Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PANCE Prep > Rosh Review > Flashcards

Rosh Review Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common cause of secondary HTN?

A

CKD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is considered to be stage 1 HTN?

A

130 - 139 / 80 - 89

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is required to diagnose a pt with HTN?

A

2 elevated BP readings on 2 occasions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the 1st line treatment options for the general population when treating HTN?

A

Thiazides (HCTZ, chlorthalidone)
CCBs (amlodipine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Patients who have HTN and CKD w/albuminuria should be treated with what?

A

ACE inhibitors (lisinopril) OR
ARB (losartan, valsartan)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What BP medications cannot be used together?

A

ACEi and ARB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What conditions would be contraindications to giving BBs for HTN?

A

Asthma and COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are common side effects of ACEi?

A

Cough and angioedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the difference between hypertensive urgency and hypertensive emergency?

A

There is no end-organ damage occurring in hypertensive urgency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What BP level is considered a hypertensive urgency/emergency?

A

> 180 / > 110 - 120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the treatment for hypertensive emergency?

A

Nicardipine +/- labetalol OR
Clevidipine +/- esmolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What signs/symptoms would indicate that there is end-organ damage with an elevated BP (hypertensive emergency)?

A

CNS (dizziness, N/V)
Eyes (papilledema)
Heart (angina, MI)
Kidneys (hematuria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How aggressive should treatment be during a hypertensive emergency?

A

Reduce BP by 10-20% in the 1st hr, and 5-15% in the following 23 hrs
< 180/120 (1st hr)
< 160/110 (23 hrs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Are medications given PO or IV during a hypertensive emergency?

A

IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What condition can present with xanthomas on skin, eyelids, and the achilles tendon area?

A

Hyperlipidemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What labs are indicative of hyperlipidemia?

A

Increased serum total cholesterol
Increased LDL
Decreased HDL
Increased serum triglycerides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Pts with diabetes aged 45-75yo and an elevated LDL should be started on what medication?

A

Moderate intensity statin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What meds are commonly used for high-intensity statin therapy?

A

Atorvastatin 40-80mg
Rosuvastatin 20mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What meds are commonly used for low-intensity statin therapy?

A

Simvastatin 10mg
Pravastatin 10-20mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the 1st and 2nd line treatment for hyperlipidemia?

A

1st: statins
2nd: cholesterol absorption inhibitor (ezetimibe)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What medication commonly used in the treatment of hyperlipidemia is associated with causing flushing and how can this be avoided?

A

Nicotinic acid (niacin)
Reduce with giving aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What medications are used for lowering triglycerides?

A

Fibric acids (fenofibrate, gemfibrozil)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the treatment regimen for pure hypertriglyceridemia?

A

1st line: Fibrates (fenofibrate, gemfibrozil)
2nd line: Niacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the most common cause of stable angina pectoris?

A

Atherosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the most common risk factor for stable angina pectoris?

A

HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How does stable angina pectoris commonly present?

A

Exertional substernal chest pain that lasts < 10 mins, and is relieved with rest and/or nitro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the 1st imaging test performed on a pt who presents with stable angina pectoris?

A

EKG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the gold standard test for diagnosing stable angina pectoris?

A

Cardiac cath w/coronary angiography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the pharm treatment for stable angina pectoris?

A

Aspirin
Sublingual nitro
BBS for rate control (1st line)
CCBs (2nd line, unless brady or hypotensive)
Statin therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the most common cause of unstable angina pectoris?

A

Enlarged stenosis w/thrombosis, hemorrhage, or plaque rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the most common manifestation/presentation of unstable angina pectoris?

A

Chest pain at rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is seen on EKG in pts with unstable angina pectoris?

A

ST-depression or T-wave flattening and/or inversions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which leads correlate with the anterior portion of the heart on EKG?

A

V1 - V4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which leads correlate with the lateral portion of the heart on EKG?

A

5, 6, 1, AVL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which leads correlate with the inferior portion of the heart on EKG?

A

2, 3, AVF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the initial pharm treatment for unstable angina?

A

O2 (sats < 90%)
Nitro
Morphine (or fentanyl)
BBs
Statin
Antiplatelet (aspirin)
Anticoagulation (heparin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Pts with unstable angina who fail medication therapy and/or have EKG changes that persist after 48 hrs require what treatment?

A

Cardiac cath and revascularization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Pts having an NSTEMI have what elevated biomarker?

A

Troponin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the 1st line treatment for NSTEMI?

A

BB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is a TIMI score?

A

Used to estimate mortality in pts with unstable angina and NSTEMI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Aside from ST-segment elevation, what other EKG change is suggestive of a STEMI?

A

New LBBB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What artery is associated with STEMI seen in the anterior (V1-V4) leads?

A

LAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What artery is associated with STEMI seen in the inferior (2,3,AVF) leads?

A

RCA or left circumflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What artery is associated with STEMI seen in the lateral (1,V5,V6, AVL) leads?

A

Left circumflex or diagonal of LAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Pts with STEMI that require revascularization require what procedure and when should this be performed?

A

Percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) within 90 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the most common mechanical complication post MI?

A

Ventricular free wall rupture (w/i 24 hrs or 1-2 weeks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How long after an MI would you be concerned about Dressler syndrome?

A

2-10 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How does prinzmetal angina typically present?

A

Substernal chest discomfort at rest occurring between midnight and early AM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing prinzmetal angina?

A

Coronary angiography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the treatment for prinzmetal angina?

A

CCB (1st)
Sublingual nitro
Statin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the most common cardiomyopathy in the US?

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the most common cause of dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

Alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What physically happens to the heart in dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

Dilation and impaired contraction of 1 or both ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are common signs/symptoms of dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

Pedal edema
JVD
Hepatosplenomegaly
DOE
S3, S4 sounds
AFIB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What signs/symptoms can tell us whether the dilated cardiomyopathy is L or R sided?

A

L sided: dyspnea
R sided: JVD or pedal edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Does L or R sided dilated cardiomyopathy typically occur first?

A

L sided first, which then causes R sided

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

An S4 heart sound is indicative of what?

A

Non-compliant L ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the 1st line imaging for diagnosing dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

Echo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the 1st line pharm treatment of dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

BBs AND
ACEi or ARB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

Autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What murmur is indicative of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

Harsh mid-systolic crescendo-decrescendo best heard at LLSB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What maneuvers increase and decrease the murmur associated with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

Increase: valsalva and standing
Decrease: squatting and hand grip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What might been seen on the EKG of a pt with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

Tall R waves in V4 - V6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

Echo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the management for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

Avoid strenuous exercise and dehydration
BB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are common causes of restrictive cardiomyopathy?

A

Amyloidosis
Sarcoidosis
Hemochromatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What common medical treatment can cause restrictive cardiomyopathy?

A

Chest radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

In restrictive cardiomyopathy, which side typically fails first?

A

R side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing restrictive cardiomyopathy?

A

Endomyocardial biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the classic triad of WPW syndrome?

A

Slurred upstroke of QRS (delta wave)
Wide QRS
Short PR interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Generally speaking, heart dysrhythmias that are UNSTABLE get what treatment?

A

Tachy and unstable: synchronized cardioversion
Brady and unstable: pace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What pts with AFIB or atrial flutter get oral anticoagulation for long-term management

A

Pts with a CHADS-VASc score >/= 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

How does a RBBB appear on an EKG?

A

Rabbit ears in V1 and V2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

How does a LBBB appear on an EKG?

A

W in V5 and V6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is seen on an EKG in a pt with a 1st degree heart block?

A

Fixed, prolonged PR interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are the memory tools for 2nd and 3rd degree heart blocks?

A

Longer, longer, longer drop then you have a Wenckebach (Mobitz I)
Some Q’s don’t get through then you have a Mobitz II
P’s and Q’s don’t agree then you have a 3rd degree

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the treatment for a 1st degree and Mobitz I heart block?

A

Asymptomatic: no tx
Symptomatic: atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the treatment for Mobitz II and 3rd degree heart block?

A

Permanent pacemaker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is seen on EKG in pts with pSVT?

A

Regular rate and rhythm
HR: 160-220
P waves may not be visible
QRS usually narrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the treatment for pSVT?

A

Vagal maneuvers
IV adenosine (or IV CCBs or BBs)
Sync. cardioversion if hemodynamically unstable (or meds aren’t working)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What medications can be tried if IV adenosine (1st line) does not work in a pt with pSVT?

A

Amio or procainamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

How is Vtach described on EKG?

A

Wide QRS tachycardia
HR: 100 - 250
All beats look the same (one beat can be replicated on the next)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is the treatment for Vtach?

A

Sustained (> 30 sec): sync. cardiovert, unless pulseless arrest in which CPR and defib (unsync. cardiovert)
Nonsustained: no tx if asymptomatic; otherwise electrolyte correction +/- ICD placement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

How is vfib described on EKG?

A

Disorganized with no associated pulse and no discernable P, T, or QRS waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the treatment of vfib?

A

CPR + defib
Epi every 3-5 mins
Amio or lidocaine
ICD long-term

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What commonly causes torsades?

A

Digoxin
Macrolides
Hypokalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is the management of torsades?

A

IV mag sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) is classified as what?

A

Systolic HF
LVEF < 40%
Usually caused by ischemic heart disease/recent MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF) is classified as what?

A

Diastolic HF
LVEF > 40%
Commonly caused by HTN, CAD, DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Is L or R HF more common?

A

Left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Pts with R sided HF typically present with what symptoms?

A

SYSTEMIC - Roads
Fatigue
JVD
LE edema
Weight gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Pts with L sided HF typically present with what symptoms?

A

PULM - Lungs
DOE
Tachypnea
Cough
Pulm crackles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

According to the NYHA classification of HF, what symptoms are associated with class I (lowest class) and class IV (highest class)?

A

I: asymptomatic during daily activities
IV: symptoms at rest; any activity results in limitations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What lab is likely to be elevated on pts with HF?

A

NT-proBNP or BNP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Aside from HF, what other condition can also cause an elevated NT-proBNP/BNP?

A

Renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is the gold standard imaging study for HF?

A

Echo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What might be seen on a CXR in a pt with HF?

A

Cardiomegaly
Pulmonary congestion (Kerley B lines)
Pleural effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is the treatment for HFrEF (systolic dysfunction)?

A

Fluid and salt restrict
Diuretic + ACEi or ARB + BB
ICD for pts with EF < 35%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What medications should be avoided in pts with HF?

A

Metformin
Thiazolidinediones
NSAIDs
CCBs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is the treatment for acute decompensated HF?

A

O2
IV loop diuretic
IV vasodilator (nitro)
IV inotrope (dobutamine)
+/- IV vasopressors (norepi)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is the most common cause of cardiogenic shock?

A

Acute MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

HR increases in all types of shock except which 1?

A

Neurogenic; HR decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Mixed venous oxygen (SvO2) decreases in all types of shock except which 1?

A

Septic; increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

In which type of shock does cardiac output increase early on, but decrease later?

A

Septic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Which 2 types of shock have increased pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP)?

A

Cardiogenic and obstructive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What will be seen on an echo in a pt with cardiogenic shock?

A

Decreased ventricular systolic function as well as decreased stroke volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is the treatment for cardiogenic shock?

A

ABCs
Avoid aggressive IV fluids
Inotropes (dobutamine, milrinone)
Vasopressors (dopamine, norepi)
Diuretics (furosemide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What size does the aorta have to be dilated to to be considered an aneurysm?

A

> 3cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

A true aneurysm involves what layers of the aorta?

A

All 3
Pseudo only involves tunica intima and tunica media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What is the most common type of aortic aneurysm?

A

Abdominal (AAA) (infrarenal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What imaging is performed in a pt with suspected AAA?

A

Stable: CTA w/con
Unstable: US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

If a CXR or KUB is done on a pt with AAA, what might be seen?

A

Widened mediastinum
Enlarged aortic knob
Calcifications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What AAAs get repaired?

A

Emergency repair for ruptures
> 5.5cm (men)
> 5cm (women)
Rapidly expanding (> 0.5cm in 6 mos)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What is the screening recommendation for AAA?

A

1 time screening US for men 65-73 with a history of smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Where do Type A and Type B aortic dissections occur?

A

Type A: ascending aorta
Type B: descending aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

How are aortic dissections managed?

A

Type A: emergency surgery
Type B: medical managment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What is the most common cause of aortic dissection?

A

Long-standing HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What are the imaging studies used 1st line for aortic dissection?

A

Hemo stable: CTA or MRA (if CT contraindicated)
Hemo unstable: TEE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What are the first line meds used when treating aortic dissection?

A

IV BBs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What are the 6 P’s of symptoms seen in arterial embolism/thrombosis?

A

Pain
Pallor
Pulselessness
Paresthesia
Poikilothermia
Paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What is the gold standard imaging for diagnosing arterial embolism/thrombosis?

A

Catheter based anigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Arterial embolism/thrombosis is a surgical emergency. What anticoagulation should be started while awaiting surgery?

A

Heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What condition is associated with polymyalgia rheumatica?

A

Temporal (giant cell) arteritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of temporal arteritis?

A

HA, vision changes, jaw claudication, temporal scalp tenderness, temporal artery enlargement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What labs are elevated in pts with temporal arteritis?

A

ESR and CRP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing temporal arteritis?

A

Temporal artery biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What is the treatment for temporal arteritis?

A

Prednisone
If vision loss: IV methylprednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What artery is most commonly affected in PAD?

A

Superficial femoral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What is the most common risk factor for PAD?

A

Tobacco use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Symptoms of PAD will commonly include what?

A

Symptoms improve with rest and are reproduced with ambulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Severe PAD will present with what symptoms?

A

Pain at rest
Standing or hanging their foot over the side of the bed improves pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What is commonly seen on PE in PAD?

A

Weak or absent pulses
Thin/shiny skin
Hair loss
Lateral malleolar ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

If an ABI is done in the workup of PAD, what level indicates the diagnosis?

A

< 0.9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What is the gold standard imaging for diagnosing PAD?

A

Contrast arteriography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of chronic venous insufficiency?

A

Legs that feel heavy, aching, itching
Prolonged standing aggravates symptoms
Walking and elevation of legs relieves symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What is commonly seen on PE of chronic venous insufficiency?

A

Dependent pitting edema
Hyperpigmentation and stasis dermatitis
Shallow ulcer over medial malleolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What is the 1st line imaging for chronic venous insufficiency?

A

Venous duplex US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What is the Virchow triad?

A

Factors contributing to developing DVT
Circulatory stasis
Endothelial injury
Hypercoagulable state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What is the Homan sign?

A

Pain when squeezing the calf in a DVT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What is used to test the probability of a DVT?

A

Wells score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

How many days would a pt need to be bedridden to be at increased risk for DVT?

A

> 3 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

How does a D-dimer test rule out a DVT?

A

Only if the D-dimer is negative does it r/o a DVT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What is the 1st line imaging for a DVT?

A

Doppler US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing a DVT?

A

Contrast venography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What anticoagulation is used for short-term and long-term use in pts with DVT?

A

Short: UFH and LMWH
Long: warfarin or NOACs (rivaroxaban or apixaban)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

A massive iliofemoral DVT AKA phlegmasia cerulea dolens requires what treatment?

A

Thrombectomy or thrombolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What mnemonic is used to remember systolic and diastolic valve disorders?

A

PASS: pulmonic and aortic stenosis = systolic
PAID: pulmonic and aortic insufficiency = diastolic

148
Q

What type of murmur is heard in aortic stenosis?

A

Harsh crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur heard best in the 2nd R ICS

149
Q

What is the treatment for aortic stenosis and what meds should be avoided?

A

Aortic valve replacement
Avoid: diuretics, BBs, vasodilators

150
Q

What type of murmur is heard in aortic regurg?

A

Diastolic decrescendo that is high-pitched and blowing heard best at LSB when the pt is sitting up and leaning forward

151
Q

What might be used to describe a patient’s pulse pressure in aortic regurg?

A

Widened arterial pulse pressure
AKA Corrigan pulse or Quincke pulse

152
Q

What is the most common cause of mitral stenosis?

A

Rheumatic fever (strep pharyngitis)

153
Q

What is the murmur heard with mitral stenosis?

A

“The operating system is Microsoft”
Opening snap
Low-pitched rumbling heard best lying on L side

154
Q

What is the murmur heard in mitral regurg?

A

Holosystolic that is loud and blowing best heard at the apex and radiates to the axilla

155
Q

Mitral valve prolapse is commonly seen in what disorders?

A

Ehler-Danlos and Marfan

156
Q

What is the murmur heard with mitral valve prolapse?

A

“In order to be MVP, team must click”
Systolic click best heard at the apex

157
Q

What is the murmur heard in pulmonary stenosis?

A

Crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur at 2nd L ICS

158
Q

What is the most common cause of tricuspid regurg?

A

L sided HF

159
Q

What is the murmur heard in tricuspid regurg?

A

Blowing holosystolic that increases with inspiration best heard at the LLSB

160
Q

All valvular disorders are diagnosed with what gold standard imaging?

A

Echo

161
Q

What valves are commonly affected in infective endocarditis?

A

Mitral valve (MC)
Tricuspid (IVDU)

162
Q

What are the most common causes of infective endocardititis?

A

Native valves: strep viridans
Prosthetic valves: staph epi
IVDU: staph aureus

163
Q

What are signs/symptoms of infective endocarditis?

A

Fever, CP, dyspnea, cough
PE: new heart murmur, splinter hemorrhages, Janeway lesions, osler nodes, roth spots (eyes)

164
Q

What is the gold standard imaging for diagnosis infective endocarditis?

A

TEE

165
Q

What is the modified Duke criteria?

A

Used in diagnosing infective endocarditis
Must have 2 major, 1 major & 3 minor, or 5 minor criteria

166
Q

What is the treatment for infective endocarditis?

A

Native valve: nafcillin, oxacillin OR cephalosporin (ceftriaxone, cefepime) AND vanc
Prosthetic valve: vanc + gent + rifampin
Both for 4-6 weeks

167
Q

What medication is commonly used as prophylaxis for endocarditis prior to procedures?

A

PO Amoxicillin 2g 30-60 mins prior to procedure

168
Q

What is seen on EKG in pts with acute pericarditis?

A

Diffuse ST elevations

169
Q

What are common causes of acute pericadititis?

A

Infection (viral, TB, bacterial)
Post MI (Dressler)
Uremia (CKD)

170
Q

What are signs/symptoms of acute pericarditis?

A

CP that improves with sitting up and leaning forward
Pericardial friction rub on exam

171
Q

What is the treatment of acute pericarditis in most adult patients?

A

Aspirin or ibuprofen or indomethacin AND colchicine

172
Q

In what situation of acute pericarditis would you NOT recommend ibuprofen or indomethacin as part of the treatment?

A

Post MI

173
Q

If a pt has acute pericarditis and has a contraindication to NSAIDs, what is the treatment regiment?

A

Prednisone AND colchicine

174
Q

What is Beck’s triad?

A

Physical exam findings in cardiac tamponade
Hypotension, JVD, muffled heart sounds

175
Q

What is seen on EKG in cardiac tamponade?

A

Electrical alternans (QRS looks different with each beat)

176
Q

What is the treatment for cardiac tamponade?

A

Normal saline IV fluids
Pericardiocentesis
Pericardial window

177
Q

What measurement of induration on a TB skin test is positive?

A

No risk factors: > 15mm
High risk (health care, IVDU): > 10mm
Immunocomp. (HIV): > 5mm

178
Q

What is the gold standard diagnostic imaging for pulmonary nodules?

A

CT w/o contrast

179
Q

What is the most common malignant and benign pulmonary nodule?

A

Malignant: adenocarcinoma
Benign: granuloma

180
Q

When should pulmonary nodules be followed up?

A

< 6mm: no f/u if low risk; optional CT at 12 mos if high risk
6-8mm: CT at 6-12 mos
> 8mm: CT at 3, 9, 24 mos if low risk; PET, biopsy if high risk

181
Q

What is the USPSTF lung cancer screening recommendation?

A

Adults 50 - 80 yo with a 20 pack year smoking history and currently smoke, or who have quit within the past 15 years should get a yearly low dose CT unless they have not smoked for 15 years

182
Q

What is seen on PFTs of a patient with chronic bronchitis?

A

Decreased FEV1 and FEV1/FVC (< 0.7 or 70%)
Normal or increased TLC and RV
Normal DLCO

183
Q

Emphysema is characterized by what lung abnormality?

A

Loss of recoil and alveolar surface area

184
Q

What can cause COPD in patients who have never smoked?

A

Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

185
Q

What is seen on PFTs in emphysema?

A

Decreased FEV1 and FEV1/FVC (< 0.7 or 70%)
Normal or increased TLC and RV
Decreased DLCO

186
Q

Patients with idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis show what on PFTs?

A

Normal to increased FEV1
Normal to decreased FEV1/FVC
Decreased DLCO

187
Q

What intervention improves survival in pts with COPD?

A

O2

188
Q

If a pt with COPD has pneumonia, what is the most likely causative agent?

A

H. flu

189
Q

Most COPD pts are treated with a regimen of what?

A

LABA + LAMA

190
Q

What is the management of an acute COPD exacerbation?

A

Albuterol
Ipratropium (anticholinergic)
Prednisone
Resp support
Abx

191
Q

What is the most common cause of a transudative pleural effusion?

A

CHF

192
Q

What is shown in the light criteria for transudative pleural effusions?

A

Protein: < 0.5
LDH: < 0.6

193
Q

What is shown in the light criteria for exudative pleural effusions?

A

Protein: > 0.5
LDH: > 0.6

194
Q

What commonly causes an exudative pleural effusion?

A

Malignancy

195
Q

What is the treatment for a pleural effusion?

A

Thoracentesis

196
Q

What signs/symptoms would be concerning for a PE?

A

HAD CLOTS
Hormones (estrogen)
Age (> 50)
DVT/PE Hx
Coughing blood
Leg swelling
O2 < 95%
Tachy
Surgery w/i last 4 weeks

197
Q

If a patient is suspected of having a PE and cannot get a CTA (pregnancy, CKD/AKI) what test should be ordered?

A

V/Q scan

198
Q

What is commonly seen on EKG in a PE?

A

Sinus tach
S1Q3T3 pattern

199
Q

What is the gold standard definitive diagnostic test for pulmonary HTN?

A

R heart cath

200
Q

What is the management for pulmonary HTN?

A

CCBs
PDE-5 inhibitors
O2
Anticoagulate

201
Q

What is the most common cause of cor pulmonale?

A

Acute: PE
Chronic: COPD

202
Q

What is seen on physical exam in idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis that is not seen in conditions like asthma and COPD?

A

Digital clubbing

203
Q

What is the gold standard diagnostic imaging for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

A

High-resolution CT

204
Q

What is seen on CT of a pt with IPF?

A

Honeycombing

205
Q

What is the treatment of IPF?

A

O2
Antifibrotics (nintedanib, pirfenidone)
Lung transplant (definitive)

206
Q

What are the pathologies of penumoconiosis?

A

Coal worker lung: coal mining
Berylliosis: aerospace, fluorescent bulbs
Silicosis: mining
Siderosis: arc welding
Stannosis: tin welding
Asbestosis: ships, demolition

207
Q

What is seen on CXR in silicosis?

A

Hilar lymphadenopathy
Egg shell calcifications

208
Q

What is seen on imaging in asbestosis?

A

Lower lobe predominant reticular opacities
Pleural plaques

209
Q

What complication can arise from pneumoconiosis?

A

Malignant mesothelioma

210
Q

What extrapulmonary symptoms are seen in sarcoidosis?

A

Lupus pernio
Erythema nodosum
Anterior uveitis

211
Q

What lab level is only seen in sarcoidosis?

A

Elevated serum ACE levels

212
Q

What is seen on CXR in sarcoidosis?

A

Bilateral hilar adenopathy

213
Q

What is seen on histology in sarcoidosis?

A

Noncaseating granulomas

214
Q

What is the atopic triad?

A

Asthma
Atopic dermatitis
Allergic rhinitis

215
Q

What is Samter’s triad?

A

Aspirin/NSAID sensitivity
Nasal polyps
Asthma

216
Q

Does the obstruction caused by asthma get better or stay the same when given bronchodilators?

A

Gets better

217
Q

What would be considered moderate-persistant asthma?

A

Day time symptoms daily
Night time symptoms > 1x/week but not nightly
FEV1 > 60% but < 80%
Some activity limitations

218
Q

What is the step-wise approach to asthma treatment?

A

1: PRN SABA
2: PRN SABA + low-dose ICS
3: daily and PRN combo low-dose ICS (formoterol)
4: increase to medium dose combo ICS
5: medium-high dose ICS (LABA) + LAMA and PRN SABA
6: high dose ICS + oral steroids + PRN SABA

219
Q

What is the most common cause of ARDS?

A

Sepsis

220
Q

What is seen on CXR in ARDS?

A

Complete white out

221
Q

What is the gold standard diagnostic test for GERD?

A

Ambulatory pH monitoring

222
Q

What occurs in pts with Barrett esophagus?

A

Normal squamous epithelium changes to metaplastic columnar epithelium

223
Q

What is primarily an idiopathic motility disorder that is characterized by decreased peristalsis and progressive dysphagia?

A

Achalasia

224
Q

What is the 1st imaging study and gold standard diagnostic study for achalasia?

A

1st: barium esophagram (bird beak appearance)
GS: esophageal manometry

225
Q

What is the most common treatment for achalasia?

A

Pneumatic balloon dilation of LES

226
Q

What is the treatment of acute bleeding in esophageal varices?

A

Octreotide
Emergent EGD for banding

227
Q

What medication is used as prevention of esophageal varices?

A

Non-selective BBs

228
Q

What is the definitive treatment for esophageal varices?

A

TIPS

229
Q

What is the most common type of esophageal cancer?

A

Adenocarcinoma (in the US)
SCC (worldwide)

230
Q

What are the biggest risk factors for esophageal cancer?

A

GERD and Barrett’s
Smoking
ETOH use

231
Q

What are common causes of acute gastritis?

A

H. pylori (MC)
NSAIDs/aspirin

232
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing gastritis?

A

Endoscopy w/biopsy

233
Q

How can H. pylori be detected?

A

Serology
Stool antigen test
Urea breath test

234
Q

What is the quadruple treatment for H. pylori?

A

PPI
Bismuth
Metronidazole
Tetracycline (doxy)
x 14 days

235
Q

How does food help differentiate where ulcers may be in the GI system?

A

Decreased pain w/food = duodenal ulcer
Increased pain w/food = gastric ulcer

236
Q

What is increased in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?

A

Gastrin

237
Q

What needs to be done following 14 days of quad therapy for H. pylori?

A

Urea breath test to confirm eradication

238
Q

What physical exam findings are indicative of metastatic gastric cancer?

A

Virchow node (supraclavicular)
Sister Mary Joseph nodule (at umbilicus)

239
Q

What is the gold standard diagnostic imaging for a SBO?

A

Abdominal CT w/oral and IV contrast

240
Q

What medication can be used for pts with gallstones that are symptomatic but do not wish to pursue surgery?

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid

241
Q

What is a boas sign?

A

Referred shoulder pain from gallbladder infection

242
Q

What is the gold standard diagnostic test for cholecystitis?

A

HIDA
AKA cholescintigraphy or hepatobiliary scintigraphy

243
Q

What is the gold standard diagnostic and therapeutic imaging study for choledocholithiasis?

A

ERCP

244
Q

What is cholangitis?

A

A biliary tract infection that occurs 2/2 gallstone obstruction in the common bile duct

245
Q

What symptoms make up Charcot’s triad?

A

RUQ pain
Fever
Jaundice

246
Q

What symptoms make up Reynolds pentad?

A

RUQ pain
Fever
Jaundice
Confusion
Hypotension

247
Q

What is the only Hepatitis that is a DNA instead of an RNA type?

A

Hep B

248
Q

Which hepatitis’ transmit via oral-fecal route?

A

Hep A and E

249
Q

Which hepatitis’ are co-dependent?

A

Hep D and B (can’t have D w/o B)

250
Q

In acute hepatitis, which liver enzyme is usually more elevated?

A

ALT > AST

251
Q

Acute and chronic Hep B have what positive serologic markers?

A

HBsAg

252
Q

What Hep B serologic markers would indicate that a patient has recovered from Hep B or was immunized?

A

Positive anti-HBs

253
Q

What do IgG and IgM represent on serologic markers related to hepatitis?

A

IgG = gone/recovered
IgM = right meow

254
Q

Which hepatitis is the only one that is treated with direct acting antiviral medications and not supportive care?

A

Hep C

255
Q

Which hepatitis’ do not become chronic?

A

Hep A and E

256
Q

What are common causes of cirrhosis?

A

Chronic Hep C (MC)
ETOH

257
Q

What lab studies are seen in cirrhosis?

A

Macrocytic anemia (decreased B12 or folate)
Thrombocytopenia
Increased LFTs
Decreased albumin
Increased ammonia

258
Q

What is the treatment for hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Lactulose or rifaximin

259
Q

What is the most common cause of deaths due to cancer worldwide?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

260
Q

An increase in what lab is suspicious/diagnostic for hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

AFP > 20 = suspicious
AFP > 400 = diagnostic

261
Q

What is the protocol for screening for hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

US every 6 mos +/- AFP in high risk patients

262
Q

What is used to determine prognosis of acute pancreatitis?

A

Ranson criteria

263
Q

What labs are elevated in acute pancreatitis?

A

Serum lipase (more specific)
Amylase

264
Q

What is the test of choice for acute pancreatitis?

A

CT of the abdomen w/contrast

265
Q

What is the most common cause of chronic pancreatitis?

A

Alcohol

266
Q

What is the triad of symptoms seen in chronic pancreatitis?

A

Calcifications
Steatorrhea
DM

267
Q

What is a difference between acute and chronic pancreatitis related to labs?

A

Lipase and amylase may be normal in chronic

268
Q

What is the most sensitive imaging study in chronic pancreatitis?

A

ERCP

269
Q

What is the most common type of pancreatic cancer?

A

Adenocarcinoma

270
Q

What is a physical exam finding seen in pancreatic cancer?

A

Courvoisier sign (palpable nontender gallbladder)
Trousseau syndrome (migratory thrombophlebitis)

271
Q

What tumor marker is used for monitoring after treatment of pancreatic cancer?

A

CA 19-9

272
Q

Where is diverticulosis most commonly found?

A

In the sigmoid colon

273
Q

What procedure is contraindicated in patients with diverticulitis?

A

Colonoscopy due to risk of perf

274
Q

What is the gold standard diagnostic imaging for diverticulitis?

A

CT of the abdomen/pelvis w/oral and IV contrast

275
Q

What is the outpt and inpt treatment for diverticulitis?

A

Outpt: ciprofloxain + metronidazole OR amoxicillin-clavulanate w/follow up in 48 hrs
Inpt: IV abx 3-5 days with switch to PO to complete 10-14 day course

276
Q

When should pts with diverticulitis have a colonoscopy?

A

6-8 weeks after resolution of clinical symptoms

277
Q

What conditions are associated with HLA-B27?

A

PAIR
Psoriatic arthritis
Ankylosing spondylitis
IBD
Reactive arthritis

278
Q

What condition presents as recurrent, dull abdominal pain that occurs 10-30 mins after eating?

A

Chronic mesenteric ischemia

279
Q

What is the gold standard imaging for mesenteric ischemia?

A

CTA

280
Q

What artery is most commonly involved in acute mesenteric ischemia?

A

SMA

281
Q

What is a common presentation of acute mesenteric ischemia?

A

Sudden onset of diffuse severe pain that is out of proportion to exam

282
Q

What is the most common cause of a large bowel obstruction?

A

Colon cancer
Volvulus (MC non-cancer)

283
Q

What are the most common causes of toxic megacolon?

A

IBD or C. diff

284
Q

What colonic dilation is indicative of toxic megacolon?

A

> 6 cm

285
Q

At what age do you start colon cancer screening for average risk patients?

A

45

286
Q

What is the tumor marker associated with colon cancer?

A

CEA

287
Q

What is the most common inheritable thrombophilia and what is the genetic inheritability pattern?

A

Factor V leiden
Autosomal dominant

288
Q

Pts with factor V leiden commonly develop what?

A

DVT
PE
Miscarriages

289
Q

What is seen on labs in pts with ITP?

A

Isolated thrombocytopenia (platelet count < 100,000)
Megakaryocytes on peripheral smear
Normal coagulation studies

290
Q

What platelet count is considered critical thrombocytopenia?

A

< 20,000

291
Q

What is the treatment for ITP that has minor bleeding or severe thrombocytopenia (< 30,000) w/o bleeding?

A

Glucocorticoids
IVIG

292
Q

What is the classic pentad for TTP?

A

FAT RN
Fever
Anemia
Thrombocytopenia
Renal injury
Neuro findings

293
Q

What is seen on labs in TTP?

A

Severe thrombocytopenia
Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
Schistocytes on peripheral blood smear
Normal coagulation studies

294
Q

What is the treatment for TTP?

A

Plasma exchange therapy

295
Q

What is the most common inherited bleeding disorder?

A

Von Willebrand Disease

296
Q

What is a common clinical manifestation of vWD?

A

Mucocutaneous bleeding (nose, gums)

297
Q

What is seen on coagulation studies in pts with vWD?

A

Normal PT
Prolonged PTT

298
Q

What is the management of vWD?

A

Major surgery/bleeding: vWF concentrate
Minor procedure/bleeding: desmopressin

299
Q

Both hemophilia A and B have what coagulation studies?

A

Normal platelet function
Normal PT
Prolonged PTT
Normal bleeding time

300
Q

What factor is deficient in hemophilia A and B?

A

A: factor VIII
B: factor IX

301
Q

What symptoms are associated with severe IDA?

A

Pallor
Koilonychia (dents in nails)
Atrophic glossitis
Angular cheilosis

302
Q

What lab findings are seen in IDA?

A

Low MCV
Low iron
Low ferritin
High TIBC
High transferrin

303
Q

What labs are seen in anemia of chronic disease?

A

Low MCV
Low iron
Low TIBC
Normal/high ferritin
Normal transferrin

304
Q

What labs are seen in thalassemia?

A

Low MCV
Low TIBC
Low transferrin
Normal iron
Normal ferritin

305
Q

What is seen on peripheral blood smear in IDA?

A

Hypochromic microcytic blood cells

306
Q

What are common causes of folate deficiency?

A

Meds (methotrexate, trimethoprim)
Chronic ETOH
Pregnancy

307
Q

What labs are seen in folate deficiency?

A

MCV > 100
Increased homocysteine
Normal MMA

308
Q

Vitamin B12 can be differentiated from folate deficiency/IDA by what?

A

Neurologic symptoms

309
Q

What labs are seen in B12 deficiency?

A

MCV > 100
Increased MMA and homocysteine

310
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of G6PD deficiency?

A

X-linked recessive

311
Q

What is seen on peripheral smear in pts with G6PD deficiency?

A

Bite cells and Heinz bodies

312
Q

What labs are elevated in polycythemia vera?

A

Hct and Hgb

313
Q

What is the primary treatment for polycythemia vera?

A

Phlebotomy

314
Q

What is seen on peripheral blood smear in pts with sickle cell?

A

Sickled red blood cells
Howell-Jolly bodies

315
Q

What medication is used in sickle cell pts to reduce vaso-occlusive episodes?

A

Hydroxyurea

316
Q

What condition shows target cells on peripheral smear?

A

Beta thalassemia

317
Q

What is the most common cancer in children?

A

ALL

318
Q

What is seen on bone biopsy in a pt with ALL?

A

Hypercellular w/ > 20% blasts

319
Q

What presents with painless lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, and has smudge cells on peripheral blood smear?

A

CLL

320
Q

What presents with auer rods on bone marrow biopsy?

A

AML

321
Q

What condition is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome (BCR-ABL1 gene)?

A

CML

322
Q

What condition shows Reed-Sternberg cells (owl’s eyes) on tissue biopsy?

A

Hodgkin lymphoma

323
Q

Which type of lymphoma has a worse prognosis (hodgkin or non-hodgkin)?

A

Non-hodgkin

324
Q

What condition has rouleaux formations on blood smear and Bence Jones proteinuria on UA?

A

Multiple myeloma

325
Q

What is seen on radiographs in pts with multiple myeloma?

A

Lytic lesions

326
Q

What is seen on physical exam in Grave’s disease?

A

Diffusely enlarged nontender thyroid
Exophthalmos
Pretibial myxedema
Increased DTRs

327
Q

What lab studies are seen in Grave’s?

A

Decreased TSH
Increased T4 and T3

328
Q

Does Grave’s have high or low uptake on thyroid radioisotope scanning?

A

High

329
Q

What meds are used to treat hyperthyroidism?

A

PTU
Methimazole

330
Q

What med is used to treat hyperthyroidism in pregnancy?

A

PTU in 1st trimester then switch to methimazole in 2nd

331
Q

What is the treatment for thyroid storm?

A

BB
PTU or methimazole
Iodine
Steroids

332
Q

What are 2 commonly used medications that can cause hypothyroidism?

A

Amio
Lithium

333
Q

What labs are seen in primary hypothyroidism?

A

Increased TSH
low or normal free T4

334
Q

What labs are seen in secondary hypothyroidism?

A

Decreased TSH
Decreased or normal free T4

335
Q

How long does it take levothyroxine to increase T4 levels?

A

4-6 weeks

336
Q

Subacute thyroiditis is usually preceded by what?

A

Viral URI

337
Q

What does hot and cold nodule on a radionuclide thyroid scan indicate?

A

Hot = benign
cold = malignant

338
Q

What is the most common type of thyroid cancer?

A

Papillary carcinoma

339
Q

What type of thyroid cancer produces calcitonin?

A

Medullary carcinoma

340
Q

What is commonly injured during a total thyroidectomy?

A

Recurrent laryngeal nerve

341
Q

How is primary hyperparathyroidism classified?

A

Excess PTH leads to hypercalcemia
Caused by parathyroid adenoma (MC)

342
Q

What labs are seen in primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Increased PTH
Increased Ca+
Increased Vit D
Decreased PO4

343
Q

How is secondary hyperparathyroidism classified?

A

Caused by CKD which leads to decreased production of calcitriol leading to increased PTH secretion

344
Q

What labs are seen in secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Increased PTH
Normal Ca+
Decreased Vit D
Normal PO4

345
Q

What symptoms are associated with hyperparathyroidism?

A

Bones
Stones
Groans
Psychiatric overtones

346
Q

What is the treatment for primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Increase fluids
Decrease calcium
Vit D
Parathyroidectomy

347
Q

What is the treatment for severe hypercalcemia?

A

IV fluids
Bisphosphonates, calcitonin
Furosemide

348
Q

What is the treatment for secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Due to Vit D def: Vit D
Due to CKD: calcitriol

349
Q

What physical exam signs are seen in hypoparathyroidism?

A

Chvostek sign (cheek tap)
Trousseau (hand spasm with BP cuff)
Increased DTRs

350
Q

Chvostek and trousseau sign are associated with what in hypoparathyroidism?

A

Hypocalcemia

351
Q

What labs are seen in hypothyroidism?

A

Decreased PTH
Decreased Ca+
Increased PO4

352
Q

What is the treatment for symptomatic hypocalcemia?

A

IV calcium gluconate

353
Q

What has hyperpigmentation and orthostatic hypotension on physical exam?

A

Primary adrenal insufficiency (Addisons)

354
Q

What labs are seen in primary adrenal insufficiency (Addisons)?

A

Decreased serum cortisol
Increased ACTH
Hyponatremia
Hyperkalemia
Decreased aldosterone

355
Q

What lab difference is seen in secondary adrenal insufficiency compared to primary?

A

ACTH is decreased on secondary

356
Q

Is hyper or hypokalemia seen in Cushing syndrome?

A

Hypokalemia

357
Q

How do you determine where the issue is when doing the workup for Cushings?

A

Both have increased cortisol
ACTH is low/has no response to desmopressin test = adrenal issue
ACTH is high/has response to desmopressin test = pituitary tumor

358
Q

What labs are seen in SIADH?

A

Decreased serum Na+
Decreased serum osmo (< 280)
Increased urine osmo (> 100)

359
Q

What is the treatment for SIADH?

A

Water restrict
Correct Na+

360
Q

Nephrogenic DI is commonly caused by what medication?

A

Lithium

361
Q

What labs are seen in DI?

A

Increased Na+
Increased serum osmo
Decreased urine osmo

362
Q

What test is required to make a diagnosis of DI?

A

Water deprivation test

363
Q

How is central vs nephrogenic DI determined?

A

Desmopressin (synthetic ADH) given
Minimal/no increase in urine osmo = nephrogenic
Increase in urine osmo = central

364
Q

What is the treatment for central DI?

A

Desmopressin

365
Q

What vision change is commonly reported with a pituitary adenoma?

A

Bitemporal hemianopsia

366
Q

What is the imaging modality of choice for suspected pituitary adenoma?

A

MRI w/contrast

367
Q

What is the treatment of a functional pituitary adenoma?

A

Transsphenoidal resection

PANCE Prep (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions