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Rosh Review > Rosh Review > Flashcards

Rosh Review Flashcards

1
Q

What is accurate regarding rotator cuff tears?

A

Historical findings are not helping in identifying rotator cuff tears

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2
Q

The production of calcitonin and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is characteristic of?

A

medullary thyroid cancer

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3
Q

Diagnosis of medullary thyroid cancer involves

A

fine needle aspiration biopsy

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4
Q

Dysphagia, diarrhea, facial flushing, solitary thyroid nodule?

A

medullary thyroid cancer dx by fine needle aspiration bx

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5
Q

well differentiated cells, lymphatic spread, with hoarseness and lymphadenopathy, is _ diagnosed with _

A

papillary thyroid cancer, dx by FNA

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6
Q

well differentiated, hematologic spread, hoarseness and lymphadenopathy, is _ diagnosed with _

A

follicular thyroid cancer, FNA and CNB (coarse needle biopsy) to confirm

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7
Q

intermediately differentiated, lymphatic spread, diarrhea and flushing, is _ dx with _

A

medullary thyroid cancer dx by FH, previous MEN dx and calcitonin level

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8
Q

poorly differentiated, lymphatic spread, presents with SOB, hoarseness and lymphadenopathy, is _ dx with _

A

anaplastic thyroid cancer, CNB (coarse needle biopsy) and surgical biopsy

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9
Q

perioral dermatitis has what characteristic?

A

sparing of the skin adjacent to the vermillion border

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10
Q

malar rash associated with

A

SLE

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11
Q

what antibiotic is used to treat severe perioral dermatitis?

A

oral tetracyclines

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12
Q

irregularly grouped, discrete red papulopustules on a red base on the face, but spare the vermillion border and

A

perioral dermatitis

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13
Q

the most well studied and preferred agent for bulimia nervosa is?

A

fluoxetine. shows effectiveness in disrupting binge eating and purging

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14
Q

__ is contraindicated in the treatment of bulimia nervosa because it causes?

A

bupropion, seizures

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15
Q

treatment for acute uncomplicated cystitis

A

TMP-SMX and nitrofurantoin

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16
Q

treatment for acute uncomplicated cystitis with comorbid conditions

A

TMP-SMX, nitrofurantoin or fluoroquinolone

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17
Q

treatment for acute cystitis in men (otherwise healthy without neurogenic bladder)

A

TMP-SMX, nitrofurantoin and ciprofloxacin

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18
Q

treatment for acute uncomplicated pyelo

A

oral fluoroquinolone or TMP SMX if moderately ill, IV fluoroquinolone or amp/gent or third gen cephalosporin if hospitalized

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19
Q

treatment for complicated UTI

A

oral fluoroquinolone or TMP SMX if moderately ill, IV fluoroquinolone or amp/gent or third gen cephalosporin if hospitalized

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20
Q

treatment for UTI in pregnancy

A

amoxicillin, amoxicillin-clavulanate, TMP-SMX, nitrofurantoin

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21
Q

treatment for pregnant with pyelo - hospitalized

A

IV amp/gent or third gent cephalosporin

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22
Q

peripheral, bibasilar reticular opacities with honeycombing and traction bronchiectasis; labs: decrease FVC and FEV1 but near normal FEV1/FVC ratio

A

idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

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23
Q

pleural plaques and linear bands of calcification on high resolution CT

A

asbestosis

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24
Q

CT findings of pleural fibrosis predominantly in the upper lobes

A

pleuropulmonary fibroelastosis

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25
Q

smokers 20-40 years of age and characterized by CT findings: multiple cysts, nodules and interstitial thickening with a mid to uppere zone predominance

A

pulmonary Langerhans cell histiocytosis

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26
Q

how does nintedanib work to slow the rate of disease progression in patients with idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

A

it is a receptor blocker for multiple tyrosine kinases which are involved in the genesis of fibrogenic growth factors

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27
Q

classic findings in coarctation of the aorta

A

systolic hypertension and diminished or delayed femoral pulses - asso with Turner

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28
Q

adults with unrepaired coarctation of the aorta are at increased risk for what other vacular disorder?

A

intracranial aneurysms

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29
Q

EKG of coarctation of the aorta will show?

A

LVH

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30
Q

CXR of coarctation of the aorta will show?

A

notching of ribs

31
Q

diagnosis of coarctation of the aorta will be?

A

echo

32
Q

what are some secondary causes of lactose intolerance?

A

bacterial overgrowth, giardiasis, crohn’s, celiac

33
Q

most initial test for myasthenias gravis

A

assay for Ach receptor antibodies

34
Q

important to obtain a ___ after diagnsosis of MG is made

A

CT of mediastinum to detect a thymoma

35
Q

proximal muscle weakness ptosis, diplopia that is worse at the end of the day

A

myasthenia’s gravis

36
Q

a rapidly rising and falling arterial pulse with a wide pulse pressure, identified by palpating the radial, brachial or carotid arteries, most often associated with ___

A

aortic regurgitation

37
Q

Dupuytren contracture asso with

A

DM

38
Q

fibrous fascial on the palmer surface to shorten and thicken (one or more pitted nodules on the palm)

A

Dupuytren contracture

39
Q

ADHD scoring system

A

connors abbreviated symptom questionnaire

40
Q

semi-lucent, pearly, nodular lesions that has a central depression and is associated with a telangiectasia

A

basal cell carcinoma

41
Q

bx of basal cell carcinoma

A

atypical basal cells with uniform large blue nuclei and indistinct cytoplasm

42
Q

skin findings for dermatitis herpetiformis?

A

granular IgA deposits at the dermal epidermal junction of the affected skin

43
Q

what is the most common histological pattern or subtype of renal cell carcinoma

A

clear cell

44
Q

non-neurogenic chronic urinary retention is defined as:

A

postvoid residual of >300mL that has persisted at least 2 months and is documented on two or more separate occasions - get a renal ultrasound

45
Q

hepatitis:

fecal-oral, shellfish, alone (no carrier), asymptomatic, acute

A

HAV

46
Q

hepatitis b

active infection

A

HBsAg

47
Q

hep B

recovered or immunized

A

Anti-HBs

48
Q

hep B

early marker of infection, positive in window period

A

Anti-HBc IgM

49
Q

hep B

best marker for prior HBV

A

Anti-HBc IgG

50
Q

hep b

low infectivity

A

Anti-HBeAb

51
Q

hepatitis:

IVDA, chronic, cirrhosis, carcinoma, carrier

A

HCV

52
Q

hepatitis:

dependent on HBV coinfection

A

HDV

53
Q

hepatitis:

fecal-oral, high morality rate among pregnant patients), epidemics

A

HEV

54
Q

part of vertebra between inferior and superior articular process of the facet joint

A

para interarticularis (neck of scottie dog)

55
Q

fracture of the parts interarticularis

A

spondylolysis

56
Q

anterior displacement of a vertebral body due to bilateral defects of the posterior arch

A

spondylolisthesis

57
Q

scheuermann (juvenile) kyphosis of the lumbar spine

A

involves the thoracic or thoracolumbar spine and presents with mid back pain made worse by flexion and extension

58
Q

side effects of testosterone therapy

A

polycythemia, blood clots, acne, breast enlargement, aggressive behavior

59
Q

FSH/LH level in primary male hypogonadism

A

elevated FSH/LH

60
Q

FSH/LH level in secondary male hypogonadism

A

normal to low FSH/LH

61
Q

preferred treatment of severe malaria

A

intravenous artesunate

62
Q

a pregnant woman with uncomplicated malaria can be treated with what antimalarial?

A

chloroquine

63
Q

overweight male age 12-16, present with progressive limp and pain localized to the groin, thigh or knee

A

SCFE

64
Q

apparaent posterior and inferior slippage of the proximal femoral epiphysis on the metaphysis

A

SCFE

65
Q

occurs in male children ages 4-10 with peak 5-7 years, presents with limp that has insidious or stuttering onset, mild, refers to groin or anteromedial aspect of knee, worse at the end of the day

A

Legg Calve Perthes Disease

66
Q

test for Legg Calve Perthe disease

A

pain and restriction with abduction and internal rotation of the hip due to synovitis and muscle spasm

67
Q

painful lump inferior to the knee seen in adolescent males

A

Osgood Schlatter disease

68
Q

most commonly caused by osteonecrosis of the proximal femoral head

A

legg calve perthes disease

69
Q

abnormal bleeding time, but normal PT, PTT and INR

A

Von Willebrand Disease

70
Q

what conditions are asso with recurring perianal abscesses and fistulae

A

Crohn disease and HIV

71
Q

wood lam yellow to yellow/green fluorescence, common recurrent superficial fungal disease that presents with hypopigmentation

A

pityriasis versicolor

72
Q

circumscribed segmental solitary area of depigmentation or hypopigmentation usually present or detected in the first few years of life

A

nevus depigmentosus

73
Q

inflammatory lesions which heal to form depressed and atrophic scars, telangiectasias, hyper pigmentation or hypopigmentation

A

discoid lupus erythematosus

74
Q

morning stiffness in hands that last more than 30 min

A

rheumatoid arthritis

Rosh Review (1 decks)

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