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Rosh Review Flashcards

(74 cards)

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1
Q

What is accurate regarding rotator cuff tears?

A

Historical findings are not helping in identifying rotator cuff tears

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2
Q

The production of calcitonin and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is characteristic of?

A

medullary thyroid cancer

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3
Q

Diagnosis of medullary thyroid cancer involves

A

fine needle aspiration biopsy

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4
Q

Dysphagia, diarrhea, facial flushing, solitary thyroid nodule?

A

medullary thyroid cancer dx by fine needle aspiration bx

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5
Q

well differentiated cells, lymphatic spread, with hoarseness and lymphadenopathy, is _ diagnosed with _

A

papillary thyroid cancer, dx by FNA

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6
Q

well differentiated, hematologic spread, hoarseness and lymphadenopathy, is _ diagnosed with _

A

follicular thyroid cancer, FNA and CNB (coarse needle biopsy) to confirm

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7
Q

intermediately differentiated, lymphatic spread, diarrhea and flushing, is _ dx with _

A

medullary thyroid cancer dx by FH, previous MEN dx and calcitonin level

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8
Q

poorly differentiated, lymphatic spread, presents with SOB, hoarseness and lymphadenopathy, is _ dx with _

A

anaplastic thyroid cancer, CNB (coarse needle biopsy) and surgical biopsy

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9
Q

perioral dermatitis has what characteristic?

A

sparing of the skin adjacent to the vermillion border

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10
Q

malar rash associated with

A

SLE

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11
Q

what antibiotic is used to treat severe perioral dermatitis?

A

oral tetracyclines

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12
Q

irregularly grouped, discrete red papulopustules on a red base on the face, but spare the vermillion border and

A

perioral dermatitis

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13
Q

the most well studied and preferred agent for bulimia nervosa is?

A

fluoxetine. shows effectiveness in disrupting binge eating and purging

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14
Q

__ is contraindicated in the treatment of bulimia nervosa because it causes?

A

bupropion, seizures

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15
Q

treatment for acute uncomplicated cystitis

A

TMP-SMX and nitrofurantoin

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16
Q

treatment for acute uncomplicated cystitis with comorbid conditions

A

TMP-SMX, nitrofurantoin or fluoroquinolone

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17
Q

treatment for acute cystitis in men (otherwise healthy without neurogenic bladder)

A

TMP-SMX, nitrofurantoin and ciprofloxacin

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18
Q

treatment for acute uncomplicated pyelo

A

oral fluoroquinolone or TMP SMX if moderately ill, IV fluoroquinolone or amp/gent or third gen cephalosporin if hospitalized

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19
Q

treatment for complicated UTI

A

oral fluoroquinolone or TMP SMX if moderately ill, IV fluoroquinolone or amp/gent or third gen cephalosporin if hospitalized

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20
Q

treatment for UTI in pregnancy

A

amoxicillin, amoxicillin-clavulanate, TMP-SMX, nitrofurantoin

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21
Q

treatment for pregnant with pyelo - hospitalized

A

IV amp/gent or third gent cephalosporin

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22
Q

peripheral, bibasilar reticular opacities with honeycombing and traction bronchiectasis; labs: decrease FVC and FEV1 but near normal FEV1/FVC ratio

A

idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

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23
Q

pleural plaques and linear bands of calcification on high resolution CT

A

asbestosis

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24
Q

CT findings of pleural fibrosis predominantly in the upper lobes

A

pleuropulmonary fibroelastosis

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25
smokers 20-40 years of age and characterized by CT findings: multiple cysts, nodules and interstitial thickening with a mid to uppere zone predominance
pulmonary Langerhans cell histiocytosis
26
how does nintedanib work to slow the rate of disease progression in patients with idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?
it is a receptor blocker for multiple tyrosine kinases which are involved in the genesis of fibrogenic growth factors
27
classic findings in coarctation of the aorta
systolic hypertension and diminished or delayed femoral pulses - asso with Turner
28
adults with unrepaired coarctation of the aorta are at increased risk for what other vacular disorder?
intracranial aneurysms
29
EKG of coarctation of the aorta will show?
LVH
30
CXR of coarctation of the aorta will show?
notching of ribs
31
diagnosis of coarctation of the aorta will be?
echo
32
what are some secondary causes of lactose intolerance?
bacterial overgrowth, giardiasis, crohn's, celiac
33
most initial test for myasthenias gravis
assay for Ach receptor antibodies
34
important to obtain a ___ after diagnsosis of MG is made
CT of mediastinum to detect a thymoma
35
proximal muscle weakness ptosis, diplopia that is worse at the end of the day
myasthenia's gravis
36
a rapidly rising and falling arterial pulse with a wide pulse pressure, identified by palpating the radial, brachial or carotid arteries, most often associated with ___
aortic regurgitation
37
Dupuytren contracture asso with
DM
38
fibrous fascial on the palmer surface to shorten and thicken (one or more pitted nodules on the palm)
Dupuytren contracture
39
ADHD scoring system
connors abbreviated symptom questionnaire
40
semi-lucent, pearly, nodular lesions that has a central depression and is associated with a telangiectasia
basal cell carcinoma
41
bx of basal cell carcinoma
atypical basal cells with uniform large blue nuclei and indistinct cytoplasm
42
skin findings for dermatitis herpetiformis?
granular IgA deposits at the dermal epidermal junction of the affected skin
43
what is the most common histological pattern or subtype of renal cell carcinoma
clear cell
44
non-neurogenic chronic urinary retention is defined as:
postvoid residual of >300mL that has persisted at least 2 months and is documented on two or more separate occasions - get a renal ultrasound
45
hepatitis: fecal-oral, shellfish, alone (no carrier), asymptomatic, acute
HAV
46
hepatitis b active infection
HBsAg
47
hep B recovered or immunized
Anti-HBs
48
hep B early marker of infection, positive in window period
Anti-HBc IgM
49
hep B best marker for prior HBV
Anti-HBc IgG
50
hep b low infectivity
Anti-HBeAb
51
hepatitis: IVDA, chronic, cirrhosis, carcinoma, carrier
HCV
52
hepatitis: dependent on HBV coinfection
HDV
53
hepatitis: fecal-oral, high morality rate among pregnant patients), epidemics
HEV
54
part of vertebra between inferior and superior articular process of the facet joint
para interarticularis (neck of scottie dog)
55
fracture of the parts interarticularis
spondylolysis
56
anterior displacement of a vertebral body due to bilateral defects of the posterior arch
spondylolisthesis
57
scheuermann (juvenile) kyphosis of the lumbar spine
involves the thoracic or thoracolumbar spine and presents with mid back pain made worse by flexion and extension
58
side effects of testosterone therapy
polycythemia, blood clots, acne, breast enlargement, aggressive behavior
59
FSH/LH level in primary male hypogonadism
elevated FSH/LH
60
FSH/LH level in secondary male hypogonadism
normal to low FSH/LH
61
preferred treatment of severe malaria
intravenous artesunate
62
a pregnant woman with uncomplicated malaria can be treated with what antimalarial?
chloroquine
63
overweight male age 12-16, present with progressive limp and pain localized to the groin, thigh or knee
SCFE
64
apparaent posterior and inferior slippage of the proximal femoral epiphysis on the metaphysis
SCFE
65
occurs in male children ages 4-10 with peak 5-7 years, presents with limp that has insidious or stuttering onset, mild, refers to groin or anteromedial aspect of knee, worse at the end of the day
Legg Calve Perthes Disease
66
test for Legg Calve Perthe disease
pain and restriction with abduction and internal rotation of the hip due to synovitis and muscle spasm
67
painful lump inferior to the knee seen in adolescent males
Osgood Schlatter disease
68
most commonly caused by osteonecrosis of the proximal femoral head
legg calve perthes disease
69
abnormal bleeding time, but normal PT, PTT and INR
Von Willebrand Disease
70
what conditions are asso with recurring perianal abscesses and fistulae
Crohn disease and HIV
71
wood lam yellow to yellow/green fluorescence, common recurrent superficial fungal disease that presents with hypopigmentation
pityriasis versicolor
72
circumscribed segmental solitary area of depigmentation or hypopigmentation usually present or detected in the first few years of life
nevus depigmentosus
73
inflammatory lesions which heal to form depressed and atrophic scars, telangiectasias, hyper pigmentation or hypopigmentation
discoid lupus erythematosus
74
morning stiffness in hands that last more than 30 min
rheumatoid arthritis

Rosh Review (1 decks)

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