brand name is neurontin - anticonvulsant/analgesic - originally made for epilepsy but also treats neuropathic pain and RLS (diabetic neuropathy, post herpetic neuralgia, central neuropathic pain) ..structurally analogous to GABA … pregabalin is lyrica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which increases PO4? vitD or PTH?

A

VitD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

decreasing microalbuminuria…

A

ACEi (renal protective) -> CCB #2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

first line in edema

A

Lasix - furosemide - loop diuretic … first line in edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what’s something that can cause BC failure?

Mirena

Skylaa

Copper IUD (Paragaurd)

Nexplanon

A

birth control failure is caused by antibiotic treatment, grapefruit

M - 5 years - levonorgestrel - amenorrhea

S - 3 years - levonorgestrel - amenorrhea

C - 10 years - no hormones - bleeding spotting pads check bhCG if no splitting

N - bleed alot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

“cradle cap”

A

seborrheic dermatitis - skin flaking

vs

seborrheic keratosis - brown coin like age spots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Symbicort

A

budesonide and formoterol - steroid and LABA -> asthma, COPD treatment… cant use LABA alone because it increases mortality by masking disease progression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
CKD stages
1
2
3A
3B
4
5
A
based on GFR
1 >90
2 60-89
3A 45-59
3B 30-44
4 15-29
5  <15
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

cockcroft gault eq for estimating Crc

A

(140-Age)Mass(Kg)0.85(if female) / 72*SerumCr(mg/dL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Centor Score in pharyngitis

A

estimates risk of strep pharyngitis

Age <14
Tonsils (exudate/swelling)
Cervical Nodes (tender/swelling)
Fever
Lack of Cough**
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Droperidole

A

antidopaminergic - antiemetic/antipsychotic - neuroleptic/analgesic

QTc prolongation / torsades de pointes / extrapyramidal side effects

haldol family knocks em out “drop-eridole”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

ketorolac

A

NSAID - Toradol is brand name

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

weight gain in pregnancy

A

1-5 lbs in first trimester

1 lbs per week therafter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Requip

Mirapex

Reglan

Zantac

Zofran

Phenergan

Imodium

A

Requip - Ropinerole - nonergot dopamine agonist - Parkinson’s disease treatment

Mirapex - Pramipexole - nonergot dopamine agonist - Parkinson’s, RLS

Reglan - metoclopramide - D2 receptor antagonist - anti-emetic, gastroparesis, nausea / vomiting, GERD

Zantac - ranitidine - H2 receptor blocker - GERD

Zofran - odansetron - 5HT-3 receptor antagonist - antiemetic

Phenergan - promethazine - first generation anti-histamine - nausea vomiting motion sickness, neuroleptic/ treat insomnia where benzos are contraindicated

Imodium - loperamide - opiod u-receptors but doesn’t cross BBB - anti-diarrheal (causes constipation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Creon

Fentanyl

Byetta n Victoza

Saxenda

A

Creon - pancrelipase - delayed release pancreatic enzyme capsules for patients with pancreatic insufficiency

Fentanyl - opiod pain reliever

Byetta / Victoza - exenatide / liraglutide - GLP-1 agonist - stimulates insulin release - used for weight loss and diabetes… injectable drugs (thyroid cancer risk? pancreatitis risk?)

Saxenda - liraglutide - but for weight loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Topimax

Demadex

Lasix

Bumex

Colace

Demerol

A

Topimax - topiramate “dope a max” - seizure / migraine prophylaxis - complex mechanism of action - sodium channels, calcium channels, GABA-a receptors, CA inhibitions

Demadex - Torsemide - loop diuretic - treats fluid retention, works well with Lasix

Lasix - Furosemide - loop

Bumex - stronger loop diuretic

Colace - docusate - stool softener - allows more water to be absorbed by feces - laxative to treat constipation - useful in children with hard feces,

Demerol - meperidine - narcotic / opiod pain reliever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Diabetic Foot Wounds

A

debride

vasaline, Lubriderm (grease em up)

get rid of edema

protect feet from trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

simethicone

A

oral anti-foaming agent used to reduce bloating, discomfort or pain caused by excessive gas…aka Gas-X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

does albumin help furosemide diurese patients?

A

its helpful in patients with hypoalbuminemia due to nephrotic syndrome - it is able to increase oncotic pressure and thus GFR leading to increased diuresis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Zosyn

Levaquin

A

Zosyn - piperacillin / tazobactam - penicillin with b-lactamase inhibitor…. similar to ampicillin/sulbactam or amoxacillin/clavulanic acid (augmentin) - good for pseudomonas

Levoquin - levofloxacin - fluroquinolone - antibiotic, same class as ciprofloxacin… gram negatives, topo2 inhibitors, tendon rupture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Abilify

Zoloft

Buspar

A

Abilify - aripiprazole - one of the most highly grossing US drugs by sales, can cause tardive diskinesia while or after discontinuing drugs and can cause metabolic syndrome

Zoloft - sertraline - incidence of diarrhea is higher than with other SSRIs, other SEs include - nausea, trembling, sexual dysfunction and weight gain.

Buspar - buspirone - anxiolytic psychotrpoic drug, can cause dizziness, headache, somnolence, premature ejaculation (may be used to counter the effects of SSRIs) binds serotonin and dopamine receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Parkinsons vs Schizophrenia … whos got the dopamine?

A

Parkinsons - not enough dopamine

Schizo - too much dopamine… (antipsychotics can cause extrapyramidal side effects)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Requip

Symmetrel

Senna

A

Ropinerol - parkinsons - nonergot dopamine agonist- for Parkinson’s / RLS…can cause hallucinations (think schizo..)

Symmetrel - Amantadine - NMDA receptor antagonist / Influenza M2 Protein inhibitor… parkinson’s and parkinson’s like syndromes

Senna - Senocot - Ex-Lax - tree bark

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Heparin

LMWHs

Fondaparinux

A

Heparin - binds and potentiates antithrombin (AT) to increase inactivation of Xa and prevent the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin - half life 45 mins. Protamine Sulfate Reversible. Monitor PTT for IV drip

LMWHs - Lovenox - enoxaparin - same as heparin but a longer lasting effect on factor Xa - less likely to bind to other stuff (plasma proteins, endothelial cells), longer half life 4-5 hrs. Protamine Sulfate Reversible

Fondaparinux - direct Xa inhibitor - enhances the activity of AT 300 fold, no direct effect on thrombin. 17-21 hours. Not reversible… can use with HIT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Diagnosing neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

elevated WBCs and CPK (due to increased muscle activity and rhabdo)

S/S - hyperthermia, confusion, diaphoresis, rigidity, autonomic imbalance… (similar to parkinson’s crisis)

People with Lewy Body Dementia are at risk - careful using neuroleptics in this population.

Caused - by dopamine receptor blockade…

Tx - Dantrolene to reduce muscle rigidity, bromocriptine (dopamine agonist), Amantidine (dopaminergic and anticholinergic properties), aggressive hydration with diuresis may be required (to resuscitate the kidneys)

cyproheptadine for serotonin syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Seroquel

A

Quetiapine - (qwi tia peen) atypical antipsychotic - treats schizo, bipolar, depression, makes em go night night… also used for parkinson’s psychosis due to lowextrapyrimidal side effects (often used before clozapine)

QTc prolongation, sedation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are some of the things to consider when using steroids … especially high dose?

A

blood sugar spikes and the need for insulin… long term you’ll need stress doses, weens, and caution for osteoporosis / cushings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Wheezes vs Crackles vs. Rales vs. Rhonchi vs. Rubs

A

“Inspiratory crackles, expiratory wheezes”

wheezes rhonchi (coarse wheezes) and rales (crackles)

Wheezes - constriction from asthma or bronchitis, obstruction, narrowed airways, diffuse in asthma/bronchospasm, local in tumor or FB (foreign body)

Crackles -rales - fluid, pneumonia, sound of the lung popping open from inspiration.

Rhonchi - snoring - low pitched gurgling liguid, inflammation, drownings, agonal states

Rubs - pleural friction, like crackling of new leather, either of both phases of respiration, ephemeral rubs may accompany pain, may disappear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Hospital Discharge Criteria

A

Completed Courses of IV therapy, No longer in need of diagnostic / therapeutic interventions, Place to discharge to…

Medication Reconcilliation,
Education for Patient,
Discharge Summary given to future providers.
Follow Up Care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What do you worry about in alcohol withdrawl? what’s the time frame in which concern is highest?

A

delerium tremens - tremors, hallucinations, anxiety, and disorientation - 72 hours - rule out electrolyte abnormalities (K and Mg) and vitamin deficiencies (Thiamine)

things to ask the patient…

  1. last drink/how often
  2. hospital visits
  3. seizures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Etoh Mechanism of Action

A

alcohol descreases sensitivity to GABA (cus when you drink you increase GABA so you body responds by gettin rid of it’s GABA response).. then when you stop drinking… the activity in your CNS cannot be stopped because you can’t respond to natural GABA (excess unregulated tone/excitation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

CIWA - Clinical Institude Withdrawl Assessment tool

A

for seizure precautions, ten item scored scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Banana Bags

A

thiamine, folic acid, and 3 grams of MgSO4… plus multivitamins… used to replenish nutritional deficiencies or correct chemical imbalances.

  • Mg deficiency in ICU
  • Terminal Illness (as Mg can mitigate nerve pain and cramps)
  • Alcoholics (who benefit from the thiamine, or chronic alche’s who benefit from B1 and Mg)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Asterixis

Disdiadokinesia

Tenesmus

A

A -liver flap, hepatic encephalopathy via ammonia and urea. - caused by diencephalon motor centers being disrupted

D - unable to perform repeated actions, cerebellar ataxia or cerebrum, other cerebellar dyfunctions include (ataxia, intention tremor, and dysarthria

T - recurrent or continual inclination to evacuate bowels or bladder despite being empty…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Lower Back Pain - RED FLAGS

A

Cauda equina - loss of function of the lumbar plexus -> severe LBP, saddle anesthesia, loss of bowel/bladder, weakness/paraplegia… caused by trauma, spinal stenosis,, inflammation.

Loss of bowel/bladder

Fever

Persistent Neurologic Loss

Cancer

Unexplained weight loss

Nocturnal Pain / Recent Weight Loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Intermittent Neurogenic Claudication

A

a spinal stenosis sign

symptomatic with extension. relieved by flexion (shopping cart sign).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Cockkroft-Gault

A

eCcr = eGFR = 140-Age x Kg x 0.85 (female) / 72-Serumcr

Serumcr - higher if: kidney cannot filter or there’s lots of muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Pinguecula vs Pterygium

A

Pinguecula - yellow deposit of fat, protein or Ca+ near the limbus due to excessive UV light exposure… more common in hispanics

Pterygium - mebranous changes and tissue overgrowth that can cross the limbus… “surfer’s / farmer’s eye”

Complication only if crossing the iris field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

CHADS2VASc score is? determines risk for? in what population?

HASBLEDD score is? determines risk for? in what population?

A

Risk of Thrombosis / Stroke

CHF
HTN
Age > 75? (2 points)
DM
Strokes/TIA? (stroke is worth 2 points) 
Vascular Dx (PVD, CAD, MI, aortic plaque)
Age 65-74
Sex - Female

Risk of Bleeding (intracranial bleeds), hospitalization, hemoglobin dz, transfusion in pts. with A.Fib

HTN 
Abnormal renal / liver fnct (2)
Stroke
Bleeding
Labile INRs
Elderly (2)
Drugs/alcohol
*all others worth one point.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

CBI…

A

continuous bladder irrigation - for potential urethral obstruction such as a blood clot…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

people with polycythemia vera tend to develop which conditions?

A

vWF disease - most common coagulopathy - caused by reduced vWF ( a multimeric protein required for platelet adhesion ) often presents with nosebleeds, bruising, bleeding gums, long periods..

increased risk of AML - acute myelogenous leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

compartment syndrome

A

increased pressure in a body space, particularly a forearm or leg… often presents with

paresthesias. ..
pulseless. ..
pain. ..
paralysis. ..
pallor. ..

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

hydralazine

A

direct arteriolar dilator -> treats hypertension often causes bottoming out.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Protonix

Aggrenox

Plavix

A

P - pantoprazole- PPI

A - aspirin+dipyramidole - Cox Inhibitor + PDE5 inhibitor (blocks prostaglandins required for platelet aggregation)

P - clopidogrel - P2Y12 inhibitor - prevents ATP binding and platelet aggregations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what are the signs of a hip fracture?

A

shorter leg, externally rotated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what is an oral alternative to vancomycin?

A

linezolid (Zyvox) - expensive - vanco is for gram (+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

how do you reverse coumadin?

A

vitamin K + FFP….. if starting coumadin bridge with lovenox (enoxaparin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

SIRS criteria

qSOFA

A

systemic inflammatory response syndrome - pick two

36>T>38
Tachy >90
Tachy >20
WBCs >

qSOFA

  • Change in Mental Status
  • Tachypnea >22
  • SBP <100
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Aztreonam

A

the big guns - UTI, Pseudomonas - synthetic monocyclic beta-lactam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Causes of elevated troponins

A

long standing angina, kidney dz, pneumonia, CHF, DKA .. etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Epworth Sleepiness Scale

A

ESS - self administered questionare - asks people about chances of dozing off in certain situations - helps diagnose sleep disorders (sleep apnea and narcolepsy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Alcohol Withdrawal Timeline

A

alcohol intially enhances GABA but later it suppressed GABA (or decreases sensitivity to GABA)…also suppresses activity of glutamate (excitability)… in response the glutamate system responds by functioning at far higher levels to maintain equilibrium -> increased activity of glutamate and where alcohol acts like GABA… therefore when you pull out the alcohol the inhibitor element of the system is lost -> over excitation

6-12 hours anxiety
12-24 hours hallucinations, seizures
24-48 hours withdrawal seizures become less likely
48-72 hours DTs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what is a unique sign of chronic alcohol abuse?

A

atrophy of the thenar and hypothenar eminence from nutritional deficiency (also consider neuropathy from nutritional deficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what does every ACLS patient get? VOMIT

A
vitals
O2
monitor
IV/IO
Transport
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what does every hospital patient get?

A

IV fluids
Diet
DVT prophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

serum free light chains?

oligoclonal bands in CSF?

A

SFLC - monitors plasma cell dyscrasias - multiple myeloma and primary amyloidosis

OCBs - suggests MS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

side effect of angiotensin receptor blockers?

A

angioedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what are some important post-operative considerations

A

Pain
Gas/Bowel Movements
Infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

PVD - arterial vs venous insufficiency

A

90% caused by atherosclerosis - chronic and progressive

Stages
1 - asymptomatic - bruits, aneurysm, physical exam
2 - claudication - limp/pain with motion/exercise
3 - resting pain wakes you up
4 - necrosis/gangrene

venous - pain is relieved with elevation, thick skin, significant edema, stasis dermatitis

arterial - pain at rest, relieved by motion, thin skin, pulses diminished, little or no edema, hypotrichosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

6 “Ps” of PVD

A
pain
paresthesia
pallor
pulses changes
poikilothermia
paralysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Carvidolol use

Metoprolol use

A

carvidolol - BP control

metoprolol - HR control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what is the utility of tapping a chronic pleural effusion?

A

nothing a chronic Pleural effusion will simply re-effuse due to the fibrosis and pulling of the lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Jaw Claudication

A

one of the specific signs of temporal arteritis -> associated syndrome is Polymyalgia Rheumatica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what is clobetasol and its use?

A

clobetasol - glucocorticoid used for eczema and psoriasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what causes a cough only at night?

A

GERD or Asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what are the two situations of use for a living will?

A

terminally ill

persistent veggitative state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

AM Stiffness

PM Stiffness

A

AM - inflammatory - RA

PM - mechanical - OA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

CCP

A

cyclic citrullinated peptide - RA - a little bit better

rheumatoid factor - not very specifc - never choose this on a test.

usually start with inflammatory factors - ESR, CRP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

seronegative arthopathies

A

ankylosing spondylitis

reiter’s syndrome

enteropathic arthritis

psoriatic arthritis

Behcet’s disease

juvenile idiopathic arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

anti-synthetase

A

dermatomyositis - predilection for lung fibrosus (shawl sign, heliotrope rash, gottrons papules) .. often associated with cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Migraine Rx

A

propranolol, tryptans, topimax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what are the s/s of hypoglycemia spells, when is it important to ask about this?

A

hungry, dizzy, sweating

when they are on diabetic meds.. they get all.. hypoglycemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Side Effect of CCBs

A

“dipine” amlodipine/nicardipine/nifedipine”

decreases HR increases Fluid retention - CCB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

what can happen after 3 or more years of metformin therapy?

A

vitamin B12 deficiency, lactice acidosis in renal disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

what are the top 3 causes of peripheral neuropathy?

A

DM,
B12 (includes etoh),
Thyroid (hypo/er)

…heavy metals…

Agent Orange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Fosamax

Evista

Prolia

Remeron

Cymbalta

A

F - alendronic acid - prevents/treats osteoporosis, paget’s disease of bone - bisphosphonate - can cause osteonecrosis of the jaw.

E - Raloxifene - SERM - treats osteoporosis (increased estrogen play)… se- hotflashes, leg cramps, blood clots (dvt,pe), teratogen

P - Denosumab - osteoporosis, tx induced bone loss, bone mets, MM, giant cell tumor of bone… joint / muscle pain (binds and inhibits RANKL)

R - mirtazapine - NaSSA (noradrenergic, specific serotinergic antidepressant) - depression, anxiolytic, hypnotic, anti-emetic, appetite stimulant - SEs - somnolence, weight gain, dry mouth, constipation

C - duloxetine - SNRI - MDD - sexual dysfunction, anorgasmia, sleep disruption.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

what are normal lung sounds in the apices?

… lower lobes?

A

apices - bronchovesicular (equal inspiratory / expiratory phase) at 1/2 interspaces anteriorly, bronchial over sternum (longer expiratory phase)

lower lobes - vesicular (longer through inspiration, fade through expiration).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

granuloma annulare

A

rare - benign, unknown causes, Tx - steroids/UV light - can be confused with tinea corporis … may be associated with autoimmune conditions or neoplastic disease however loose, treatment if often futile and lasts 2-10 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

what is a side effect of DDP-4 inhibitors?

A

“exenatide and luraglutide” - joint pain, not as effective as GLP1 analogs “-gliptins”

DDP-4 is an enzyme that inactivates GLP1 (a protein that would otherwise go on to stimulate insulin release)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Finasteride, Dutasteride

Doxazosin, Prazosin, Tamsulosin

A

F (Propecia)/D (Avodart) - 5-alpha reductase inhibitor - BPH/alopecia - decrease conversion of T to DHT -> decrease in prostate size

D, P, T - alpha-1-selective blocking agent - used for HTN and urinary retention associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Cutera veins

Reticular veins

Varicose veins

Spider Talengiectasias

A

small blue varicosities

medium blue varicosities

large blue varicositiesplugged up

spider talengiectasias - like a spider, red though, associated with cirrhosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

epulis

epithelioma

cold water osteoma

A

epulis - enlargement of the gingiva, can be caused by pregnancy

epithelioma - hyperplasia of the epithelium

osteoma - common in swimmers/divers, little white flecks in the external auditory meatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Aortic Stenosis symptoms

A

dyspnea
syncope with exertion
chest pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Types of incontinence - SURF

A

stress - increased abdominal pressure - d/t weakened pelvic floor m.s … kegals

urge - aka overactive bladder - d/t damage to bladder nerves, nervouse system, muscles - stroke, parkinsons, diabetes, MS … oxybutinin

retention/overflow - bph, weak detrusor tone, tumors / obstruction, constipation … 5aReductase inhibitors, A1 antagonists

functional - can’t make it to the bathroom in time - physical problems (arthritis) or dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Vesicular

Bronchial

Bronchovesicular

Amorphic

Asthmatic

Cogwheel

A

V - long inspiratory, bases

B - long expiratory, sternum

B - equal insp/exp, 1-2 interspaces

A - blowing air over a pop bottle like

A - long expieratory, wheezes

C - pauses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Whipered Pectoriloquoy

Bronchophony

Egophony

A

W - atelectasis/pneumonia/consolidation (sounds louder)

B - increased sound of syllables

E - E sounds like A ***Best PE test for consolidation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Risk Factors of Osteoporosis

A
Low Peak Bone Mass
Old Age - Loss of Osteoclasts
Sex Steroid Hormone Loss
Atherosclerosis
decreased activity/ weight bearing / fall risk

Glucocorticoids -> decrease T/E production -> loss of serum Ca and increased PTH

Glucocorticoids -> activation of clasts, inhibition of blasts, decreased VEGF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Diagnosis of Osteoporosis

A

FRAX score - fracture risk score - 10 year risk calculator, includes dxa scan… (prior fragility fx, parental hx, tobacco/alchol, steroid use, RA…)

DXA - Dual enery x-ray absorptiometry scan and serum vitamin D

0 - -1 at risk

-1 -> -2.5 or fragility fx = osteopenia mean and FRAX >3% chance of hip fx, or 20% any fracture

> -2.5 = osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Drugs that cause osteoporosis

A

steroids

heparin

antiepileptics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q
Alendronate
Zolendronic Acid
Denosumab
Raloxifen
Teriperitide
A

A - oral, poor absorption - causes osteonecrosis of Jaw (especially with hx of cancer/radiation)

Z - IV if cannot tolerate oral, convenient but hard to reverse…osteonecrosis

D - Ab to RANKL, increases susceptibility to infection

R - SERM - decreases risk of breast cancer, SE- thrombosis, hot flashes

T - PTH, $, subq, adverse effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Lunesta

Ambien

Sonata

A

L - eszopiclone
A - zolpidem
S - zaleplon

  • non benzo hypnotics -
  • SE - hang over, falling asleep while driving… somewhat addictive, increased risk of depression?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Aricept

Namenda

Exelon

Razadyne

A

A - donepezil - centrally acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitor, palliative tx of Alzheimer’s (increases acetylcholine in cerebral cortex), 70 hour half life, SE - GI upset

N - memantine - NMDA receptor blocker -> decreased glutamate toxicity, can cause dissociative anesthesia at supratherapeutic doses (like phencyclidine - PCP)… also acts on a bunch of other receptors.

E - rivastigmine -parasympathomimetic / cholinergic - tx Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s dementia…can be used in patch form

R - galantamine - vascular dementia and Alzheimer’s - GI symptoms,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Obtunded vs Psychogenic Sleepiness

A

Obtunded - raise their arm, let it drop, it will hit them in the face; their eye lids will open easily

Sleepy - they will not let the arm hit their head; they will not let you open their eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Compliance vs Elasticity

A

deltaV/deltaP

Elasticity is the force emptying the lung - lost in obstructive lung disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

what lab value do you watch to trend DKA?

A

anion gap… want it closed, order BMP q 3 hours, glucose stick q 1hr, until resolved. insulin drip with fluids fluids fluids… ketone of choice to follow response to Tx…beta-hydroxybutyrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

DKA vs HHS/HHNK

A

DKA - ketoacidosis and hyperglycemia, fruity breath, kussmaul respirations, high anion gap metabolic acidosis

most commonly caused by infection or discontinuation of insulin therapy

S/S - both present with lethargy/obtunded, severe abdominal pain, coma, volume depletion… in acute distress*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Kussmaul Respirations

vs

Cheyne Stokes

A

Kussmaul - deep compensatory breathing seen in DKA

Cheyne Stokes - tachypnea and apnea cycles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

anion gap equation

A

Anion Gap = Sodium - (chloride + bicarb)

…usually greater than 20mEq/L if in DKA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Mobile

vs

Motile

A

mobile - moves

moTile - moves by iTself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Hyperacusis

Presbycusis

Presbyopia

A

H - oversensitivity to a certain range of sounds

P - age related hearing loss

P - age related vision loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Rapid acting

Short acting

Intermediate acting

Long acting

…insulin

A

Rapid - Novolog (aspart), Humalog (lispro)

Short - Humulin, Novolin (regular insulin)

Intermediate - Humulin, Novolin (NPH insulin)

Long - Lantus (glargine), Levemir (detemir)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Metalozone

Dyazide

A

M - thiazide like diuretic - treats CHF and HTN, can be used with loop diuretics but watch out for dehydration and electrolyte disturbances

D - hydrochlorothiazide+triamterene - thiazide diuretic + potassium sparing diuretic … also prevents Ca release into urine preventing kidney stones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

which diuretics cause K loss?

A

loops
thiazides
osmotic diuresis (uncontrolled diabetes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

which diuretics cause K gain?

A

ACEs ARBs, NSAIDS, COX-2 inhibitors, heparin, tacrolimus (block aldosterone production)

spironolactone, eplerenone - aldosterone receptor antagonists (can be combined with loops and thiazides to counter K loss)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Small Fiber Neuropathy

A

damage to small unmyelinated peripheral nerves “C-fibers” skin, peripheral nerves, and organ… these nerves help control autonomic function

“polyneuropathy” - usually starting in longer nerves and progressively attack shorter nerves (thus they start in distal extremities)

many causes, no cure, sometimes they try IVIG or plasmapheresis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

lewy body dementia triad

A

fluctuating cognition
parkinsonism
hallucinations - that are nice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

who would you get a consult from for post stroke driving status?

A

occupational therapists can help with that.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Grading Strength 0-5

A
0 paralysis
1 visible contraction
2 ROM without Gravity
3 ROM only Gravity
4 decreased strength
5 normal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Grading Edema 1-4

A

+1 - Trace - 2 mm rapid return to normal
+2 - Mild - 4mm indentation, rebound few seconds
+3 - Mod - 6mm indentation, 10-20s
+4 - Sev - 8mm indentation, >30s

  • *also always check peripheral pulses and capillary refill
  • *note hair loss for determining length of edema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Grading Pulses 0-4

A
0 absent
1 weak
2 normal
3 strong
4 bounding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Mallampati Score

A

can be done with or without phonation but advise that this will change the interpretation

Class 1 - complete visualization of soft palate
Class 2 - uvula dips behind tongue
Class 3 - visualize only the base on the uvula
Class 4 - no visualization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Grading Reflexes 0-4

A
0 absent even with reinforcement
1 present only with reinforcement
2 normal
3 brisk
4 hyperactive/sustained with clonus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

what does a good drug accomplish?

A

decreased…
mortality
hospital stay

increased…
quality of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

what vaccine is important for people with heart disease?

A

flu vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

angioedema is a side effect of which medication?

A

acei’s arb’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

why’s bactrim bad for old people?

A

TMP/SMX

more senstive to its effects - skin reactions, bone marrow problems, or high potassium…

can have supratheraputic blood levels due to loss of renal capacity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

what is procalcitonin and why is it clinically significant?

A

precursor to calcitonin released by the thyroid parafollicular cells -> rises in response to infection especially of bacterial origin, best studied in respiratory conditions like pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

at what CRP level would you expect infection?

A

CRP > 120 likely bacterial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Spiriva

Atrovent

Combivent

Dulera

Symbicort

A

S - Tiotropum - anticholinergic

A - Ipratropium - anticholinergic

**COPD and asthma - less severe anticholinergic SEs than oral…include dry mouth sedation..headache

C - Ipratropium with Albuterol

D - Mometasone / formoterol - steroid and long acting b-agonist - COPD

S - budesonide / formoterol - similar to dulera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Acapella

A

a rehabilitative breathing device for bronchitis and for clearing mucous secretions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

how to treat COPD exacerbations?

A

prednisone 40-50mg q5 days and Abx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

DDx for inborn disorders of hypercoagulability

A

factor 5 leiden - resistent to cleavage by protein C which encourages clotting, 6% of white people, rare in others.

protein C&S deficieny

AT3 deficiency - inactivates thrombin, selective proteinuria in nephrotic syndrome.

Antiphospholipid syndrome - placental ischemia and multiple miscarriages is the presenting sign. lupus anticoag, anti-b2-glyocoprotein-1 or anti-cardiolipin

hyperhomocysteinemia - increases coagulability

increased fibrinogen / d-dimers

malignancy

CHF / A.Fib

Obesity

Varicositiy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Fentanyl

Dilaudid

Percocet

Lortab

Demerol

A

In Descending potency

D - hydromorphone - very potent opiod - more potent than morphine

F - potent opiod with rapid onset and short duration - 80-100x more potent than morphine, transdermal patch in chronic pain tx - SE: diarrhea, nausea, constipation, dry mouth, somnolence, confusion, asthenia (weakness)

P - oxycodone/paracetamol (acetominophen)

L - vicodin - hydrocodone/paracetamol (acetominophen)

D - meperidine - less potent than morphine

oxycodone and hydrocodone (codeine derived - methylated morphine) have similar properties - hydrocodone is more likely to cause constipation and stomach pain

hydromorphone (morphine derived)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

constricted pupils

dilated pupils

nystagmus

A

constrition - miosis - opiods / heroin

dilation - cocaine, decongestants / meth, weed, hallucinogens

nystagmus - PCP, inhalants, depressants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

whats the difference in presentation of an atypical migraine resulting in focal neurologic defecits and tia/stroke?

where does a pure motor stroke occur?

where does a pure sensory stroke occur?

A

onset - migraine comes on slower, stroke is immediate!

motor - internal capsule

sensory - thalamic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

what are the steroid dose equivalents?

Dexamethdasone > methylprednisone (solumedrol) > prednisone/nisolone > hydrocortisone

A

H - 20mg
P/P - 5mg
M - 4mg
D - 0.75mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

minoxidil

A

androgen induced hair loss therapy to vertex only

originally developed as a vasodilator for hypertension

side effects include may initially cause hair loss to area of application, vasodilatory effects, and hypersensitivity to the drug or vector (vehicle - alcohol/propylene glycol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

relative polycythemia

A

a type of secondary polycythemia - > apparent rise in RBCs in blood… with actual cause being reduced blood plasma.

Gaisbock syndrome - hypertension in obese men -> reduced plasma volume, especially sedentary lifestyles and high caloric intake.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Tagamet

Remeron

A

T - cimetidine - H2 blocker prevents release of HCL in stomach for GERD related ulcers

R - mirtazapine - antidepressant / antiemetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

chigger bites

A

remember what these look like - they are the little red bugs that are found in grass and crawl on you almost imperceptibly

tx - topical hydrocortisone or benadryl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

is it peripheral neuropathy?

A

if it’s painful all the time, yes

if it’s relieved by raising the feet, no, then it’s venous insufficiency -> horse chestnut extract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

herpes infections of the eye…

A

herpes zoster ophthalmicus - CNV3 distribution - a variant of shingles -

herpes simplex keratitis - geographic epithelial defects on florescien stained conjunctiva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

discoid lupus erythematosis

A

tends to prefer the face - sores with inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Diarrhea DDx in elderly person

A

Clostridium difficile

Abx associated

Norwalk / Norovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Bouchard’s nodes

Heberden’s nodes

Trigger finger

A

B - proximal interphalangial joints -

H - distal interphalangial joints - arthritis most commonly osteoarthritis, more common in women

T - a type of tenosynovitis where the flexor tendon becomes larger than the flexor retinaculum, tx - steroids x2, then surgical release of the retinaculum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

where is alk phos found / released?

A

liver, bone, intestine, placenta

if questioning do a fractionated alkphos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

what Abx for diabetic foot ulcer?

A

Levoquin - aerobics

Flagyl - anaerobics (don’t drink on dis shiz)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

what disease is associated with dermatitis herpetiformis?

A

celiac’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Doxycycline

A

not for kids for lyme disease, but yes for kids with RMSF

works as antibiotic and antiinflammatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

who are some people who don’t show fevers as well..

A

Elderly
CKD
Steroids
Tylenol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Hypertrichosis

Hypotrichosis

Hirsuitism

Alopecia Areata

Greying Hair

A

Hypertrichosis - excessive hair growth, aka Ambras syndrome - anorexia/bulimia, hypothyroid, drugs (minoxidil, phenytoin, hydrocortisone)

Hypotrichosis - may be a sign of hypopituitarism, or drugs that block testosterone

Hirsuitism - androgen mediated excess in hair, androgen secreting tumor, cushings, PCOS, late onset CAH, drugs…

Alopecia Areata - autoimmune hair loss, may accompany trachyonychia (sand paper nails), or ophiasis (wedge shaped hair loss) … commoner in children and female.. can happen to anyone at anytime

Greying Hair - age related, albinism, vitiligo, pernicious anemia, chloroquire Tx

*treatment of hair loss, locks of love, minoxidil…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Acanthosis nigricans

A

ACTH stimulates melanin production as well as melanocyte stimulating hormone…

excess androgen (cushings, acromegaly, PCOS)

insulin resistance / often obesity related - increased insulin (due to resistance -> increase IGF-1 stimulation of keratinocytes

hereditary - FGF variants

Malignancy - GI adenocarcinoma, GU cancers of prostate, breast, ovary..increased TGF -> epidermal tissue.

**acral acanthotic anomaly -> limited to elbows, knees, knuckles and dorsum of feet -> normal in the abseonce of other findings, ie healthy people.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

brown skin conditions

A

hemosiderin deposits from hemochromatosis

stasis dermatitis - brown pigmentation from venous insufficiency (gets better with elevation - tx horse chestnut extract)

acanthosis nigricans - endocrine, hereditary, benign, malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

blue skin conditions

A

Arggria - silver salts - blue gray

Ochronosis - alkaptonuria -> black accumulations due to lack of homogentisate oxidase - over pinnae, tip of nose, black extensor tendons of hands

Chrysoderma - occasional parenteral administration of gold salts in arthritis tx -> blue/grey skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

yellow skin conditions

A

Jaundice, Icterus, Bilirubinemia

Carotenemia - orange skin, mangos, apricots, carrots, green veggies.. or inability to metabolize carotene due to liver failure.. or in myxedema or DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Windkessel

A

german to english means air chamber but generally taken to mean

elastic reservoir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

ABPI

A

ankle brachial pressure index > 1.3 - 1.5 is diagnostic of PVD, medial calcific sclerosis, atherosclerosis… et al.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Panniculitis

A

inflammation of subcutaneous adipose tissue - tender skin nodules and systemic signs including weight loss and fatigue.. associated with SLE, A1AT deficiency, scleroderma, pancreatic dz,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

calciphylaxis

A

skin necrosis from ca precipitation in tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

low RDW with target cells on blood smear…

A

little variation due to genetic disease -> thallassemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

sideroblasts

A

nucleated RBCs from the marrow with iron laden mitochondria forming a ring around the nucleus due to an inability to incorporate iron into hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

high homocysteine normal methylmalonic acid (MMA)…

high homocysteine and high methylmalonic acid (MMA)…

A

folate deficiency - macrocytic, may also see hypersegmented neutrophils

vitB12 deficiency - macrocytic, may also see neurologic signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

direct bilirubin

indirect bilirubin

A

conjugated, made and comes directly from the liver, high in bile duct obstruction

if indirect / unconjugated bilirubin is high this suggests increased hemolysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

minute volume

A

the volume of gas inspired or expired from the lungs per minute… although it sounds like a measure of volume it is actually a measure of flow (v/min)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

causes of shock included

A

decreased pre load (hypovolemic)

decreased cardiac output (cardiogenic)

decreased SVR (septic/anaphylactic/drugs/toxins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

dopamine

A

10ug/kg/min - A1 agonist - vasoconstriction (^ SVR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

dobutamine

A

B1 > B2

primarily inotropic (contractility) and chronotropic (rate) stimulator

some level of vasodilation (via B2 stimulation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Plaquenil

A

P - hydroxy chloroquine - used for malaria, RA, lupus and others - can cause retinal toxicity though but verify both daily dose and lifetime exposure to calculate risk in a patient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Palindromic RA

A

RA that comes and goes and bops around to different locations…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

what is a fund and interesting treatment for vestibular dysfunction?

A

valium otherwise meclizine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Estimating TBSA for burns…

Degrees of burns - 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th

A

use rule of 9s

1st - epithelial layer 5-10 day heal time

2nd - epidermis, supeficial dermis - blisters, deeper dermis may scar, blisters

cilcoprix3rd - epidermis, dermis, subQ fat

4th - epidermis, dermis, subQ fat, mucles/tendons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

a good topical NSAID for burns or skin pain

A

Voltaren - diclofenac - also used for AKs, arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

seborrheic dermatitis

chronic actinic dermatitis

seborrheic keratosis

actinic keratosis

lentigo senilis

stasis dermatitidis

A

SD - dry flakey scaley itchey red skin inflammation, found on babies and is called cradle cap - particularly effects areas with sebaceous glands - Tx ketoconazole, ciclopirox, selsun blue

CAD - a chronic skin condition where the afflicted’s skin gets inflammed with exposure to sunlight.

SK - benign nodular pigmented lesions with “stuck on” appearance that originate in keratinocytes

AK - aka solar keratosis - precancerous patch of thick scaly or crusty skin -> form squamous cell carcinoma

LS - liver spots, solar lentigo - freckles or blemishes in the skin associated with normal aging and exposure to UV light - not actually caused by the liver or liver disease

StD - hemosiderin laden hyperpigmentation from increased extravasation and hemolysis due to venous insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Langer Lines

A

lines of tension for excisions and incisions

use 3:1 ratio for excisional biopsy, make single swipe verses multiple little hashes, sew towards yourself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

empirical pseudomonas treatments

A

beta-lactam (cefipime, ceftazamine) with an amino glycoside (gentamycin)

ciprofloxacin is a good treatment

zosyn - piperacillin/tazobactam - especially for critically ill patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Chronic alcohol consumption has what two effects on lab studies

A

decreased Mg/K

bone marrow suppression (pancytopenias)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

beta1 selective-blockers - MANBABE

A

metoprolol
atenolol
nebivolol

bisoprolol
acebutolol
betaxolol
esmolol

decrease heart rate more than they decrease BP (rate controllers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

scopolamine

A

s - muscarinic antagonist - good for N/V post operatively, also good for drying up secretions in people who are in the active dying process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

bird fancier’s lung

vs

parrot fever

A

BFL - a hypersensitivity pneumonitis - caused by bird droppings, lungs become inflammed with granulomatosis - can have ground glass radiography, fibrosis, may have s/s within a few hours of exposure acutely or chronic exposure can lead to fibrotic changes….treated similarly to allergies / asthma - beta-agonists/steroids

PF - psitticosis - chlamydiophila psittaci - contracted from infected parots (macaws cockatiels) and from, pidgeons, sparrows, ducks, hens…presents as atypical pneumonia can have low white count early, Horder’s “rose” spots, splenomegaly and/or epistaxis - tx doxy/tetracycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

what is the blood sugar range you keep people in ICU or higher acuity settings?

A

keep them higher rather than lower - 140-180s this improves mortality rather than risking hypoglycemic conditions (high blood sugar is bad long term, low blood sugar is bad short term)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

neutropenic fever

A

aka febrile neutropenia - single temp > 38.3 or 1 hour > 38 with neutropenia… generally recognized as a complication of chemotherapy where there is supression of the bone marrow.

treat with empiric antibiotics, treatment may need to continue for 2 weeks if it’s unresolved, no change in fever after 72 hours add antifungal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Ranson Criteria GALAW and CHOBBS (48 hrs after admission) - non-gallstone ileus

A

predicts the severity of pancreatitis - GALAW at admission, CHOBBS within 48 hours …

Glucose >200mg/dL
AST > 250 IU/L
LDH > 350 IU/L
Age > 55
WBCs > 16k
Calcium  < 8.0 mg /dL
Hematocrit fall > 10%
PaO2  < 60 mmHg
Base Deficit > 4 mEq/L
BUN > increased by 1.8 or more after IVFs
Sequestration > 6L
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

when is it a bad time to use bactrim?

A

if the patient is on an ACEI, elderly folks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

dihydroperidine CCBs

vs

non-dihydroperidine CCBs

A

DHP - “-dipine” amlodipine - dipin down the blood pressure / reduce systemic vascular resistance - SEs - edema, dizziness/HA/redface, constipation, gingival overgrowth

NDHP

Phenylalkylamines - verapamil - selective for myocardium used to reduce myocardial O2 demand and reverse coronary vasospasm for angiina

Benzothiazepines - Cardizem - diltiazem - intermediary between DHP and NDHP - decreases SVR and reduces reflex tachy

Gabapentinoids - gabapentin/pregabalin - epilepsy/neuropathic pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

intrathecal route….

A

directly into CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

what antibiotic is bad to mix with amlodipine?

A

clarithromycin - leads to severe hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Loop Diuretics

A

furosemide - Lasix - use a K supplement…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

K sparing diuretics

A

spironolactone - aldosterone antagonist, anti-androgen - diuretic, treats hypokalemia, secondary hyperaldosteronism (in cirrhosis), conn’s syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism)

eplerenone - similar to spironolactone but much more selective for the mineralcorticoid receptor (used mostely for diuresis)

amiloride - blocks ENaC in distal tubule, collecting ducts - promotes sodium and water loss and K sparing

triamterene - Dyazide (when combined with HCT) - same as amiloride

**Careful if using salt replacements as they often contain KCL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

treating hypertension in pregnancy

A

1ST LINE - Labetolol 200-2400 mg/day

also - methyldopa, nifedipine

  • thiazides only ok if already on them prior to gettin pregs
  • ACEs/ARBs - contraindicated d/t teratogenicity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

what are a few causes for posterior shoulder dislocation

A

electrocution, epileptic seizure, motorcycle accident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

malingering

Munchausens

factitious disorder

somatic symptom disorder

illness anxiety disorder

conversion disorder

A

M - faking it and they know they’re faking it and they know why they’re faking it - usually to get out of something

M - hospital addiciton syndrome, thick chart syndrome - unclear whether or not these folks know they’re doing it or not.

F - deliberately producing symptoms to be cared for or treated

SSD - have symptoms but they are not real - includes conversion, IAD, body dysmorphia, pain disorder

IAD - excessively worrying about getting a disease

C - converting emotional stress into physical symptomology, can be discovered when sx dont match any neuromuscular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

spinal muscular atrophy - I (infantile), II (intermediate), III (juvenile), IV (adult onset)

A

I - werdnig-hoffman dz

II - dubowitz dz

III - kugelberg-welander dz

IV - adult

  • AR defect in SMN1 gene (most common genetic cause of infant death) necessary for survival in motor neurons, loss of protein causes loss of anterior horn cells with system wide muscle wasting, proximal muscle wasting first
  • loss of motor without loss of sensory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

apoplexy

A

loss of consciousness due to intracranial hemorrhage or stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

anasarca

A

wide spread soft tissue edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

loperamide

A

weak narcotic with no CNS activity but still has the side effect of slowing the bowels… used for diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Valium

Xanax

Ativan

Versed

A

V - diazepam - PO/IV Rapid Onset - peaks in 1 hour - 20-50hr t1/2

X - alprazolam - PO Intermediate - peaks in 0.5-1.5hr - 6-20hr t1/2

A - lorazepam - IV Rapid, PO Intermediate - peaks in 1-1.5hr - 10-20hr t1/2

V - midazolam - IV Most Rapid - peaks in 0.5-1 hr - 1-4hr t1/2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

Lyrica vs Gabapentin

A

L is the brand name, more expensive and may be habit forming.

gabapentin is the generic

*a type of CCB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

N-acetyl-cysteine

Guaifenesin

A

N - tylenol OD / expectorant / thins secretions

G - expectorant - unknown MOA but increases volume of secretions and decreases viscosity of secretions - SE N/V/D/C kidney stone … take with lots of fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

SLE treatments

A

hydroxychloroquine, methotrexate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

Mesenteric Ischemia

A

acute abdominal pain, risk factors for thrombosis (afib, CHF, CKD, MI)

4 mechanisms - blood clot forms somewhere else and travels to mesenteric bowel, clot forms within bowel artery, clot forms in bowel vein, decreased perfusion d/t low pressure or arterial spasm.

dx - clinical picture, CT with dilated loops of bowel
tx - stenting, anticoags/thrombolytics, intervential radiology/surgery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

what is the treatment for hepatic encephalopathy?

A

lactulose - laxative that also decreases excess ammonia production from gut bacteria

+

Spironolactone / Lasix (100/40mg starting up to 4x this each)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

Treatment for aspergillus?

Treatment for PCP pneumonia?

A

steroids

bactrim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

Celebrex

parecetamol

Florinef

Pravachol

Sinemet

A

Celecoxib - selective cox2 inhibitor - useful NSAID that does not increase bleeding risk - anti-pyretic, analgesic, anti-inflammatory reactions.

P - tylenol/acetominophen

F - fludrocortisone - treats hypotension - corticosteroid with moderate glucocorticoid activity and potent mineralcorticoid activity. (basically an aldosterone analog)

P - pravastatin - lowest incidence of aches and pains or side effects… try with coQ10

S - levodopa/carbidopa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

Premarin

A

pregnant mare urine - conjugated estrogens - HRT - treats hot flashes in women with hysterectomy as well as burning, itching, and dryness of vaginal areas

SE - yeast infections, vaginal spotting/bleeding, painful menses, cramping of the legs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

Otezla

A

O - apremilast - PDE4 inhibitor, which inhibits TNFa production from human rheumatoid synovial cells… anti-inflammatory.

Psoriatic Arthritis, Plaque Psoriasis, AnkSpondy, Behcets, RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

Pathergy

A

a skin condition where even a small bump or trauma to the skin leads to formation of lesions or ulcers…

Behcets and Pyoderma gangrenosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

stachybotrys

A

black mold/toxic black mold - found in places with poor indoor air quality especially water damaged building materials… bleach is recommended to remove the mold.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

enthesopathy

A

disorder involving the attachment of tendon or ligament to bone. the site of attachment is known as the entheses.

If it is know to be inflammatory it’s called enthesitis… similar to continuum distortion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

ESR vs CRP

A

ESR - increases in the presence of inflammation when increased fibrinogen causes RBCs to stick together. Userful for PMR and Temporal Arteritis. signals more of a chronic inflammatory process.

CRP - made in liver, binds phosphocholine on dead or dying cells (apoptotic) to activate the complement and immune system (to enhance phagocytosis by macrophages). rises within 2 hours of insult half life is constant at 18 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

what is one way to reduce side effects of methotrexate?

A

take folic acid supplements with low dose MTX used for arthridities… high dose MTX is useful for malignancy…

5-27.5 mg / week folic acid with 24 hours after MTX dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

Midodrine

Florinef

Octreotide

A

M - vassopressor / antihypotensive agent - alpha-1-agonist - does not cross CNS so there are no CNS side effects… Uses - symptomatic orthostatic hypotension… has been used with ostreotide for hepatorenal syndrome. SEs include normal sympathetic responses (dry mouth, flushing, feeling pressure/fullness in the head)

F - fludrocortisone - treats hypotension - corticosteroid with moderate glucocorticoid activity and potent mineralcorticoid activity. (basically an aldosterone analog)

O - somatostatic mimetic - more potent inhibition of GH, Glucagon and Insulin than natural hormone. Treats gigantism/acromegaly, diarrhea/flushing assoicated with carcinoid syndrome, and diarrhea in people with VIPomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

Pseudotumor Cerebri

NPH

Tonsillar Herniation

Central Pontine Myelinolysis

A

PC - aka idiopathic intracranial hypertension - increased intracranial htn in the absence of clear etiology (papilledema blindness more common in women)

NPH - incontinence, ataxia, dementia

TH - rapid correction of hypernatremia - water moves from blood to brain (swells) causes cerebral edema, tonsillar herniation, or multiple cerebral hemorrhages… in TH the cerebellar tonsils press through foramen magnum and compress the brain stem.

CPM - rapid correction of hyponatremia - water moves from brain to blood (shrivels) correct sodium at a rate of no more than 12-20 mmol/L sodium per day. Damage to the myelin sheath -> acute paralysis, dysphagia, dysarthria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

Depakote

Tegretol

Keppra

A

D - Valproate - anticonvulsant and mood stabilizer - epilepsy, bipolar, migraine prophylaxis - MOA - many different binding sites, GABA/sex steroid receptor binders, PIP3 reduction… SE - NVD, diplopia, thrombocytopenia

T - carbamazepine - epilepsy, schizophrenia, neuropathic pain, not effective for abscence seizures or myoclonic seizures… SEs - nausea, drowsiness, aplastic anemia, seizures if you stop taking it suddenly, spina bifida for pregnant women.

K - levitiracetam - apilepsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

leuko. ..
neutro. ..

Left shift -

A

leukocytosis

neutrophilia

LS - baby WBCs indicate infection vs demargination for example

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

Sicca vs Sjogrens

A

Sicca - dryness of the exocrine glands particularly the eyes and mouth, it is just a symptom complex. Can be caused by sjogrens, radiation tx to the head, certain medications, HepC/HIV

Sjogren’s - may affect any organ in the body that secretes moisture, saliva, tears, nasal passages, sinuses, throat, skin, vag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

what effect does HCT have on uric acid in the urine? Ca in the urine?

A

decrease both. Thiazides increase uric acid in the serum and Ca in the serum.

*acute gout can be caused by a rapid drop in serum Uric acid but not sure how..

217
Q

Ramsey Hunt Syndrome type II - three types exist

A

reactivation syndrome of herpes zoster in the geniculate ganglion - variable presentation including facial nerve lesion, deafness, vertigo, and pain.

Triad - ipsilateral facial paralysis, ear pain, vesicles in auditory canal.

218
Q

ABCDEF of delirium prevention and management in the ICU

A

A - assess/manage pain
B - breathing (ventilator interruption) and awake (sedative interruption) trials (spontaneous)
C - choice of sedation and analgesia - use a sedation scale and agree to depth of sedation (RASS scale) +1 restless (to +5) and -1 is drowsy (to -5)…. anything -3 and up are ok to proceed with CAM
D - Delirium assessment - see next card
E - Early mobility and exercise
F - family involvement - critical illness of a loved one can be profoundly traumatizing for all involved.

219
Q

steps in the CAM-ICU

A

confusion assessment method - ICU

  1. Acute change or fluctuation of Mental Status? yes move on
  2. Inattention - Sqeeze when I say “A” .. SAVEHAART. >2 errors move on
  3. Altered LOC - RASS - at or above -3 but not 0? -> Delirium … if RASS is 0 move to step 4
  4. Disorganized Thinking - Will a stone float on water? Are there fish in the sea? Does one pound weigh more than two? Can you use a hammar to pound a nail? Hold up two fingers ask pt to repeat, then ask to do on other hand >1 error = delirium
220
Q

Saphris

A

S - asenapine - atypical antipsychotic used for tx of schizophrenia and acute mania of bipolar disorder.

SE - somnolence, weight gain, appetite, weight gain, dysgeusia (distortion in sense of taste)

221
Q

Who has berry aneurysms?

When do you look for HFE gene mutations?

A

PCOS, ADPKD, NF1, Marfan, Ehlers-Danlos, hereditary hemorrhagic telengiectasians…. don’t treat with coumadin

HFE - hemachromatosis

222
Q

1 pound of fat forces the heart to pump through how much capillaries?

1 pound of fat takes what weight off the knees?

A

7 miles of capillaries

4 pounds of weight loss

223
Q

tolerance to opioids includes loss of analgesia but not loss of what other opioid effect?

A

constipation

224
Q

What are the two general agents used for constipation?

A

push and mush

225
Q

Push agents?

A

Senna - tree bark - natural, stimulates myenteric plexus - 8.6mg QHS (bed time)

Bisacodyl

Metoclopramide - 5HT agonist - good for gastroparesis, prokinetic - can cause dyskinesia tx with benadryl

226
Q

Mush agents?

A

colace / docusate - ^ water absorption in stool “stool softener”

Osmotics - lactulose, sortbitol, mannitol, glycerin, Miralax (PEG), **watch electrolytes

Saline Agents - MgOH / MgSulfate (milk of mag) **watch renal failure

Bulking Agents - metamucil / fiber **not good if bed bound

Lubricants - mineral oil…. really? not really used.

227
Q

Enemas?

Naturals?

A

Enema - saline, soap suds, oil - retain enema 15 minutes

Naturals - prunes, dates, figs, raisins, apples, senna

228
Q

Opiod Antagonists?

Post-op ileus?

A

Methylnaltrexone -like narcan for the bowel -
subQ every other day for opiod induced constipation

Alvimopan - post-op ileus

229
Q

What kind of deficiencies will you see in celiacs?

How does celiacs present?

What’s the diagnosis of celiacs?

A

Iron deficiency anemia, VitD, vitB12 due to absorption problems

presents with weight loss, iron deficiency anemia, thin frail osteoporitic/bone pain, osteomalacia, fatigue, muscle aches, odd constitutional symptoms

Dx - gluten challenge followed by elisa (anti-gliadin ab) -> endoscopy might be negative if already on GF diet or if they have a IgA deficiency -> if highly suspicious can do a genetic screen

230
Q

CT Urogram

A

CT of the kidneys and bladder to detect blood, stones and cancer.. watch for allergies to contrast material

231
Q

verrucous

verrucous carcinoma

A

verricose - wart like

verrucous carcinoma - snuff dippers cancer, oral pharyngeal

232
Q

condyloma accuminata

condyloma lata

A

A - HPV - warts

L - syphilis warts

233
Q

exanthema

A

skin rash accompanied by fever

234
Q

Echo virus

A

enteric cytopathic human orphan - RNA picoviridae - GI tract, exposure causes opportunistic infections - most common cause of aseptic meningitis, Males and children, high mortality if first couple weeks of birth, death by liver failure or myocarditis. Rash that covers face trunk extremities. Dx serum Abs. Ts - fecal oral, overcrowding.

235
Q

Borrelia

Babesia

Ehrlichia

A

Borrelia burdorferi - spirochete - lyme disease - erythema migrans - great mimic - doxy unless opportunistic infections, toxic shock like syndrome - doxy

Babesia - protozoan - causes malaria like syndrome (irregular fevers, lethargy, pain, malaise) - fatal in 8 days if no spleen - atovaquone and azithromycin -> blood exchange transfusions if severe

Ehrlichia - rickettsial - “spotless RMSF” - HME human monocytic ehrlichiosis - (south east and northeasy) vs. HGA (anaplasma phagocytophilum) more common in US and midwest -> fever, NO-rash, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia -> watch for renal failure and myocarditis/pericarditis.

236
Q

Anthrax vs Plague vs Tularemia vs Tuberculous Lymphadenitis

A

Anthrax - ulcer with black base, pruritic

Plague - lymphadenopathy, toxic appearing

Tularemia - purple ulcerative lesions that painful not pruritic

Tuberculous Lymphadenitis - enlarged nodes often of the cervical chain

237
Q

Methacholine challenge

A

methacholine (M3) or histamine (H1) are used to invoke broncho constriction in the dx of asthma

238
Q

Leuprolide

A

GnRH agonist -> interrupts normal pulsatile stimulation of GnRH receptors leading to indirect downregulation -> hypogonadism (drop of T and E)

Tx - breast and prostate cancer and precocious puberty

239
Q

Rhus Dermatitis

A

toxicodendron poisoning - poison ivy, sumac, oak - boils on erythematous base

240
Q

T1 weighted

T2 weighted

A

T1 - high fat tissue (white matter) appear bright, fluid (CSF) appears dark

T2 - fluid bright, fat tissue dark

241
Q

Milrinone

Afterload

Preload

A

PDE3 inhibitor -> increased cAMP… ionotropic, vasodilatory (decreased afterload)

Afterload - the pressure in the aorta and pulmonary artery that must be overcome to eject blood from the heart. Increased by anything that stenoses vasculature. SVR

Preload - the stretch placed on the heart just prior to contraction, atrial pressure serves as a surrogate to preload, EDV end diastolic volume is more useful clinically.

242
Q

what lab test can be used to trend sarcoidosis?

A

ACE

243
Q

diastolic apical rumble and opening snap

late systolic murmur with midsystolic click

apical blowing holosystolic murmur, radiates to axilla

A

mitral stenosis

MVP

MR

244
Q

diastolic rumble, louder with inspiration

blowing holosystolic murmur at left sternal border, louder with inspiration

A

tricuspid stenosis

tricuspid regurg

245
Q

blowing early diastolic; austin flint (apical diastolic rumble), mid systolic flow murmur at base

midsystolic crescendo-decrescendo at second right interspace, radiates to carotids and apex with S4 due to atrial kick

A

AR - wide pulse pressure (pulsus bisferiens)

AS - peripheral pulses weak and late, systolic thrill second interspace

246
Q

systolic murmur at apex and left sternal border that is poorly transmitted to carotids

A

HCM - increases with standing and valsalva - if you find a systolic murmur have them valsalva and if it gets worse them HOCM.

247
Q

wide, fixed split S2

paradoxical split S2

physiologic split S2

A

ASD

heard during expiration (not inspiration), occurs in the setting of delayed aortic valve closure (AS, LBBB, HCM)

physiologic split - P2 closes late on inspiration due to increased venous return and decreased left output

248
Q

Protein C and S deficiency

A

proteolyzing Factor 8 and Factor 5 -> preventing activation of X and Prothrombin -> anti-coagulant properties…

if lost -> coagulation

S/S - PE, DVT, Fetal Loss

Tx - warfarin with heparin bridge, bridge necessary because C and S activity drop first (loss of anti-coagulant action - > increased thrombosis risk)

249
Q

Warfarin (WARF- WI-Alumni-Research-Foundation) -arin (coumarin - from tonka beans)

A

inhibits vitamin k dependent carboxylation of coagulation factors - 2,7,9,10 (pro-coagulant) C, S (anticoagulant) - by inhibiting recycling of vitaminK

originally a rat poison, can be augmented by leafy greens (high vitK)

takes 3-5 days to work, and 3-5 days to stop working

Uses - Afib, heart valves, DVT, PE, Anti-phospholipid Syndrome…Useful for clotting where there is blood stasis agents for arterial clotting are anti-platelet drugs

Other Similar agents - dabigatran, rivaroxaban, apixaban - don’t need to monitor but cannot be reversed.

Target INR - usually 2-3 or 2.5-3.5 in mech heart valves

Contraindicated in preggers - 1st trimester fetus can bleed, teratogenicity. Less bad later on.

Side Effects - Hemorrhage (especially INR>4.5), Warfarin Necrosis (especially after first starting tx d/t thrombosis d/t early inactivation of anticoagulant protein C), osteoporosis, purple toe syndrome, vascular calcification

250
Q

Purple Toe Syndrome

A

cholesterol embolism released from atherosclerotic plaque -> livedo reticularis, gangrene, renal failure (atheroembolic renal dz)

statins can help

251
Q

livedo reticularis

erythema ab igne

livedo dermatitis

rhinitis medicamentosa

A

LR - mottled reticulated vascular pattern with lace like purplish discoloration of the skin… d/t swelling of venules owing to obstruction of capillaries and blood clots.

EAI - aka livedo reticularis e calore - rash d/t prolonged exposure to heat.

LD - embolia cutis medicamentosa, Nicolau syndrome - iatrogenic reaction immediately after drug injection, immediate extreme pain, with overlying skin rapidly becoming erythematous, violaceous, or blanched… eventually leads to necrosis, heals but can by atrophic and scarred.

RM - rhinitis caused by overuse/addiction to topical intranasal decongestants (Afrin)

252
Q

D-dimer

A

acute phase reactant & fibrin degradation product, shows a resolving clot when elevated (not elevated if clot is epithelialized / healed clot)

used to diagnose DVT, PE, or DIC..

Wells Score - predicts probablity of DVT / PE

253
Q

gynecomastia ddx

A
Liver Disease (estrogen release)
Spironolactone (blocks androgen receptors)
254
Q

Dissociative Fugue

A

reversible amnesia for personal identity - memories, personality, and other identifying characters - usually short lived (hours to days but can last months or longer) -

usually involved unplanned traveling or wandering, sometimes accompanied by a new identity.

after fugue memories return, though the event and the precipitating factor (the acute stressor) usually are forgotten.. typically accompanies dementia, delirium, dissociative identity disorder, or psychotropic meds

typically a retroactive diagnosis (after people “return” from fugue state)

255
Q

Achalasia

Diffuse Esophageal Spasm

Web

Schatsky Ring

Chagas Dz

Zenker’s Diverticulum

Plummer Vinson Syndrome

Pseudoachalasia

A

Achalasia - bird’s beak, dysphagia to solids and liquids

Diffuse Eso Spasm- corkscrew or nut cracker esophagram, can be caused by scleroderma

Web - small membrane of tissue in semi circle distribution that obstructs esophagus

Schatsky Ring - narrowing of the lower esophagus that can cause dysphagia

Chagas - T-cruzi, reduviid kissing beetle - south america to tx - mega heart, mega colon, mega esophagus (atonic esophageal body with non-relaxing LES) - dx serologic - tx nifurtimox & benznidazole

Zenker’s - pharyngeal diverticulum, just above the cricopharyngeal m. false diverticulum. Halitosis, cough, regurgitation

Plummer Vinson - dysphagia, iron deficiency anemia, esophageal webs - postmenopausal women - increased risk of SqCC of the esophagus..tx with correcting anemia, improve dysphagia, remove obstruction

Pseudoachalasia - Gastroesophageal junction obstruction or tumor (rapidly progressive, younger patients, profound weight loss)

256
Q

Triple-A-syndrome

A

Adrenal Insufficiency
Alacrima
Achalasia

AR genetic dz, with rare family history…

257
Q

which way is the shunt in VSD?

A

right to left… (LV to RV to Pulmonary to LA to LV) -> LVH

if you hear a carotid bruit rule out radiating AS before concluding that you have carotid obstruction and ordering carotid duplex

258
Q

hyperpigmentation of the legs with hypotrichosis?

hypotrichosis with weak reflexes?

A

stasis dermatitidis -> hemosiderin from blood cell extravasation, lysis and macrophage uptake…

hypothyroidism

259
Q

Hypererythema

A

blanching, temperature, atrophy, ulceration - think nutritional (VitC - remember collagen) (Zn - necessary cofactor - especially if desquamating)

check tongue for lingual papillae atrophy, loss of taste, wound healing delay

260
Q

when should you avoid inducing vomitting?

A

oily solvents because they can cause aspiration pneumonitis…

261
Q

port wine stain in trigeminal distribution is associated with what condition?

A

Sturge Weber Syndrome - intracranial calcifications, port wine stain, Glaucoma, Seizures, MR

262
Q

Neulasta

A

N- Pegfilgastrim - stimulates WBCs in neutropenia

263
Q

Bebulin

A

better than FFP because its got better QC (manufactured vs pooled plasma) but it’s spendy

HepC was discovered in transfusions, used to be called non-A/B Hepatitis

264
Q

MAT

A

multifocal atrial tachycardia - type of SVT - 3 or more Pwaves with variable morphology and varying P-R intervals + tachycardia + narrow QRS - associated with COPD exacerbations, common in smokers, wandering pacemaker WAP … narrow QRS are visible as well.

**acute MI, COPD, mg/k deficiency, digitalis, hypoxia, theophylline toxicity.

265
Q

what are you thinking if you see a Ca+ of 12 or more?

A

Hypercalcemia of malignancy until proven otherwise… start by looking at PTHrP then look for cancer

266
Q

Eosinophilic Urine is suggestive of what renal condition?

how do you stain them eosinophils?

A

acute interstitial nephritis - infection or allergic reaction to analgesic or antibiotics (hypersensitivity) - 71-92% of cases are medication reactions - (PCN, Cephalexin, NSAIDs, Fluoroquinolones, Diuretics, Allopurinol, Phenytoin)…corticosteroids don’t help, extra fluids, remove offending agent

Hansel’s stain - eosinophils

267
Q

Acamprosate (Campral) and Clonidine for which medical condition?

Antabuse

A

alcohol withdrawal - acamprosate is a gaba agonist - clonidine is a central andrenergolytic

Antibuse - Disulfiram - unpleasant reaction when drinking but causing buildup of..inhibits acetaldehyde dehydrogenase -> build up of acetaldehyde

268
Q

ESBL bugs

A

Extended Spectrum Beta Lactamase bugs - - - > beta lactamases that hydrolyze extended spectrum cephalosporins… cefotaxime, ceftriaxone, ceftazidime, aztreonam

269
Q

Pulmonary Edema

A

cardiogenic - Mitral Regurgitation, LV failure -

or

non-cardiogenic - injury to lung parenchyma - (hypertensive crisis, upper airway obstruction -> negative pressure edema, neurogenic - seizures, head trauma, strangulations, electrocutions)

270
Q

what do you use for UTI with sulfa allergy?

A

Trim-Sulfa out of the question (the mainstay)

Macrobid - Nitrofurantoin - not effective for kidney infections though - also used for pregnant women - works by damaging bacterial DNA, drug activated by bacteria better than eukaryotic cells.

271
Q

Kerley Lines

A

interstitial pulmonary edema, suggestive of CHF or pulmonary fibrosis, heavy metal deposition in interstitium, carcinomatosis of the lung.. fibrosis or hemosiderin from recurrent pulmonary edema

A Lines - longer unbranching, diagonally from hila - distention of anastomotic channels b/t peirpheral and central lymphatics of the lungs (only seen with B and C lines)

B Lines - short parallel lines at lung periphery, interlobular septa, usually less than 1cm, peripheral in contact with pleura, more frequently at lung base

C Lines - least commonly seen, short fine lines throughout lungs, reticular appearance

272
Q

stable vs unstable angina

A

stable - known about, predictable, consistent

unstable - unknown, new onset, or change from previous condition… may make you think stemi/nstemi

273
Q

when do you prescribe a blood transfusion?

what are the two determinants of O2 delivery?

A

when the Hb is less than 7

Hb and CO

274
Q

Oligoclonal Bands

A

high prevelance in Multiple Sclerosis, usually multiple bands… if single band consider plasma cell lymphoma… many other conditions can give oligoclonal bands.

275
Q

Transverse Myelitis

A

starts off with motor, sensory and/or autonomic dysfunction due to inflammation of the myelin tissue of the CNS. Presents especially with urinary retention. Idiopathic is most common, disease associated is less common but worse prognosis. Related to a spectrum of demyelinating autoimmune diseases including MS, neuromyelitis optica, acute disseminated encephalomyelitis.

Dx - Suspect Myelopathy? r/o Compression (MRI), Confirm Inflammatory vs non-inflammatory (MRI with gadolinium, oligoclonal bands in CSF)

Tx - with high dose steroids, plasma exchange, and cyclophosphamide.. other chronic immunomodulators can be used for high recurrance.

276
Q

erythema nodosum ddx

A

inflammation of fat underneath the skin - caused by…

Infection - steptococcal infection, TB, Mycoplasma, Histoplasma, yersinia, EBV, coccidiodes immitus, cat scratch disease

Autoimmune - Inflammatory bowel disease, Behcet’s disease, Sarcoidosis.

Pregnancy

Meds - sulfonamides, penicillins, oral contraceptives, bromides, HepB vaccination.

Cancer - non-hodgkins, carcinoid, pancreatic cancer

277
Q

Cat Scratch Disease

A

Bartonella henselae - found in children following a bit or scratch from a cat. Tender swollen lymph nodes, near site of inoculation… lots of constitutional s/s (HA, fever, aches, chills, myalgias, arthralgias, malaise, anorexia).

rarely has serious sequela - meningoencephalitis, encephalopathy, seizures or endocarditis (endocarditis has a high mortality)

-> bacilliary angiomatosis es. HIV pts.

Dx - PCR,

Tx - clear infection normally, but some immunocomprimised need abx

278
Q

Activated Clotting Time - ACT

A

a quick test that can be used to detect the time required to clot a sample of blood after addition of factor XII. It’s a relative scale and requires a baseline value for a point of comparison due to inconsistency of activators being used.

normal means blood has no heparin or all the heparin has been inhibited by protamine sulfate

used to monitor unfractionated herparin

may be affected by - warfarin, gp2b3a inhibitors (abciximab), aprotonin, severe thrombocytopenia (

279
Q

Intubation Mnemonic - SOAPIER

A

Suction
O2
Airway - OPA, NPA, ET Tube
Pharmacy - etomidate, proprfol (short acting), fentanyl, versed, ketamine, recuronium/pancuronium, succinylcholine
IV- fluids for bolus if needed, vasopressors if needed
Emergency plan - adjunct (laryngeal airway mask)
Rescue plan - anesthesia

280
Q

Confirming intubation

A

X-ray
Breath Sounds/ PaO2
Capnography

281
Q

what are the three cardinal features of delirium?

each day of delirium has what effect on ICU mortality?

always ask what about a patients medication list?

A

Delrium - acute onset, inattention, disorganized thinking

each day of delirium increases risk of mortality by 10%

always ask what can be discontinued

282
Q

what is the presentation of acute adrenal insufficiency?

what is the conversion for decadron to hydrocortisone?

what is the advantage of decadron?

A

hypoglycemia, hypotension, hypoNa, hyperK

0.75 D - 20 H

the advantage is that decadron doesn’t interfere with cortisol assays, so you can still assess the endogenous cortisol levels.

283
Q

P/F ratio

A

PaO2/FiO2 ratio - helps determine ARDS - a low P/F ratio indicates a lower arterial oxygen content derived from inhaled oxygen -> its a lung problem

Mild 200-300
Moderate 101-200
Severe

284
Q

if you have blood drip down the esophagus or swallowed this is a very powerful what?

A

emetic, blood stongly stimulates emesis (powerful emetic)

285
Q

5 risk factors “I’s” of DKA…

A
Iatrogenic
Infection
Inflammation
Infarction
Intoxication
286
Q

acidosis falsely elevates???

alkalosis falsely depresses??

A

acidosis elevates - K

alkalosis depresses -K, Ca

287
Q

BiPAP - what, who

CPAP - what, who

when are these measures contraindicated?

A

BiPAP bilevel positive airway pressure - O2 in, CO2 out - both phases - COPD exacerbations, drying, no good for pneumonias

CPAP continous positive airway pressure - O2 in only, symptomatic / decompensated CHF.

**CIs - bleeding, vomiting or unable to remove mask in case of vomiting, restrained, must be awake alert, spontaneous.

288
Q

what’s on your differential for lung edema?

A

blood, pus, or fluid… nothing else, figure it out.

289
Q

anion gap equation and meaning of high, normal and low

A

Na - (Cl+HCO3)

3-10 is normal

High - anion gap suggests elevated acid anions (negative charge) like lactate, acetoacetate, b-hydroxybutyrate, acetone

Normal - hyperchloremic, metabolic acidosis (vomitting, RTA 1n2, hypoaldosteronism)

Low - hypoalbuminemia (albumin is negatively charged) leads to increase in Cl and HCO3

Anion Gap drops 2.4 meq/L for each 1 g/dL Albumin loss

290
Q

anion gap corrections: calcium and albumin

A

add 0.8 for each 1g/dL Ca less than 8.5

add 2.5 for each 1g/dL Albumin less than 4

291
Q

Winter’s formula and purpose…

A

used to determine respiratory compensation or compromise in metabolic acidosis

PCO2measured …=?… 1.5 x HCO3 + 8 (+/- 2) (calculated)

if measured is higher than calculated -> there is also a primary respiratory acidosis

if measured is lower than calculated -> there is also a primary respiratory alkalosis

There exists equations to check respiratory status in metabolic alkalosis to be memorized some other time

292
Q

Base Excess

A

Metabolic alkalosis(excess bicarb)

compensation from respiratory acidosis, loss of HCl (vomiting), renal overproduction of bicarb (cushing’s contraction alkalosis)

293
Q

Base Defecit

A

metabolic acidosis, excretion of bicarb or neutralization of bicarb by excess organic acids (DKA, lactic acidosis, CKD-prevention of H+ secretion, HCO3 production), Diarrhea (loss of bicarb)

294
Q

how do you dose Insulin?

A
  1. 1 U/kg/hr IV and Bolus

0. 1 U/kg/hr

295
Q

when you have neuropathy what is the time frame you might expect that to resolve?

A

if it’s a compressive injury -> waiting for remyelination (a few days to a few weeks)

if it’s an axonal injury -> long term (these puppies grow 0.5 - 0.9 mm/day

296
Q

Miralgia paraesthetica

A

numbness or pain in the outer thigh not caused by injury to the thigh but rather by lateral femoral cutaneous nerve injury…

weight gain -> pressure near belt line, waistbands, and tight pants..

297
Q

what is an example of a high troponin?

A

3 / 4

298
Q

Bumex

what is a side effect of baclofen? Contraindication of propofol?

Acyclovir?

A

Bumex - bumetanide - loop diuretic - same class as furosemide, torsemide, ethacrynic acid. strong diuretic

Side effect of baclofen Contraindication of propofol - hypotension

Acyclovir - kidney crystals

299
Q

heparin vs LMWH

A

heparin upregulates AT to inhibit Xa and Thrombin, reversible

LMWH upregulates AT to inhibit Xa only

300
Q

Anti-factor Xa activity “Hep-X-a”

A

LMWH heparins are managed via HepXa rather than PTT (like hep) or PT (like warf) or ACT (faster than ptt)

patient plasma added to a sample with known amount of Xa and an excess AT… any LWMH present in the patients sample will inactivate factor Xa. Substrate for Xa is then added and a colorimetric or spectrophotometric or fluroscopic emission is read.

301
Q

Serum Phosphorus - normal levels, when high, when low … think

A

2.4-4.1 mg/dL

High - DKA, Hypoparathyroid, Kidney Failure, Liver Disease, hypervitaminosis D, dietary

Low - Alcoholism, HyperCa, Hyperparathyroidism, dietary / poor nutrition, hypovitaminosis D (rickets/osteomalacia)

302
Q

hypophosphatemia induced acute rhabdomyolysis

hypophosphatemia induced by vitamin D deficiency…

hypophosphatemic rickets…

A

occurs in drunks

Vit D deficiency -> decreased Ca absorption -> loss of blood Ca -> increased PTH (secondary hyperparathyroidism)

aka x-linked hypophosphatemia/ x-linked vitamin D resistant rickets - short stature, genu varum, PHEX gene, - tx with phosphate replacement

303
Q

Central Venous Pressure (CVP)

A

Central Venous Pressure - pressure of vena cava near the right atrium - influenced by intravascular volume, venous return, venous tone, intrathoracic pressure, right heart function and myocardial compliance… TRENDS ARE MORE IMPORTANT THAN ISOLATED READINGS… these are obtained through the central line

normal - 5-10 cmH2O

304
Q

Cardiac Index

A

CI = CO/BSA (body surface area)

relates heart performace to the size of the individual

Normal - 2.6 - 4.2 L/min/m2

less than 2.2 the patient may be in cardio genic shock

305
Q

Lactate

A

marker for cellular hypoxia - half life of 20 minutes so useful for response to treatment - if lactate drops within 6 hours survival is increased but if it

above 4.0 mmol/L is associated with 27% mortality whereas 2.5-4.0 is associated with 7% mortality
less than 2.5 is associated with 5% mortality

tourniquet for over 2 mins can skew results negatively

306
Q

Causes of Ascites

A

Portal hypertension - d/t cirrhosis, alcoholic hepatitis, liver failure, budd chiari, heart failure, constrictive pericarditis, hemodialysis associated (nephrogenic).

Hypoalbuminemia - nephrotic syndrome, protein losing enteropathy, malnutrition.

Peritoneal Disease - malignancy, infectious peritonitis, eosinophilic gastroenteritis, peritoneal dialysis, multicystic mesothelioma.

Others - chylous ascites, pancreatic ascites, myxedema, hemoperitoneum.

307
Q
Normal Values - Urinalysis
Spec.G
pH - alkali vs acidic stones
Protein
Albumin
When does glucose spill?
When do you see Ketones?
Nitrites
Bilirubin
Leukocyte Esterase
Squamous cells
A

Spec G - 1.003 - 1.030
pH - 4.6 - 8.0 - alkali (ca-Oxa, ca-Po4, struvite/mgNh4po4) acid (uric acid/ cystine)
Protein - 0 - 20 mg/dL
Albumin - 0 - 23 mg/L (serum - 3.5 - 5.5 g/dL)
Glucose - spills at 180 mg/dL

Ketones - DKA, starvation, extreme exercise, vomitting, pregnancy

Nitrites - specific for certain UTI but not sensitive to all bugs - ecoli, klebsiella, proteus, enterobacter, citrobacter, pseudomonas…. but not staph / strep / haemophilus…. negative nitrites do not rule out UTI but a positive rules it in.

Bilirubin - only conjugated bili can be sent to the urine (soluble)… unconjugates as urobilinogen

Leukocyte Esterase - pyuria - indicates UTI (sterile pyuria is pyuria with bugs that don’t normally grow on std UA..chlomydia, mycobacterium, TB, ureaplasma)

Squamous Cells - contamination

308
Q
Normal Values - ECG
P-wave
PR - interval
QRS complex
ST
T-wave
QT - interval
A

P - 1.5 -3.0 box duration x 0.5 - 2.5 boxes high, Upright in leads I, II, aVF

PR - 3 - 5 box duation (short in WPW, Pompes, Duchennes, HCM)

QRS - 3 squares (wide with R/LBBB, centricular rhythm, hyperk)

ST - elevated = infarct, depressed = ischemia

T - tall (MI, hyperK, LBBB), small/flat (ischemia, hyperventillation/anxiety, LVH, digoxin, pericarditis, PE)

QT - interval - 0.42 (QTc) - long (MI, myocarditis, hypoCa, hypoT, SAH, amiodarone, sotalol

309
Q

ECG pnemonic

A
Rate
Rhythm
Axis
RWP
Intervals
Chamber Size
Injury/Ischemia
310
Q

LBBB vs RBBB

A

LBBB - (williaM) QRS makes M in V6, Lead 1, aVL, V5

RBBB - (Marrow) QRS makes M in V1, RSrsR in Lead 1

311
Q

LVH vs RVH

A

LVH - S in V3 + R in aVL (>24mm)

RVH - RAD > +110, R in V1 > 7mm, S in V1

312
Q

LAE vs RAE

A

atrial enlargement

LAE - sine wave (P wave) in V1, Notched P wave in II, III

RAE - tall peaked P-wave in II, III, AVF, positive Deflection of the p-wave in V1 or V2

313
Q

what should you check before giving ACE and ARBs or NSAIDS?

A

creatinine

314
Q

what are three things you check first in acute altered mental status

A

check BG (sugar)

Give Narcan

Give Thiamine

315
Q

what labs do you get in hyponatremia?

A

urine osmolality, urine sodium, serum osmolality, BMP, cortisol, TSH

316
Q

what values are optimized when you’re ready to extubate?

what’s the RSBI?

A

HighVt (tidal volume), low RR (respiratory rate)

RSBI - rapid shallow breathing index - frequency (RR) / Vt (Tidal Volume) -

**a high frequency and low Vt indicate poor tolerance to independent breathing (a high RSB) 105 is the maximum acceptable level.

**a low RSBI indicates preparedness to ween

317
Q

what’s are some ways you can check volume status?

A

blood pressure change with passive leg raise while supine, skin turgor, (bp vs pulse), mentation, cap refill, urine output, mucus membranes

318
Q

how do you calculate the necessary free water to give in HyperNa?

A

look up the free water deficiency equation and give that.

319
Q

how do you approach a new patient that is making your head spin???

A

KISS (keep it simple stupid)
ABCs (airway breathing circulation)
Go through your Systems

320
Q

what do you do if you are having trouble obtaining a peripheral stick for labs?

A

go through the femoral - doesn’t matter if you get artery or vein… 20g Needle, 20-50CC syringe, Pass em off…

321
Q

what is a side effect of hypothermia therapy in arrest patients?

A

lactic acidosis

322
Q

what kind of drugs linger in the elderly esp with decreased renal function?

A

benzodiazepine sedatives, anti-histamines, morphine, anti-cholinergics

(especially take care in renal failure with these)

323
Q

Framingham Criteria for Heart Failure

A
MAJOR
PND (paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea)
Orthopnea
JVD
Rales
S3
Cardiomegaly
Pulmonary Edema

Minor - leg edema, nocturnal cough, dyspnea on exertion, hepatomegaly, pleural effusion, tachycardia, weight loss.

**Dx requires 2 major, or 1 major + 2 minor

324
Q

Barbeau Test

A

allens test with pulse oximetry

325
Q

Classification of HF I-IV

Stages of HF A-D

A

I - heart disease no s/s with activity
II - heart disease slight limitation of activity
III - heart disease marked limitation of activity, not at rest
IV - heart disease s/s at rest

A - high risk but without structural changes or s/s
B - structural changes w/o s/s of HF
C - structural changes with prior or current s/s of HF
D - refractory HF requiring specialized interventions

326
Q

Myopathies

A

dilated, restrictive (idiopathic, hemachromatosis, sarcoidosis, amyloidosis), hypertrophic, arrythmogenic RV cardiomyopathy, alcoholic cardiomyopathy, viral myocarditis, amyloidosis, tacotsubo - disease of the heart muscle itself

327
Q

Periorbital Purpura

A

PoP - pathognomonic for AL amyloid cardiomyopathy… (also may see peripheral neuropathy)

328
Q

cirrhosis, diabetes, hyperpigmented skin…

xanthelasma

A

triad - late stage hemochromatosis

x - fatty deposition above the eyes… usually suggestive of hypercholesterolemia…

329
Q

Initial Tests in HF

A

ECG - prior MI, LVH, loss of R in V2-5 (infiltrative process), heart block, persistent tachy like afib w/ RVR (cardiomyopathy)
ECHO, Stress Test / Angiogram

CBC - anemia / infection
CMP - Ca, Mg, Bun, Cr, HypoNa (if severe HF),
BNPs - heart congestion
LFTs - hepatic congestion

Thyroid Studies - either hypoT or hyperT can exacerbate or cause HF

330
Q

HFpEF pathophysiology

A

aka Diastolic HF - determined by myocardial relaxation (active - requires metabolic energy), compliance/distensibility of LV (passive) … increased LV pressure -> pulmonary congestion, dyspnea, edema

when in diastole - the LV, LA and PulmVein form a common chamber and diastolic LV pressure is synonymous with PCWP (3-12mmHg = normal, 12-25 elevated, >25mmHg -> pulmonary edema)

331
Q

Side Bar - Causes of Bradycardia

A
hypothermia
vagal tone (vagal stim / drugs)
hypothyroidism
beta-blockade
intracranial HTN
obstructive jaundice / uremia
SA node disease
332
Q

Side Bar - Causes of Tachycardia

A
pain
adrenergic stimulations
thyrotoxicosis
hypovolemia
vagolytic drugs (atropine)
anemia / pregnancy
vasodilator drugs (many hypotensive agents)
fever
myocarditis
333
Q

HFrEF pathophysiology

A

ventricular dysfunction, aortic insufficiency, myocarditis => loss of EF => loss of CO => increased sympathetic activity and salt/fluid retention => reestablishement of CO with a side of extra fluid

334
Q

Lactate - why, normals, etc.

A

lactate is a marker for cellular hypoxia, half life of 20 minutes, get serial lactates.

4.0 mmol/L is associated with 27% mortality vs. 7% for (2.5-4.0 mmol/L)

other things cause lactic acidosis- seizures, drug - epinephrine, metformin, hypothermia, liver failure, low CO …

335
Q

Precedex

A

Dexmedetomidine - sedative used in ICU and anesthesia - like clonidine it’s an alpha-2 agonist - similarly effective as midazolam

sedative, sympatholytic, anxiolytic - reduces need for sedatives that depress the respiratory system

336
Q

EEG findings:
Spike and wave

8-13Hz unremitting, unresponsive to stimulation

11-14Hz paroxysmal on delta background

2-2.5Hz sinusoidal bilateral synchronic waveforms appearing in bursts

3Hz spike and dome

high volatage (300-1500uV) repetitive, polyphasic, sharp and slow wave complexes of 0.5 - 2 second duration that recur q4-15s

Hypsarrhythmia

continuous periodic stereotypic 200-400 ms sharp waves at intervals of 0.5 - 1.0s

A

seizure

Alpha-coma

Spindle-coma - must distinguish from normal alpha rhythm in locked in state and from various intoxications

Intermitted Rhythmic Delta Activity - IRDA - metabolic, toxic, hypoxic, intracranial disease…

absence seizure - can be diagnosed with hyperventiallation

Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis - inflammatory disease of children caused by chronic infection by the measles virus.

Infantile spasm - associated with MR

Crutzfeld Jacob Disease - prion disease

337
Q

Acute Respiratory Failure - types… and other terms to differentiate from

A

ARF - inadequate gas exchange…
Type 1 hypoxemia without hypercapnia
Type 2 hypoxic hypercapnic

ARDS - acute respiratory distress 
Acute
Bilateral infiltrates
cannot be cardiac or fluid overload (no CHF)
PaO2/FiO2 ratio
338
Q

ARF - Type 1 causes

ARF - Type 2 causes

A

1 - low ambient O2, VQ mismatch (PE), alveolar hypoventillation (decreased minute volume), diffusion problem from parenchymal dz (pneumo, ARDs), shunt RtoL

2 - airway resistance (COPD, asthma, suffocation), reduction in breathing effort (drugs, brainstem lesions, obesity), decrease in lung surface area (chronic bronchitis), neuromuscular dz (GBS, motor neuron dz - ALS), deformation (kyphoscoliosis, ankylosing spondylitis, flail chest, preggers)

339
Q

Anti-platelet therapy after coronary stent placement: DAPT

A

DAPT - dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin and P2Y12 inhibitor - clopidogrel) works better because more aggressive anti-platelet tx is necessary as blood forms clots on metal… tx until the stent is covered in neointimal endothelializatoin

*75-100 mg aspiring, 75 mg -grel -> 12 months and up to 18 months if handling tx well (for stable CAD) patients with risk of bleeding can be treated for shorter period of time., BMS can be treated slower, DES should be treated longer.

340
Q

Pulmonary Artery Wedge Pressure (PAWP)

Central Venous Pressure (CVP)

A

PAWP - aka PWP aka PCWP - 6-12mmHg - measured by PA catheter to pulmonary artery branch (right heart) - indirect measure of left atrial pressure - used to dx pulm edema, LVHF, mitral stenosis…

CVP - 3-8mmHg - pressure in thoracic vena cava near the right atrium - surrogate for preload - used to monitor hemodynamics but may not be the best index

341
Q

Three histopathologic patterns of Diffuse Alveolar Hemorrhage (DAH)

A

DAH - bleeding into the alveolar spaces of the lungs due to disruption of the alveolar-capillary basement membrane

  1. Capillaritis - neutrophilic infiltration of the alveolar septum -> fibrinoid necrosis / blood spilling..systemic vasculitides, rheumatic dz, drugs, other
  2. Bland Hemorrhage - hemorrhage into the alveolar spaces without destruction of alveolar structures - CT disease, drugs, other
  3. Diffuse Alveolar Damage - edema of alveolar septums and formation of hyaline membranes - DAD leads to ARDS…INFECTION, rheumatic dz, drugs/toxins, other

….4. miscellaneous

DX - progressively hemorrhagic effluent on BAL - hemosiderin laden macrophages - Prussian blue

342
Q

Light’s Criteria - transudative vs exudative effusion

A

transudative - imbalances of hydrostatic pressures in the chest (CHF, nephrosis) limited number of diagnostic possibilities

exudative - diagnostically challenging - infection, malignancy, immune, lymphatics, non-infectious inflammation, iatrogenic

LIGHTS

Pleural Protein / Serum Protein > 0.5
Pleural LDH / Serum LDH > 0.6
Pleural LDH greater than 2/3rds the upper limit of normal serum LDH

343
Q

most common causes of pulmonary renal syndrome

A

autoimmune - granulomatosis with polyangiitis (wegeners), goodpastures syndrome, lupus, microscopic polyangiitis

344
Q

bactrim

A

TMP-SMX - UTI, MRSA, traveler’s diarrhea, RTI, cholera

345
Q

when do you use prophylactic post operative antibiotics?

A

only for cardio and neuro operations, pre-op antibiotics are still legit!

346
Q

what is the number one contraindication to tube feeds?

what is it called when you use minimal tube feeds?

when would you avoid iron replacement?

A

hypotension due to blood redistribution to digestive system

trickle or trophic feeds

chronically infected patients

347
Q

what age group is most likely to have a seizure?

what kind of seizure are they most likely to have?

what kind of seizure does the age group least likely to have seizures have?

A

infants and elderly due to rapid growth or deterioration of the CNS

non-generalized due to under-developed corpus callosum

middle aged most likely to have generalized seizure

348
Q

5 indications for dialysis - FUUTH, AEIOU

A
FUUTH
Fluid Overloaded - not amenable to tx...
Uremia - oliguric / non-oliguric
Uremic Pericarditis
Toxicity / Drug OD
HyperK / electrolyte imbalance
Acidosis
Electrolytes (K)
Ingestions / Toxicity
Overload fluid
Uremia
349
Q

Lactate vs LDH

A

Lactate is indicative of anoxia, hypoperfusion, important marker of sepsis

LDH - marker of cell lysis

350
Q

hepatorenal syndrome

A

portal hypertension via cirrhosis -> splanchnic vasodilation (liver mediated cytokines) -> decreased effective circulatory volume -> RAAS -> renal vasoconstriction

351
Q

when you give fluids what happens to serum lab studies?

A

they all go down, like Hb, WBCs, etc.. dilutional

352
Q

MIBG CT scan

A

metaiodobenzylguanidine scan - radiolabeled molecule similar to norepinephrine … used as the Gold Standard in diagnosis of Pheo

353
Q

what is a rarely taught aspect of DKA?

when would you see envelope shaped crystals and osmolar gap?

A

it can cause an osmolar gap (of course it causes anion gap…)

PEG overdose (Miralax) vs… antifreeze which is Ethylene Glycol

354
Q
Osmolar Gap
Anion Gap
Winter's Formula
Delta Gap
Urine Anion Gap
Albumin Correction
A

Osmolar Gap - 2Na + Glu/18 + BUN/2.8 … >10 is a big deal

Anion Gap - Na - Cl - HCO3

Winter’s Formula - PCO2 = 1.5xHCO3 + 8 +/- 2

Delta Gap - Change in AG (vs expected…12) + Bicarb vs. 24 (normal bicarb)

Urine Anion Gap - Na + K - Cl … + is RTA (kidney unable to excrete acid)…- is diarrhea (acidic urine from high NH4Cl)

4 - measured albumin = Albumin Defecit x 2.5 = corrected or expected anion gap

355
Q

how are chloride and bicarb related?

A

if you increase chloride (as in during NS fluid resuscitation) you will decrease bicarb (metabolic acidosis)

356
Q

cirrhotic ascites and pregnancy will both show what physiologic adjustment?

A

displaced lungs -> compensated respiratory alkalosis

increased progesterone (metabolized in the liver) -> alters the brain’s respiratory center to stimulate breathing

357
Q

neutrophilia DDX

A

demargination - caused by infection, prednisone, cortisol, and adrenaline

malignancy -> CML

appendicits/ splenectomy

**Left Shift - lots of premature leukocytes/neutrophils -> leukemoid reaction - is severe neutrophilia with strong left shift

358
Q

procalcitonin

A

procalcitonin -> produced by parafollicular cells of the thyroid and by neuroendocrine cells of the lungs and intestines….

rise in response to infection of bacterial origins

respiratory infections?!

359
Q

what is that replacement dose of prednisone for adrenal insufficiency?

what else should you consider in adrenal insufficiency?

A

7.5mg/day more in the AM

hydrocortisone takes 30mins to work, T1/2 is 90mins, consider mineral corticoid replacement as well

360
Q

triggers for chronic adrenal insufficiency

signs and symptoms of adrenal insufficiency

what if 1* AI?

A

fluid loss diarrhea, Lupus -> infection

S/S - GI complaints, NVD

hyperK, hypoNa

hyperCl, hypoBicarb

hypoglycemia

…others…mild hyperCa, acidosis, eosinophilia

1* AI = hyperpigmentation (due to increased ACTH)

361
Q

thallium scan

A

radiolabeled myocardial perfusion imaging

362
Q

neutropenic fever

A

commonly recognized complication of chemotherapy.. treat with empirical antibiotics, add antifungals if persistent

363
Q

SIRS Ordering Bundle

A

fluid resuscitation
check lactates, ESR/CRP
send blood cultures and other sample cultures

source of infection

364
Q

what is adequate rate of fluid resuscitation in hypotension?

A

hypotension despite fluid resuscitation (30ml/kg)

if septic shock place a central line and start pressors

365
Q

signs and symptoms of …

Tamponade
AS
AR

A

Tamponade - Beck’s Triad - hypotension, JVD, distant/muffled heart sounds… also pulsus paradoxus (auscultate first, palpate the radial pulse later).

AS - syncope/presyncope, dyspnea (especially exertional), angina, systolic murmur

AR - wide pulse pressure, bounding pulse, De Musset’s sign (bobbing head), diastolic murmur

366
Q

recommendations for surgery of aortic stenosis… define severe and the 3 patients who for sure get surgery.

A

severe AS - Aortic Jet Velocity >4.0m/s , Mean Transvalvular Gradient >40mmHg… (AVA aortic valve area not required but often coexistent… area less than 4 cm?

367
Q

Absolute Neutrophil Count Equation and Definitions

A

Eq = (%PMNS + %Bands) * WBCs

368
Q

3 mechanisms of neutropenia

A
  1. decreased production
  2. margination (demargination is caused by epinephrine/exercise)
  3. destruction - drug / AI dz
369
Q

in what order is an ABG reported by RTs?

A

pH - PCO2 - O2 - HCO3

370
Q

what are the three main blood proteins?

A
  1. albumin
  2. immunoglobulins
  3. fibrinogen
371
Q

what acid base status makes pressors work less effectively?

A

acidemia

372
Q

what is phytonadione?

A

vitamine K

373
Q

what are the diagnostic criteria for ARDS

A

P/F ratio, bilateral infiltrates, meets clinical picture

374
Q

what are the diagnostic criteria for ARF

A

A-a gradient

760 -47 * FiO2 - CO2/0.8 (compared to measured A-a)

375
Q

chronic compensation of respiratory acidosis will have an increased basal bicarb…a chronic elevation of PaCO2 will result in a chronic elevation of Bicarb (what is the ratio acutely, and chronically)

A

increase PCO2 by 10 -> -> ->

increase HCO3 by 1 acutely
increase HCO3 by 4 chronically

376
Q

what is the mnemonic for Anion Gap Metabolic Acidosis - MUDPILES

what is the mnemonic for Non-Gap Metabolic Acidosis - DURHAM

A
Methanol
Uremia
DKA, AKA
Paraldehyde / Phenformin
Iron/ INH
Lactic Acidosis
Ethylene Glycol - envelope chrystals
Salicylates
Diarrhea
Ureteral diversion
RTA - renal tubular acidosis
Hyperaldosteronism
Acetazolamide (CA inhibitor)
Meds - isoniazid, aces/arbs
377
Q

what are the three clincial measures used to determine need for mechanical ventilation in someone with neuromuscular comprimise?

A

40/30/20 rule
MEF - max expiratory force 40 mmH2O
NIF - neg inspiratory force -30mmH2O
VC - 20ml/kg, or under 1L

anything lower than these absolute values is in need of intubation….

378
Q

compliance

elasticity

A

c - delatV / deltaP - ability of the lungs to expand

e - ability of the lungs to collapse

379
Q

Abdominal Compartment Syndrome

A

Peritoneal / Retroperitoneal - edema, free fluid, blood - accumulates to levels beyond the compliance of the abdominal wall…

> 12 mmHg (intraabdominal hypertesion) for adults
20 mmHg -> organ failure may set in … highly fatal situation (young healthy or athletic peeps may handle this well)

causes include - SIRS (capillary permeability>leakage), fluid therapy from volume rescusitation, trauma/aortic rupture, pancreatitis, ileus / obstruction, masses, ascites

treatment - free up the abdominal cavity - Bogota Bag (sterile bag sewn into the abdomen)

380
Q

female athlete triad

A

osteopenia/porosis, decreased coloric intake, amenorrhea

381
Q

Things that increase the effect of warfarin (cyp450 inhibitors, vitamin K influence)

A
Acetominophen, NSAIDs
Antibiotics/fungals
Amio
Cimetidine, Omeprazole
Cranberry Juice, Ginko Bilboa, Vitamin E
Thyroid Hormone
SSRIs (fluoxetine)

can cause bleeding in warfarin use

382
Q

Things that decrease the effect of warfarin (cyp450 inducers, vitamin K sources)

A
Carbamazepine
Ginseng
Green Veggies
Oral Contraceptives
Phenobarbital
Rifampin
St Johns Wort

cause thrombosis on warfarin

383
Q

cohort vs case-control

A

case-control - “already have the disease” - comparing risk factors in two populations, one with disease, one without disease

cohort - “has the risk factor” comparing incidence of disease in two populations, one with risk, one without the risk factor (can be retrospective or prospective)

384
Q

Marjolin’s Ulcer

Cushings Ulcer

Curlings Ulcer

A

SCC that results from chronic burn wound

Cushings - elevated ICP related gastric ulcer

Curlings - burn related gastric ulcer

385
Q

NAGMA mnemonic ABCD

A

Addisons, Acetazolamide
Bicarb loss - Renal (RTA), GI loss (diarrhea)
Chloride excess - NS rescus
Drugs - diarrhea, diuretics, acetazolamide

386
Q

Causes of hyponatremia - Hypervolemic, Normovolemic, Hypovolemic

A

HyperV HypoNa - CHF, Cirrhosis, Nephrotic Syndrome

Normovolemic HypoNa - SIADH (cxr for Lung cancer), Addisons, HypoT

HypoV HypoNa - Diarrhea, Vomitting, Free Water

correct with NS at 12 mEq/day

387
Q

low platelets with clotting… maybe post op?

isolated decrease in platelets with bleeding?

normal platelets with increased bleeding time and PTT?

A

HIT - heparin induced thrombycytopenia - treat with synthetic heparin (lepuridin or argatroban)

ITP - idiopathic thrombyocytopenic purpura

vWF dz

388
Q

Parkland formula

A

used to determine volume given in burn patietn within first 24 hours - first half given in 8 hours second half given in 16 hours.

4 x wt(kg) x (%TBSA * 100)

389
Q

Paraneoplastic lung cancer syndromes

Small Cell vs Squamous Cell Ca

A

Squamous Cell = PTHrP (low PTH, High Ca, low PO4)

Small Cell = “SCL” superior sulcus syndrome (ptosis, miosis, facial edema), SIADH (euvolemic hypoNa), Carcinoid, Lambert Eaton (ptosis improves with upward gaze, Abs to Ca channels),

390
Q

Ataxia vs Apraxia

Paresis vs Paralysis

A

Ataxia - incoordinated muscle movements
Apraxia - inability to conduct complicated tasks, disordered motor planning

Paresis - weakness of voluntary movement
Paralysis - complete loss of voluntary movement

391
Q

Admit Orders - ADC VAN DISMAL

A

Admit to - who?
Diagnosis - listed in order of priority
Condition - good fair poor guarded critical

Vitals - frequency etc
Activity - ad lib, bed rest, up to chair, ambulate
Nursing - InOs, drains, wounds

Diet - soft, puree, mech soft, liquids
IV fluids
Studies
Medications - drugs
Allergies
Labs / Imaging
392
Q

when do you do a FENa

A

fractional excretion of sodium is done when you have…

Acute Kidney Injury (^Cr by 0.3)
Oliguria/Anuria
No Diarrhea

393
Q

GI cocktail

A

antacid, lidocaine, anticholinergic (maalox and lidocaine)

used for dyspepsia

394
Q

hypervolemic hyponatremia

A

cirrhosis, cardiosis, nephrosis

loss of protein, loss of pump/LHF, loss of ability to retain solutes

395
Q

euvolemic hyponatremia

A

SIADH
Pseudohyponatremia -
Adrenal Insufficiency
Drugs

396
Q

hypovolemic hyponatremia

A

vomitting, diarrhea, diuretics, Addison’s disease

397
Q

CRP when do use and why … how about pro-calcitonin… sed rate??

A

CRP - use it to see if there is an infection / inflammation … cheap

proCalcitonin - useful for respiratory infections only.

sed rate -> auto immune

398
Q

contraction alkalosis

A

when you diurese someone they lose volume and the kidney holds bicarb so you get increased bicarb in the blood.

399
Q

what do you use for determining when to order D-Dimer for DVT/PE?

A

PERC score (PE Rule-out Criteria)

WELLS criteria (probability scoring for DVT and PE)

400
Q

Inferior MI

Anterior / Septal

Lateral

A

Inferior - Lead 2,3, AFV

Anterior Septal - V1 - V4

Lateral - V1, V5, V6

401
Q

Alvarado Score - MANTRELS

A
Migrating abdominal pain to iliac fossa
Anorexia
Nausea/vomiting
Tenderness of right lower quadrand
Rebound pain
Elevated Temperature
Leukocytosis / 10K with Left Shift
402
Q

four types of shock

A

Distributive - sepsis/SIRS, pancreatitis, neurogenic, anaphylactic, toxin mediated, endocrine (addison’s crisis).

Cardiogenic - MI, arrhythmia, mechanical (valve rupture)

Hypovolemic - hemorrhage, vomitting/diarrhea (fluid loss)

Obstructive - pulmonary vascular related (PE, tension pneumothorax, pericardial tamponade)

403
Q

Hyperthryriod symptoms

Hypothyroid symptoms

A

heat intolerance, sweating, hunger, tachycardia, sweating, irritability, mood swings, insomnia, wt loss, tremor

cold intolerance, dry thinning skin, fatigue, wt gain, hair thinning or loss, brittle nails, sluggish heart rate

** often low symptomology in the elderly

404
Q

Osmolality vs Tonicity

A

Osmolality - includes all osmoles like ethanol urea glucose salt

tonicity - includes just effective osmoles… things that don’t cross the PM

405
Q

Aplastic Anemia

Myelodysplastic syndrome

A

AA - hypo-cellular marrow - tends to occur in younger patients.

MDS - hyper-cellular marrow - abnormal maturation of cells

406
Q

Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia mnemonic - 21, 17, 11

A

A / T
21 - X - Up
17 - Up - X
11 - Up - Up

407
Q

Diagnostic Criteria for Pancreatitis - need 2/3

A
  1. Characteristic Abdominal Pain
  2. Lipase > 3x upper limit of normal
  3. Imaging findings on U/S, CT suggestive of pancreatitis
408
Q

Diagnostic / Resolution Criteria for DKA

A
  1. AG > 12
  2. pH <7.3
  3. Bicarb <15-18

serum and urine ketones are used to rule out not rule in DKA

409
Q

Correction of Na in DKA

A

add 1.6[(BG-100)/100] to measured sodium

example
Na 118
BG 1060

118 + 1.6*(9.6) = 133.6

410
Q

Types of NSTEMI

A

**NSTEMI - signs and symptoms of ischemia with elevated troponins but no ST elevation or Q waves

1 - spontaneous - intraluminal coronary thrombosis from any number of causes (plaque rupture, ulceration, fissure, dissection)

2 - ischemic imbalance - d/t embolism, anemia, arrhythmia, vasospasm, respiratory failure

3 - death before biomarkers are available - cardiac death before troponin elevations (takes up to 12 hours for troponins to rise)

4 - Intrastent Thrombosis
4A - During PCI
4B - Stent Thrombosis related

5 - CABG related

411
Q

Pre-operative Visit

A

Heart/Lungs/Anesthesia Hx
Able to carry 2 grocery bags up 2 flights of stairs
How many blocks walking w/o dyspnea

*Women - LMP/Pregnant/Hb

412
Q

Aortic Stenosis and normal valve area

A

normal are is 4cm^2

symptoms usually arise at 2cm^2 (syncope, CP, SOB)

413
Q

Dosing levothyroxine for hypothyroidism

A

1.7 mcg/kg to start, recheck TSH in 1-2 months, levothyroxine half life long, should take in AM 1 hr before breakfast

414
Q

Diffuse ST Elevation

A

pericarditis - chest pain alleviated by leaning forward

415
Q

Levamisole

A

pesticide used as cutting agent used in cocaine that can cause cutaneous chemical vasculitis

416
Q

which is more liver specific ALT or AST?

A

ALT more liver specific, AST double the ALT means alcohol

417
Q

CAP - Bugs n Drugs

HCAP - definition - Bugs n Drugs

VAP - Bugs n Drugs

Aspiration - Bugs n Drugs

Atypicals - Bugs n Drugs

A

CAP - SPneumo, Hflu, MCatarrhalis - FQ (levoquin), Moxifloxacin

HCAP - 48 hours of the last 3 mos in LTACH, SNF, NH, Prison - #1 SPneumo - MRSA (Vanc, Bactrim, Linezolid, Clinda) & Pseudomonas (zosyn, levoquin, cefipime, genta, meropenem)

VAP - same bugs n drugs as HCAP

Aspiration - anaerobes - above diaphragm (clinda) below diaphragm (metronidazole)

Atypicals - chlamydia, legionella, mycoplasma - levoquin, moxiflox, or(augmentin/amoxicillin/ceftriaxone + macrolide)

418
Q

MRSA Tx

Pseudomonas Tx

Anaerobes Tx

Atypicals Tx

A

MRSA - vanc, tmp/smx, linezolid, clinda

Pseudomonas - zosyn, levoquin, cefipime, genta, mero

Anaerobes - above diaphragm (clinda) below diaphragm (metronidazole)

Atypicals - levoquin, moxiflox, or (augmentin/amoxicillin/ceftriaxone + macrolide)

419
Q

PRES vs RCVS

A

PRES - posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome - MRI diagnosis - AMS, Sz, HTN, Hallucinations

RCVS - reversible cerebral vasoconstriction syndrome - CTA Head - intermittent cerebral vasoconstriction with thunderclap HA, focal neuro signs - treatment is nimodipine

420
Q

Pyoderma Gangrenosum

A

PG - necrotic deep tissue ulcerations sometimes associated with IBD

421
Q

CURB-65 Score

A
Confusion
Uremia (>20)
Respirations (>30)
BP <90/>160
65 - years or older
  • 2pts hospital
  • 4pts ICU
422
Q

SAAG ratio for Ascites

A

SAAG = (Serum Albumin - Ascites Albumin)
> 1.1 = increased hepatic pressures - Cirrhosis, CHF, RHF, Budd Chiari
<1.1 = Nephrotic Syndrome, peritoneal carcinomatosis, TB, pancreatitis, infection

423
Q

What are the components of PFTs

A

Spirometry - exhalation test - FEV1/FVC <70% = obstructed - then do bronchodilator (if improves by 12% and 200cc then BD responsive) FEV1 is compared to expected for severity of obstructive lung disease

Lung Volumes - < 80% Restricted < 80-120% (normal) >120% Hyper-inflated

Diffusion - DLCO < 80% (fibrosis, bronchiectasis, emphysema, amio, PAH) >120% (PV, AVM, Hyperdiffusion)

*The values are compared to sex, age, race, height, not weight

424
Q

What level is an adequate fluid resuscitation?

A

should give fluids of 30cc/kg/hr

425
Q

Non-TB Mycobacterial Infections

A

NTM - MAC, M. Kansasii, M. Abscessus - treat with Macrolides (atypicals)

426
Q

2 Lung responses to local hypoxemia

A
  1. Shunting to different parts of the lung

2. Vasoconstriction (at the level of the arteriole decreases transit time through the capillary)

427
Q

Portal Hypertensive Gastropathy

A

PHG - usually asx, diagnosed by endoscopy for other reasons, suspect in cirrhotics with UGIB (upper GI bleed) - prophylax with beta-blockers, octreotide for acute bleed, TIPS for refractor bleeding

428
Q

what is the change in FiO2 with each 1L O2?

A

1L O2 = 4% increase in FiO2, generally speaking

429
Q

Small Cell Lung cancer sequel

SQuamous cell lung cancer sequel

A

Siadh
Cushings
Lambert Eaton Syndrome

PR SQ -Parathryroid Related Peptide

430
Q

Light’s Criteria

A

Exudative pleural effusions
Pleural / Serum Protein > 0.5
Pleural / Serum Albumin > 0.6
Pleural LDH > 2/3 ULN Serum LDH (200-300)

431
Q

What are exudative vs transudative effusions?

A

Exudative - inflammation/vascular permeability - malignancy, infection, trauma, AI, lupus, RA

Transudative - increased hydrostatic pressure, decreased oncotic pressure (HF, Cirrhosis, Nephrotic syndrome)

432
Q

CHF, Cirrhosis, and Nephrotic Syndrome cause?

A

Transudative effusions with low lights criteria

Hypervolemic Hyponatremia

Ascites with high SAAG

433
Q

Normal Values for K, PO4, Mg?

A

K ~ 4
PO4 ~3
Mg ~ 2

434
Q

What are the diagnostic/staging criteria for asthma and COPD?

A

asthma - GINA criteria

copd - GOLDs criteria

435
Q

What is controlled in A/C ventilation?

What is controlled in P/S ventilation?

What is controlled in NIPP ventilation?

A

A/C - TV, RR, Peep, FiO2

P/S - “weening” - FiO2, Peep, Pressure Support

NPPV - non-invasive positive pressure ventilation - pressure support only e.g. BiPAP, CPAP, AVAPs

436
Q

Gold’s Criteria for COPD

A
  1. FEV1/FVC < 0.7 of expected (based on age, height, sex)
  2. FEV1 (>80% mild, 50-80% moderate, 30-50% severe, <30% very severe)
  3. Hospitalized x 1, Exacerbations x 2
  4. CAT/mMRC symptom surveys
437
Q

COPD Treatment

A

GOLD 1/2 A = SABA or SAMA prn
GOLD 1/2 B = LABA or LAMA
GOLD 3/4 C = ICS + LABA or LAMA
GOLD 3/4 D = ICS + LABA and/or LAMA

Anyone hospitalized or 2 exacerbations in 1 year gets ICS

438
Q

GINA Criteria for Asthma

A

“Global Initiative for Asthma

Step 1 - intermittent - SABA prn
...Persistent
Step 2 - Low Dose ICS 
Step 3 - Low Dose ICS + LABA
Step 4 - Med Dose ICS + LABA
Step 5 - High Dose ICS + LABA
Step 6 - ICS and Oral + LABA

*Attempt to ween ICS after some time

439
Q

DIC Score

A

Platelets < 50K (2pts)
Fibrin Degradation Products Increased - (3pts)
PT > 6 (2pts)
Fibrinogen < 1g/dL (1pt)

440
Q

LRINEC Score

A

for NecFasc - Laboratory Risk Indicator for Nec Fasciitis

CRP > 150 (4pts)
WBCs > 25K (2 pts)
Hb < 11 (2pts)
Na < 135 (2pts)
Cr > 1.6 (2pts)
Glucose > 180 (1pt)

Doesn’t sound very specific, but definitely sensitive maybe??

441
Q

1st rule of Medicine?

2nd rule of Medicine?

A

1 - do no harm

2 - get the right diagnosis

442
Q

Asthma Severity Sx

A

Intermittent - sx/inhaler use < 2days/week, < 2 night coughs/month

Mild - sx/inhaler use > 2D/wk but not daily, 3-4x night coughs/month

Moderate - sx daily/inhaler daily, nighttime sx but not every night

Severe - sx/inhaler daily/several times, nighttime sx 7 days a week

443
Q

Berlin Criteria for ARDs - TROP

A

Timing - onset < 7 days
Respiratory failure non-cardiogenic
Opacities on CXR - fluffy bilateral, no other explanation
P/F Ratio - < 300 (mild) < 200 (mod) < 100 (severe)

444
Q

McConnell’s Sign

A

echocardiographic finding of apical contraction w/ hypokinesis of the ventricles as a sign of pulmonary embolism

445
Q

Duke Criteria for Endocarditis - Major

A
  1. ECHO with vegetation, dehiscence, abscess
  2. Persistently positive blood cultures for suspicious organisms
  3. New valvular regurgitant murmur
  4. Coxiella burnetii infection
446
Q

Duke Criteria for Endocarditis - Minor

A
predisposing heart condition
fever
septic emboli
glomerulonephritis
clinical - oslers nodes, janeway lesions, roth spots
positive blood cultures
447
Q

Jones Criteria for Rheumatic Heart Disease

A
Joints - polyarthritis
O - Carditis
Nodules - subcutaneous
Erythema Marginatum, ESR
Sydenham Chorea

*Rheumatic Heart Disease - inflammatory disease of joints heart skin and nervous system following GAS infection (strep throat)

448
Q

Framingham Criteria for Left Heart Failure - major … minor

A

Major
PND - paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea / orthopnea
Rales/Crackles
Radiographic (cardiomegaly/pulmonary edema)
JVD / HJR
S3 gallop

Minor - dyspnea on exertion, LE edema, nocturnal cough, pleural effusion

449
Q

Three patterns of progressive fluid accumulation in the lungs.

A
  1. Cephalizaiton - increased vascular markings superiorly
  2. Lateralization - kerly B lines
  3. Alveolarization - fluffy bilateraly opacities
450
Q

Abx Coverage - Cefipime, Fluoroquinolone, Vanco, Clindamycin, Carbapenems

A

Cefipime - pseudomonas, strep

FQ - pseudomonas, strep, legionella

Vanco - MRSA

Clinda - anaerobes

Carbapenems - ESBLs

451
Q

Where do the following lung sounds come from? what can you ask the patient to do if uncertain about clinical findings?

A
  1. Rhonchi (large airways), Wheezes (bronchioles), Rales (alveolar)
    * you can have them cough to clear secretions
452
Q

Anaphylaxis - defined and treatment

A
  1. must involve 2 body systems
  2. 125mg methylprednisolone, 50mg Benadryl, 20mg famotidine…epinephrine if respiratory involvement (0.01 mg/kg…0.3-0.5 ml) may repeat q 10 mins, 1000 mcg/ml (1:1000)
453
Q

Phlegmasia Alba and Phlegmasia Cerulea Dolens

A

PA / PCD - complication of extensive DVT whereby there is critical limb ischemia. albans is more common in pregnant women.

LDS - champagne legs - skin changes of the legs that occurs in venous insuffiency

454
Q

Pulmonary Embolism Classification - Massive, Submassive, Low Risk

A

Massive - hemodynamic instability

Submassive - RV strain, elevated biomarkers, but stable

Low Risk - normal BP, negative markers

455
Q

Pleurodesis

Thoracentesis

A

Pleurodesis - chemical affixation of visceral and parietal pleuras

Thora - tapping pleural effusion

456
Q

Hypoxemia

Hypoxia

A

Hypoxemia - low SaO2 and PaO2 (low blood oxygen) - has 5 main causes (low FiO2-altitude, Hypoventilation-OHS, Increased V/Q Deadspace-PE, Decreased V/Q Shunt-ARDs, Diffusion-ILD)

Hypoxia - poor oxygen delivery (tissues are not getting enough blood) - Lactic Acid, Poor EF/CO, low Hb)

457
Q

Alveolar Gas Equation

A

PaO2 = FiO2 x 713 - PaCO2/0.8

Also youtube Alveolar Air Equation and evaluate at different FiO2s

458
Q

What are features of a benign pulmonary nodule?

A

Pt Age < 35
Stable Over 2 years
Central Calcification
<8mm

*No followup recommended

459
Q

Tuberculosis - Dx, Tx, Vaccine

A

Dx - three AFB smears and cultures, with Nucleic Acid Analysis (NAA), culture being the gold std.

  • Smear and NAA + = dx
  • Culture + = dx

Tx
HIV Negative - RIPE 2 months, RI 4 additional months (b6 with Isoniazide)

HIV Positive - RIPE 2 months, RI 4 months w/B6 - Rifampin interacts with ART so check it…+ get those peeps on ART

Vax - BCG - bacilli Calmette-Guerin vaccine - variable efficacy multifactorial, generally not recommended in US

460
Q

Hair eating disorder

A

trichobezoar - eating own hair
trichophagia - eating own hair
Rupunzels Syndrome

461
Q

Jugular Venous Pressure Waves - a,x,c,X,v,y

A

a - atrial kick

x - S1

c - tricuspid

X - atrial diastole

v - ventricular contraction

y - atrial emptying

462
Q

JVP wave findings

  • Steep Y descent
  • Abscent Y descent
  • Giant V waves
A

steep y-descent - constrictive pericarditis

absent y descent - tamponade

giant V waves - severe tricuspid regurg

463
Q

3 stages of Fluid Overload on CXR

A

Cephalization - increased vascular marking superiorly

Lateralization - kerleys lines, interstitial opacities / infiltrates (of the interlobular septa)

Effusions and Patchy Alveolar Infiltrates

464
Q

Tessalon Pearls

A

Benzonatate - non-narcotic oral cough suppressant, antitussive last 6-8 hours - local anesthetic similar to procaine or tetracaine

465
Q

Fecal Calprotectin

A

elevated levels indicate the infiltration of neutrophils into the gastrointestinal mucosa which occurs during inflammation particularly during IBD

-necrotizing enterocolitis, cystic fibrosis, colorectal cancer, celiac dz, UC

466
Q

Corrected Ca equation for albumin…

A

Corrected Ca = Serum Ca + 0.8 (4 - Serum Albumin)

467
Q

Midodrine vs Clonidine

A

Midodrine - a1 agonist - anti-hypotensive - “pressor” - can cause supine hypertension

Clonidine - a2 agonist - anti-hypertensive - good for HTN and etoh w/d

468
Q

MRSA Treatment - IV vs PO

A

IV - Vancomycin

PO - Clinda, doxy, Bactrim, minocycline, linezolid

469
Q

What is Macrobid and a contraindication?

A

Macrobid = nitrofurantoin - check renal function also it makes people nauseated.

470
Q

What is one way to increase potency of topical steroids?

A

apply cream them wrap the dressing

471
Q

Central Sleep Apnea

A

> 65yrs, M>F, RF - HF, AF, Cerebrovascular Dz

dx with PSG

can be primary or secondary

DDx - OSA, PLMS (fmly RLS), Rotating Night Shift Workers, Narcolepsy, Resp Dz

472
Q

What are two complications of high altitude exposure?

A

HAPE and HACE - both can be treated by return to a lower altitude and steroids

HAPE - HA Pulm Edema - occurs when hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction becomes generalized leading to pulmonary hypertension and increase vascular permeability leads to alveolar edema

HACE - HA Cerebral Edema - occurs d/t cerebral vasodilation, pts will die within two days (even greater than 24hrs) without therapy

Acetazolamide can prophylax both

473
Q

JNC-8 BP Guidelines

A

<150/80 for >60 years

<140/80 for <60 years or >60 w/DM or CKD

474
Q

AKI definition?

In pt BS Goals?

A

^Cr >0.3 in <24hrs

In pt BS Goals - 120 - 180

475
Q

Microscopic Colitis

A

Watery diarrhea in a 65 year old (w>m)

RFs - NSAIDS, Tobacco… associated with celiac and AI thryroiditis

DX - biopsy

TX - bismuth, budesonide, mesalamine, cholestyramine, PO prednisone…

476
Q

Wallenberg’s Syndrome

Ondine’s Curse

A

WS - Lateral Medullary Infarct - ipsilateral vestibular and cerebellar sx w/ bulbar symptoms…

OC - apnea at the onset of sleep

477
Q

Normal Serum Osmolality

A

275 - 295 (solute concentration)

478
Q

What is the first delineation in SVT? What are examples of each category?

A

Irregular - A.Fib, MAT (3+ p-wave morphologies and irregular…wandering pacemaker is the normo-cadic version of this SVT)

Regular - Sinus, AVNRT, AVRT Orthodromic (ventricles to accessory) AVRT Antidromic (accessory to ventricles)

479
Q

IV vs PO Diuretics?

A

1 IV = 2 PO (IV stronger)

40 Lasix = 1 Bumex

480
Q

What are the three meds for heart failure - BAS?

A

Beta blockers - Coreg (carvedilol) Metoprolol, Besoprolol

Ace Inhibitors

Spironolactone

481
Q

What are the antbiotics used as first line in ESBL resistant microorganisms?

A

Carbapenems - 1st go to

Zosyn

Fluoroquinolone - if sensitive

Polymicin B - old drug

Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid) - no CKD, no elderly

482
Q

what lab do you get if you have a concern for DIC?

what is the treatment?

A

fibrinogen - if low then DIC is ruled in…

cryoprecipitate because it has fibrinogen..

483
Q

SIRS ?

QSOFA ?

A

SIRS - T, WBC, RR, HR

QSOFA - RR, BP, AMS

484
Q

Altered Mental Status in ED best first thoughts?

A

Blood Glucose
Narcan
ABG
EKG

485
Q

Define Neutropenic Fever and 1st antibiotic?

A

ANC < 500 with fever

cefipime + vanco if concern for MRSA, vanco can cause redman syndrome…

486
Q

what should you never give a patient who is on methadone?

A

Zofran they can both cause QT elongation

487
Q

what does the deep sulcus sign suggest on CXR?

A

pneumothorax

488
Q

4 D’s of Posterior Stroke…

A

dysarthria

dissiness

double vision

disequilibrium

489
Q

Subclavian Steal Syndrome

A

Subclavian Steal - stenosis of the subclavian results in collateral circulation via the vertobrobasilar system which causes posterior cerebral symptoms.

490
Q

Long Acting Insulin

Short Actin Insulin

A

Lantus - Glargine; Levemir - Determir

Novolog/Humalog

491
Q

Loftgren Syndrome

A

Triad for Sarcoid

  1. Hilar Fullness
  2. Joint Pain - particularly ankles
  3. Erythema Nodosum
492
Q

Wilsons Syndrome

A

Neuropsychiatric + Choreaform Movements + Cirrhosis + keyser Fleischer rings…

493
Q

Essential Tremor vs Parkinson’s Tremor

A

Essential is non-distracctable

Parkinsons is able to distract like if they hold something it stops.

494
Q

TTP mnemonic

HIT mnemonic

A

TTP - FATRN - Fever, Anemia, Thrombocytopenia, Renal, Neurologic

HIT - 4Ts - Thrombocytopenia, Time 5-10 days, Thrombosis, T-things to cause it.

495
Q

pentamidine

robaxin

A

pentamidine - antimicrobial used to treat PCP pneumonia

robaxin - methocarbamol - unknown mech of action but used to treat muscle spasm

496
Q

FeNa intepretation

A

< 1% - PRE-RENAL - (renal vasoconstriction, HRS, NSAIDs)

> 2% - ATN

497
Q

CAD Risk Factors

A
HTN
Smoker
Low HDL
DM
FamHx of Premature CAD (Male < 55, Female <65 - first degree)
498
Q

TIMI Risk Calculation - AAABCCS

A

stratifies risk of ischemic events and death in people with UA/NSTEMI; 1 pt each

AGE >65
Aspirin in last 7 days
Angina x 2 in 24hrs
Biomarkers elevated
CAD Known (>50% stenosis)
CAD Risk factors x 3
ST Changes > 0.5mm in contiguous leads
499
Q

Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis

Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis

Anti-glomerular Basement Membrane Antibody disease

A

Churg Strauss - RF + Blood Eosinophilia +/- Palpable Rash

Wegener’s - RF + Upper Lung sx + Lowe Lung Sx

Goodpasture Syndrome - Anti basement membrane Abs to Kidney’s Lungs

500
Q

Phlegmon

A

inflammation of the connective tissue just underneath the skin

501
Q

Complicated vs Uncomplicated UTI - definition and tx duration

Complicated vs Uncomplicated Bacteremia

A

Complicated UTI - Male, Sx > 7 days, Anatomic/Mechanic Implements

Uncomplicated UTI - 3-4 days

Complicated Bacteremia - 2-4 weeks IV abx - prosthetic valve, septic mets/seeding, endocarditis, still + after 72 hours abx

Uncomplicated Bacteremia - 2 weeks IV abx

502
Q

Stages of HF

Classification of HF

A

Stages (1-4) - asx > slight limitation > marked limitation > sx at rest

Classification (A-D) - at risk > structural dx no sx > structural with sx > refractory HF with specialized interventions

503
Q

Light’s Criteria

A

Exudative if

Protein (Pleural v Serum) > 0.5
Albumin (Pleural v Serum) > 0.6
Pleural LDH > 2/3 ULN

504
Q

Transudative Effusions

Exudative Effusions

A

T - CHF, Cirrhosis, Nephrotic Syndrome, Peritoneal Dialysis

E - infection, malignancy, PE, CABG, CT Dz, Inflammatory Dz

505
Q

Post Op Fever

A

“five W’s”

wind - atelectasis - POD 1-2
water - UTI - POD3-5
walking - DVTs - POD4-6
wound - infection - POD5-7
wonder drugs - POD7+ - iatrogenic
506
Q

Indications for Dialysis - AEIOU

A
Acidemia
Electrolytes - K
Ingestions 
Overload - volume
Uremia
507
Q

WHO PAH Classification

A
1 - Idiopathic
2 - Left Heart Disease
3 - Lung Disease
4 - CTEPH
5 - miscellaneous
508
Q

Phosphate Binders in CKD

A

people with ESRD have problems getting rid of PO4 ips facto get rid of it…

  1. Ca Containing - CaCO3, CaAcetate
  2. Non-Ca Containing - Sevelamer (polycationic), Lanthanum (rare earth metal)
509
Q

Framingham Criteria

Duke Criteria

Jones Criteria

A

Framingham - heart failure

Duke - infective endocarditis

Jones - rheumatic heart disease

510
Q

Mesenteric Ischemia (acute and chronic)

A

Mesenteric Ischemia - acute - severe pain d/t embolization… chronic - pain with meals, food avoidance, nutritional deficiency, anorexia

ischemic colitis… same shit

511
Q

MELD score

MILAN criteria

Child-Pugh score

A

MELD - model for end stage liver disease - uses bili, Cr, and INR

MILAN - one lesion < 5cm, 3 lesions < 3cm, no extrahepatic manifestations, no vascular invasion

Child-Pugh - assess prognosis of cirrhosis - bili, albumin, PT, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy

512
Q

LBBB vs RBBB direction of ventricular depolarization in V1

A

wide QRS

LBBB - negative in V1

RBBB - positive in V1

513
Q

Free Water Deficit Eq.

A

FWD = Total Body Water(0.5 * Weight in Kg) * (SerumNa - 140) /140

TBW = 50% in males and 40% in females * wt

514
Q

V/Q should be about 1

Low V/Q vs High V/Q

A

Low V/Q = poor ventilation = shunt (blood keeps pumpin but not hitting any O2) = alveolar fluid, edema, pneumonia

High V/Q = poor perfusion = dead spacing (alveoli are full of air that isn’t moving around) = PE

515
Q

Normal Synovial Fluid - WBCs, Crystals, Glucose, Stain/Culture

A

Normal - < 200 WBCs

Inflammatory - > 2000 WBCs (positively birefringent for pseudogout, negatively birefringent for gout, low glucose for RA)

Septic - > 50,000 WBCs, low glucose, positive gram / culture

516
Q

cavernous sinus thrombosis

A

blood clot in the cavernous sinuses of the head -> usually caused by URI => sx of vision loss, chemosis (swelling of conjunctiva), exophthalmos, headache, CN palsies.

517
Q

Brain on Fire - what is the type of patient and what is the next step in work up…

A

Anti-NMDA R Antibody Syndrome - patient is usually a middle aged young woman and its usually associated antibody cross reactivity due to ovarian teratoma*

Tx - Prednisone, IVIG, plasmaphoresis, estuximab

518
Q

Eosinophilic Pneumonitis

A

idiopathic vs eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis

*can be idiopathic or triggered by meds, drugs, chemicals, parasitic (Lofflers syndrome),

Dx - blood eosinophils, biopsy eos, lavage eos

Tx - steroids

519
Q

Gerstmann Syndrome

A

destruction of the inferior parietal lobe

  1. Agraphia
  2. Acalcula
  3. Finger agnosia
  4. L/R disorientation
520
Q

Causes of Thrombocytopenia

A

HIT, TTP, ITP, Liver disease (portal stasis and splenomegaly), etoh

521
Q

HIT T-score

A

occur in 5-10 days of heparin therapy or less with prior episodes of HIT… suspect when platelets drop to 1/2 baseline

Timing (5-10 days)
Thrombocytopenis (<1/2 baseline or < 50K)
Thrombosis without explanation
The other causes - Depakote, sepsis

resolves in 10-14 days

*Serotonin functional assay (HIT assay) - > measures platelet activity… HIT antibodies

522
Q

Alternatives to heparin for DVT

A

Factor 10 inhibitors - Rivaroxaban (eliquis), Apixaban

Direct Thrombin Inhibitors - bivalirudin

LMWH - lovenox - enoxaparin - RENALLY DOSE (GFR<30) - better in cancer 1mg/kg BID

523
Q

DVT

A

Provoked - smoking, surgery, flights, OCPs, 6mos - 1 yr anticoagulation

Unprovoked - intrinsic - lifetime AC

524
Q

How to treat PE?

A

Heparin Drip - loading dose of 5000U followed by drip to target PTT of 60 - 90. Check PTT Q6hrs

525
Q

NOACs - novel oral anti-coagulants - examples and contraindications

A

Pradaxa (dabigatran), Eliquis (apixaban), Xarelto (rivaroxaban)

CIs

  1. any heart valve issues
  2. ESRD / Hemodialysis
  3. Pregnancy
  4. BMI > 40
  5. Cancer
  6. Spinal Epidural Abscess

**These NOACs cause more GI bleeds but Fewer Intracranial bleeds than coumadin

526
Q

IV VitK Precautions

A

can cause anaphylaxis -> give 30-60 mins

give FFP if actively bleeding

527
Q

What must you check to ensure appropriate replacement of K?

A

Magnesium, it blocks secretion of K in the kidney making replacement of K more efficacious.

528
Q

Brugada Syndrome

A

AD - genetic defect of Na Channels - Asian males … susceptible to arrhythmia and sudden cardiac death

ECG with pseudo-RBBB and ST elevations in V1-V3

Work up with echo stress test -> genetic testing if symptomatic, ICD is definitive tx

529
Q

Polychromasia

A

increased immature blood cells

530
Q

Hematologic Abnormalities in Cirrhosis

A

Most prominently Thrombocytopenia and Leukopenia often pancytopenia

  1. Cirrhosis -> low hepatic Tpo (which is mostly produced by kidney)
  2. Portal HTN -> splenic and splanchnic sequestration and intravascular hemolysis
  3. Bone Marrow -> alcohol is a direct marrow toxin / viral suppression by hepB/C
  4. Losses -> blood loss from GI bleeds due to portal hypertensive varicosity.
531
Q

stages of cirrhosis -> compensated vs decompensated

A
compensated
...
1 - no varices no ascites
2 - varices no ascites
...
decompensated
...
3 - varices +/- ascites
4 - bleeding +/- ascites
532
Q

Clinical Course of Decompensated Cirrhosis

A

Portal Hypertension - variceal hemorrhage, ascites -> SBP, HRS

Liver Insufficiency - Encephalopathy, Jaundice

533
Q

Hepatorenal Syndrome

A

a cirrhotic liver is unable to process splanchnic vasoactive substances like NO2 and prostaglandins and as a result these compounds get released systemically leading to decreased effective circulating volume and subsequent pre-renal AKI.

Type 1 - rapidly declining renal function
Type 2 - associated with ascites that does not respond to diuresis

534
Q

What is a common cause of thrombocytosis?

A

reactive thrombocytosis - inflammatory states cause the spleen to release thrombocytes that are otherwise sequestered.

535
Q

Na Correction in Hyperglycemia

A

add 1.6 Na / 100 mg Glucose over 100

536
Q

Jarisch Herxheimer Reaction

A

release of antigenic microbial molecules due to cell lysis following antibiotic therapy. First described in syphilis but also seen in other infections.

537
Q

SNAP - for actinomyces and nocardia

A

Sulfas -> nocardia

Penicillin -> actinomyces

538
Q

What should ESRD on HD patients be on?

A

Ca/VitD and Phosphate Binders (pull PO4 out of the gut and prevent from entering circulation)