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Rock the boards Flashcards

1
Q

what effect does RP fibrosis have on kidneys

A

bilateral ureteral obstruction

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2
Q

where does right pulmonary vein drain in scimitar syndrome

A

infracardiac

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3
Q

what cells does GIST arise from

A

interstitial cells of canal

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4
Q

what is another name for scrotal pearl

A

scrotolith

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5
Q

what are the 5P causes of Budd chiari

A

polycythemia vera, pills (OCP), pregnancy, PNH, platelets (thrombocytosis)

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6
Q

what intracranial conditions are associated with persistent trigeminal artery

A

aneurysms, CCF, moyamoya

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7
Q

what percent of post menopausal bleeding is due to endometrial polyp

A

30%

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8
Q

what value of Mo break thru is important - amount at administration or amount at time of elution? what is the half life of Mo?

A

amount at administration. half life is 67 hrs.

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9
Q

what are absolute CI for IV tPa therapy in stroke?

A

stroke more than 1/3 vascular territory, hemmorhage, endocarditis, CNS lesion with high propensity to bleed

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10
Q

what is the dose of CCK in HIDA and over what time is it given? what is dose of morphine given?

A

0.02 ug/kg over 60 mins. Morphine: 0.04mg/kg or 2 mg is dose of morphine over 2/3 mins.

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11
Q

how long do u need to stop breast feeding after bone scan with Tc 99 MDP? how long do u need to stop after FDG PET?

A

do not need to stop for Tc 99m MDP. stop for 6 hours after FDG PET

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12
Q

what is the max HU value to say something is a simple/b9 renal cyst?

A

10 HU

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13
Q

what are the findings of organoaxial vs mesentery axial gastric volvulus?

A

organoaxial: rotation along long axis of stomach, see greater creature “flipped over” lesser curvature, less pain. mesentery-axial: more common in kids, along short axis, see pylorus superior to funds - more risk of strangulation

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14
Q

where does the tip of a cecal volvus vs a sigmoid volvus point on X-ray?

A

cecal: tip to the LUQ, sigmoid: tip to the RUQ

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15
Q

what is the most common cause of a rectus sheath hematoma?

A

spontaneous due to anticoagulation

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16
Q

what are the US and MRI features of the parotid glands in Sjogrens?

A

US: enlarged, multiple cystic spaces, MRI: salt and pepper appearance

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17
Q

what is the most common extra testicular neoplasm?

A

adenomatoid tumor of the scrotum

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18
Q

what are cannonball lung mets?

A

multiple lung mets due to RCC, breast, thyroid, sarcoma, endometrial ca

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19
Q

Define connections in Fontan, Glenn, BT shunt

A

Fontan:right atrium to pulmonary trunk, Glenn: SVC to PA, BT shunt: subclavian a to PA

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20
Q

how do u manage a 4 mm lung nodule in a high risk patient? what is the age requirement in the Fleshier recs?

A

follow up CT at 12 months. applies to older than 35 yo

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21
Q

what is the rx for an aspergilloma?

A

nothing, unless it is bleeding then do bronchial a embolization, systemic anti fungal won’t help bc it has its own blood supply

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22
Q

what is the most common type of ccam?

A

type 1

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23
Q

what is the paraneoplastic syndrome associated with bronchial carcinoid

A

cushings (ACTH)

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24
Q

where does NB 4S go to? where does it NOT go to?

A

skin, liver, bone marrow. does NOT go to lungs in 4S.

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25
Q

how do u differentiate bone marrow mets vs bone cortical mets in a kid with NB?

A

do MIBG and bone scan - if only positive on MIBG then its bone marrow mets

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26
Q

what is the diff in invasion pattern of NB vs wilms?

A

Wilms displaces, NB encases

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27
Q

what is the projection used to map uterine artery for UAE?

A

45 degree oblique in the contralateral side (e.g. if u want to see right uterine artery, image 45 degrees LAO)

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28
Q

what is the rate and amount of contrast used for an IVC venogram

A

15cc per second for a total of 30 cc

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29
Q

what is the bleeding risk of a liver biopsy? what is the goal INR? what is the goal INR for placement of an IVC filter?

A

moderate risk of bleeding, want INR to be less than 1.5. for IVC filter want INR less than 2.0

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30
Q

what shape should the pectoralis have on the MLO view

A

convex

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31
Q

what are the MR imaging features of a fibroadenoma?

A

high T2 with non enhancing internal septations, persistent kinetics

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32
Q

is it the inner or outer diameter that is measured in a sheath vs catheter?

A

sheath: inner diameter, catheter: outer diameter

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33
Q

what is the conversion for french to diameter?

A

french = diameter in mm * 3

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34
Q

what are the absolute contraindications to hepatic Y90 therapy?

A

Lung shunt fraction more than 20 % or significant GI shunt - can cause pulm fibrosis or gastric ulceration

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35
Q

what is a terminal ventricle in the spine?

A

CSF filled cavity of conus

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36
Q

what syndromes is absent posterior pit associated with?

A

septo optic dysplasia, Joubert, hypoglycemia

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37
Q

what is the Rx of a PA pseudo aneurysm?

A

coil embo

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38
Q

what defines a massive PE? what is RV to LV enlargement defined as?

A

systemic hypotension less than 90mmHg, or a decrease in 40mmHg from baseline. RV:LV ratio greater than 0.9

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39
Q

what is the antidote for fentanyl? what is the antidote for midazolam?

A

naloxone (opiate antagonist), flumenazil (benzo antag)

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40
Q

what material causes a drop in IN PHASE on MRI?

A

iron deposition (e.g. in sickle cell, PNH, prosthetic valve)

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41
Q

where in the bone does a chondroblastoma arise?

A

epiphyses

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42
Q

which side of the elbow is affected in throwers (baseball) and which side is affected in tennis?

A

medial - baseball, lateral - tennis

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43
Q

what type of injury (values or varus) causes injury in baseball/overhead throwing? what does it cause?

A

valgus stress injury causes calcific tendinitis of the ulnar collateral ligament or avulsion of the medial epicondyle

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44
Q

what aspect of the patella is a bipartite fragment seen in? what percent is bilateral?

A

superolateral, 43 percent bilateral

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45
Q

what are the causes of pes planus?

A

PTT tear and spring ligament injury

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46
Q

what is hand schuller christian disease?

A

LCH with diabetes insipidus and lytic skull lesions

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47
Q

what is nail patella syndrome?

A

flaring of iliac wings, patella and nail hypoplasia

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48
Q

what is a persistent trigeminal artery?

A

connection btw cavernous ICA and basilar a

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49
Q

what is Fahr disease? what nuc med imaging shows uptake?

A

congenital disorder with calcification of the bilateral basal ganglia and in the cerebellar hemispheres, can be hot on PET

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50
Q

what is hyperostosis frontalis?

A

b9 overgrowth of inner table of frontal bones

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51
Q

what genetic syndrome are pilocytic astrocytomas associated with?

A

NF1

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52
Q

what is the most common shatzker type of tibial plateau fracture and how does it look?

A

type 1 - split and depression of the lateral tibial plateau

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53
Q

what is an absolute contraindication for PV embolization?

A

portal HTN

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54
Q

where does a left IVC drain into?

A

left renal vein to IVC proper

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55
Q

what is a type 3 endoleak? what is a type 1 endoleak?

A

due to separation of a graft component. type 1 is due to failure of distal or proximal component attachment

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56
Q

what entrance skin dose causes dry desquamation

A

14 Gy

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57
Q

what is osteopathic striata?

A

Voorgaven syndrome - sclerotic lines in long bones, related to bone growth, no lab abnormalities

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58
Q

what are common causes of chondrocalcinosis?

A

hyperPTH, wilsons, hemochromatosis, hypothyroid, trauma

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59
Q

what is tremors disease

A

dysplasia hemimelica - osteochondromas of the epiphyses

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60
Q

what type of calcium is deposited in calcific tendinosis?

A

calcium hydroxyapetite

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61
Q

what type of erosions are seen in erosive arthritis

A

central subchondral erosions -> gull wing deformity

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62
Q

what type of calcium is deposited in pseudo gout?

A

calcium pyrophosphate - positive befrignece

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63
Q

what is deposited in gout?

A

monosodium urate crystals

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64
Q

how do u diagnose triangular fibrocartilage tear on arthrogram of the wrist

A

should not see contrast in the distal radioulnar joint, mid carpal space, and radiocarpal spaces

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65
Q

what do u see in a perches lesion?

A

labrum stopped off periosteum of the glenoid with an associated osseous defect

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66
Q

what is the association btw length of septa, hole diameter, and sensitivity/resolution of a collimator?

A

short septa = high sensitivity, poor resolution. wide holes = high sensitivity, poor resolution

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67
Q

what effect does a pinhole collimator have on the image?

A

magnifies and inverts it

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68
Q

what is the threshold for non-uniformity of a gamma camera used for spect?

A

not more than 5 percent.

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69
Q

the reported dose from an ionization chamber should be what percent of actual dose?

A

must be within 5% of actual dose

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70
Q

what does CFR 19 deal with? 20? 35?

A

inspections (19), radiation protection (20), human use of radioisotopes(35)

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71
Q

how do u test for radionuclidic purity? how do u test for chemical purity?

A

testing for Mo breather - test with dose calibrator with a lead shield. chemical purity - with pH paper.

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72
Q

when should a woman start mammo screening if her mother got breast ca at 35?

A

a woman should start screening: 8 years after XRT, 10 years before first degree relative got it, but in either case not before the age of 25.

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73
Q

what is the pneumonic POST CARD? what happens when papilla slough off?

A

its the ddx of papillary necrosis: pyelo, obstruction, sickle cell, TB, cirrhosis, analgesics, RV thrombosis, DM. when papilla slough off they can cause filling defects in the ureter and obstruction.

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74
Q

for the US diagnosis of PCOS, how many follicles do u need and of what size

A

12 follicles 2-9 mm in size

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75
Q

what is ideal position of UAC catheter? what is the course of the UVC?

A

T6 to T10 or L3 to L4. Umbilical vein to left portal vein to ductus venosus to left hepatic vein to IVC

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76
Q

what is associated with cavernous in the brain?

A

dev venous anomaly, superficial siderosis

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77
Q

what percent of pituitary adenomas are hormonally active?

A

75%, most secrete prolactin

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78
Q

where are mycotic aneurysms located in the brain?

A

mostly peripheral

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79
Q

what percent of patients that get tPa bleed?

A

10%

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80
Q

what percent of patients with PE have a LE DVT?

A

70%

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81
Q

what is the diff btw strangulated and incarcerated hernia?

A

strangulated has no blood flow, both cannot be reduced

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82
Q

what part of the stomach does menetriers spare?

A

antrum

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83
Q

what are the abdominal manifestations of LAM?

A

LAD (can look like lymphoma), AMLs in the kidney, lymphangioma

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84
Q

what is pseudogynecomastia?

A

enlargement of the breast secondary to weight gain or obesity, no assocaited breast tissue increase/mass on mammo

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85
Q

which side of the TFC in the wrist is more easily repaired - ulnar or radial?

A

ulnar bc it is more vascular

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86
Q

what are the PET findings in primary progressive aphasia?

A

asymmetrically decreased activity in the left frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes

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87
Q

what type of sarcoma is associated with AML? where are they seen?

A

myeloid sarcoma AKA chloroma or granulocytic sarcoma. seen in brain, LN, peritoneum, skin, orbits, get LAD and hyper dense brain lesions

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88
Q

what is the most common location of GIST? what does presence of KIT indicate? what syndrome is GIST associated with?

A

duodenum. KIT indicates better prognosis. NF1.

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89
Q

what percent of patients with popliteal aneurysms have AAA?

A

50%

90
Q

what muscles comprise the pes anserine?

A

Say Grace Before Tea - semitendinosis, gracilis, sartorial

91
Q

what percent of fetuses have two vessel cord?

A

1%

92
Q

what is the appearance of malakoplakia?

A

inflammatory condition that causes filling defects in the bladder with a flat border/cobblestone appearance

93
Q

what is the most common b9 rib lesion?

A

FD

94
Q

what is a common effect of XRT seen in the spine (more in kids).

A

scoliosis (often with films tumor)

95
Q

what is the crista terminals? crista supraventricularis?

A

terminalis: in RA from mouth of SVC to mouth of IVC. crust supraventricularis: moderator band

96
Q

what meds is brown fat blocked by?

A

diazepam and beta blockers, low carbs

97
Q

what effect does oral hypoglycemic agent have on PET uptake?

A

causes bowel uptake but not too much muscle uptake

98
Q

where do u see PET uptake after GCSF?

A

v intense spleen and bone marrow uptake - wait 3 to 5 days

99
Q

what is the wall echo shadow complex?

A

hyper echoic wall, hypo echoic compressed GB lumen, hyperechoic stones - indicates GB full of stones NOT porcelain GB

100
Q

what is porcelain GB? what is the mgmt?

A

calcified GB wall - remove bc of increased risk of ca

101
Q

what does the GB wall look like when it is edematous?

A

thick, striated appearance

102
Q

if u see cysts bigger than 10 mm in PVL, what is it highly predictive of?

A

cerebral palsy

103
Q

what is meckel gruber

A

bilateral renal cysts, polydactyly, holopros

104
Q

where does HIE affect a PT or FT neonate (what part of brain)?

A

basal ganglia and subcortical GM

105
Q

what do the micro calcifications of papillary thyroid ca look like?

A

non shadowing

106
Q

in a patient with HIV and GB wall thickening, what are two common causes?

A

CMV and crypto

107
Q

what is dilated in tubular ectasia of testes?

A

cystic dilation of efferent ductules

108
Q

what is the mgmt of a testicular epidermoid?

A

ennucleation

109
Q

what are the two most common germ cell tumors of the testicle?

A

seminoma and mixed type

110
Q

how do u tell the diff btw a stellar meningioma and pituitary tumor in terms of its effect on the vasculature?

A

meningioma encases and narrows, pituitary tumor encases without narrowing

111
Q

what type of aneurysm causes lateral rectus palsy?

A

ICA aneurysm

112
Q

what nerves do not exit the SOF

A

V2 (from f rotunda) and V3 (F oval)

113
Q

what is the diff in mgmt for tonsillar access for edema?

A

drainage vs abx

114
Q

where does EsthesioNB originate from? where does it extend into?

A

olfactory mucosa, and has peritumoral cysts, extends into anterior cranial fossa

115
Q

what ligament is ruptured with a wide atlanto dental interval?

A

transverse ligament

116
Q

what is the most sensitive sequence for meningitis

A

DWI

117
Q

what type of HC does periventricular edema imply?

A

obstructive HV

118
Q

which facial fx doesn’t involve the orbit?

A

le fort 1

119
Q

what orbital walls does le fort 2 involve? le fort 3?

A

le fort 2: medial and inferior, lefort 3: lateral and medial

120
Q

what fx does tripod/ZMC fx consist of?

A

lateral and inferior orbital walls

121
Q

what is the enhancement pattern of fungal invasive sinusitis?

A

it does not enhance like the normal sinus mucosa (so lack of enhancement suggests this etiology)

122
Q

which way does the ulna sublet (dorsal or ventral) in made lungs?

A

dorsal

123
Q

what are causes of made lungs deformity

A

turners, trauma, olliers,

124
Q

what is seen in primary vs secondary HPOA?

A

primary: tuft hypertrophy, secondary, acro-osteolysis

125
Q

what is the effect on the spinal canal in bilateral spondylolysis?

A

widens the AP diameter of the canal

126
Q

at what level does the thecal sac end?

A

S2/3

127
Q

what type of dens fx has highest rate of non union?

A

type 2 (base of dens)

128
Q

what is scheuermanns disease?

A

focal kyphosis, anterior wedging of the VB, schmorl nodes, endplate irregularity

129
Q

what type of edema is seen in PRES?

A

vasogenic - loss of cerebral auto regulation

130
Q

what is seen in whiplash injury?

A

mild T2 edema

131
Q

what are the imaging features of a hyper flexion fx in the spine?

A

anterior compression fx, jumped or locked facets, interspinous distance wide, kyphosis

132
Q

what is a mucocele?

A

expanded sinus secondary to chronic obstruction

133
Q

what is the most symptomatic type of fibroid?

A

submucosal

134
Q

what is the tx of bicornuate uterus? septet?

A

metroplasty, hysteroscopic resection for septate

135
Q

at what phase of cycle should u do US to see uterus didelphys?

A

secretory (endometrium is thickest)

136
Q

what is the ddx of starry sky liver on US

A

hepatitis, fibrosis, toxic shock syndrome, biliary/PV gas (it is mobile), lymphoma,

137
Q

what is the “reverse target sign” seen on US that can be present with a hemangioma

A

inner hyPOechoic, outer hyPERechoic

138
Q

what gender gets emphysematous cholecystitis? what is most common organism?

A

older DM men, E coli, see comet tail artifact , dirty shadowing

139
Q

what is SPECT used for in the brain - tumor, epilepsy or dementia?

A

epi and dementia

140
Q

what b9 mass can show FDG uptake in the brain?

A

pituitary adenoma (micro or macro)

141
Q

what are the findings of TB in the testicle?

A

hypoechoic epic with no flow, normal flow in testicle, bilateral

142
Q

what is the lower limit for velocity of TIPS occlusion?

A

0.5 m/s

143
Q

what mets produce hyper echoic hepatic masses

A

mets - mucinous, kaposis, neuroendocrine mets

144
Q

what is the ddx for a thick cystic endometrium

A

polyp, tamoxifen, GTD, endometrial cancer

145
Q

what gestational age do u measure nuchal thickness? how much should it measure?

A

18-21 weeks, measure from PF to calvarium should not be more than 6 mm

146
Q

what portends a good prognosis in omphalocele?

A

liver only herniation

147
Q

what is the percent of CP cysts in fetus? what week should they resolve by?

A

1 %. should resolve by week 26.

148
Q

what tumors do 10 percent of beckwith wideman kids get?

A

hepatoblastoma, wilms or NB

149
Q

what is an airway condition in which u see bilateral echogenic lungs that are big

A

congenital high airway obstruction (CHAOS) - tracheal stenosis or atresia results in CHAOS

150
Q

what is the most lethal in utero condition?

A

diffuse lymphangectasia, highly associated with turner and noonan. see a lot of pl fluid, marked skin thickening, cystic hygroma,

151
Q

which trisomy is assoc with biliary atresia

A

18

152
Q

what nerve and what artery travel thru the quadrilateral space

A

axillary n and posterior circumflex humeral a

153
Q

what malignancies is limbic encephalitis assoc with?

A

small cell lung ca and testicular germ cell ca

154
Q

in what patients does anaplastic large cell lymphoma of the breast occur?

A

ppl with silicone breast implants, don’t send the biopsy in formalin

155
Q

in US guided breast biopsy, which has less incidence of hematoma: spring loaded or vacuum assisted biopsy? which has a smaller gauge?

A

spring loaded, spring has Smaller gauge

156
Q

in a patient with nipple discharge, what is the diff in appearance on galactogram for DCIS vs papilloma?

A

DCIS: multiple filling defects, papilloma: one filling defect

157
Q

what percent of warthins tumors are multi FOCAL (either ipsi or contralateral)

A

20%

158
Q

what is a richter hernia

A

hernia in which only one wall of the bowel loop is involved

159
Q

what percent of SMG lesions are malignant

A

45%

160
Q

what is the most common location for a clavicular fx? what percent shows non-union?

A

middle third is most common, 5% non union rate

161
Q

what is hemangiomas of the liver assoc with?

A

FNH and kasabach merrit (thrombocytopenia)

162
Q

what percent of paragangliomas are multi centric in non familial conditions?

A

2-10 %. 50% in familial conditions.

163
Q

what is NOT seen in MEN1? what is NOT seen in MEN2B?

A

MEN1: no pheo, MEN2B: no parathyroid adenoma

164
Q

what is the max limit for endometrial thickness in a post menopausal woman that is not bleeding vs is bleeding?

A

8 mm, 5 mm

165
Q

where does the IT band insert?

A

at gerdys tubercle in the anterolateral tibia

166
Q

what is the thyroid nodule size limit for biopsy in the case of co-existing microcalcs vs coarse calcs?

A

with microcalcs: more than 1 cm, with coarse calcs: 1.5 cm

167
Q

what diseases show abnormal DaT scan?

A

parkinsons, PSP, multi system atrophy

168
Q

what is the most common ligament to tear with an inversion injury?

A

anterior talofibular

169
Q

is grade 1 AC joint separation seen on normal radiographs? what view shows it?

A

only seen on stress views, with widening of the joint more than 3 mm

170
Q

what fractures are associated with lisfranc ligament disruption?

A

fractures of the cuboid and navicular

171
Q

in what type of coalition is the C sign seen on lateral X-ray

A

talocalcaneal

172
Q

what is normal range of boehlers angle

A

20-40 degrees

173
Q

where is the impaction in a reverse hill sachs fracture

A

anteromedial humeral head

174
Q

what is the percent of pox in lung biopsies? what gauge needle do u use for a lung biopsy?

A

20-25%, use 20 gauge needle

175
Q

where in the uterus is an interstitial ectopic located?

A

cornea of the uterus

176
Q

what type of enhancement curve do u see in fibroadenoma

A

type 1

177
Q

in birads lexicon for MRI, a focus is defined as less than what measurement?

A

less than 5 mm

178
Q

what is the most common location for spondylolysis

A

95% at L5

179
Q

does a just culture follow zero tolerance or no blame model

A

zero tolerance

180
Q

what does a bar phantom test for a gamma camera test?

A

spatial resolution and linearity

181
Q

what is the calculation for collimator resolution of a gamma camera?

A

FWHM

182
Q

what are the agents used to test for brain death

A

Tc 99m HMPAO, Tc 99m ECD, Tc99m DTPA

183
Q

within what time frame does a level one finding have to be reported? level 2?

A

level 1: 30-60 mins, level 2: 6-12 hours

184
Q

which type of testicular torsion is associated with bell clapper deformity? more common in adults or infants?

A

intravaginal - more common in adults. extra vaginal involves twisting of spermatic cord proximal to the tunica vaginalis

185
Q

what bone is spared in a zygomatic complex fx?

A

palatine bone

186
Q

in ACR appropriateness criteria what is 1-3, 4-6 and 7-9?

A

1-3: usually not app, 4-6: may be app, 7-9: usually app

187
Q

what is the most common cause of spontaneous peri-renal hemorrhage?

A

AML

188
Q

what is the most common clinical symptom in males with breast cancer?

A

bloody nipple discharge

189
Q

what is method used to eliminate truncation/gibbs artifact?

A

oversample the periphery of k space

190
Q

what are the two nuc med tests used to diagnose neuroblastoma in a child

A

1-123 MIBG and Tc 99 MDP. Octreotide is not specific for NB

191
Q

what is the recommendation for cessation of breast feeding after I-123 scan?

A

stop for 24 hours

192
Q

what are the mammo findings after reduction mammoplasty?

A

nipple is elevated, retroareolar band of fibrotic tissue, residual breast tissue is shifted more inferiorly,

193
Q

what is the most common cause of UPJ obstruction? UVJ obstruction?

A

UPJ: crossing vessel. UVJ: abnormally short ureter or abnormally angulated ureter into bladder

194
Q

in duplicated IVC, where should both IVC filters be placed?

A

at or just below the renal vein ostia

195
Q

what is the diagnosis if renal activity is seen on a gallium scan at 72 hours?

A

up to 24 hours renal activity is normal. if seen at 72 hours, its acute interstitial nephritis.

196
Q

does gynecomastia have a relationship with risk for breast cancer?

A

no

197
Q

what condition is relative contraindication to IV contrast?

A

myasthenia gravis

198
Q

what is the total effective dose for a head ct/chest ct/abdo ct/pelvis?

A

head: 1-2 msV, chest, abdo: 5-7 mSv, pelvis: 3-4mSv

199
Q

how much does an embryo get when a female undergoes an ado/pelvis ct?

A

30 mGy

200
Q

what is the formula for effective mAs?

A

ratio of mAs to pitch

201
Q

what is the ACR documented CTDI vol for head, abdo, and pelvis ct?

A

head: 75mGy, abdomen: 25mGy, pelvis: 20 mGy

202
Q

what is the max rad for a “radiation” area, “high radiation” area, and “very high radiation” area?

A

radiation: 0.05 mSv/hr, high radiation: 1mSv/hr, very high radiation: 5 Gy/hr

203
Q

what is the focal spot for mammo normal and mag views? what is the focal spot used in X-ray normal and mag views?

A

mammo: 0.3 mm and 0.1 mm. x ray: 06.mm and 1.2 mm

204
Q

what are the occupational dose limits?

A

body: 50mSv, lens: 20mSv, organ or skin: 500 mSv, embyo: 0.5mSv

205
Q

what are the lower and upper limits for TIPS malfunctioning? what are the other signs of TIPS malfunctioning?

A

less than 90 or more than 190. abnormal change in velocity more than 50 cm/s from prior, intrahepatic PV flow that becomes hepatopedal (RPV and LPV becoming hepatopedal is not normal), main portal vein velocity

206
Q

what happens to SNR, dose, and temporal resolution if u decrease CT scan time by 1/2?

A

patient dose goes down by one half, SNR goes down by 70% (square root relationship), temporal resolution goes up by 2

207
Q

what does air gap do to scatter and blur?

A

decreases scatter by increases magnification which increases blur

208
Q

when is epi used, when is atropine used?

A

epic used for hypotension and tachycardia, atropine used for hypotension and bradycardia

209
Q

what does air gap do to scatter and blur?

A

decreases scatter by increases magnification which increases blur. decrease scatter to detector causes automatic exposure to increase exposure rate -> increased dose to patient

210
Q

when is epi used, when is atropine used?

A

epi used for hypotension and tachycardia, atropine used for hypotension and bradycardia

211
Q

what two drugs does theophylline reverse?

A

adenosine and dipyramidole

212
Q

what birads lesions does PQRS track?

A

birads 3 in screening patients (these are the lesions that require followup so these are tracked)

213
Q

what false defect can u see on myocardial scan in a patient with LBBB? what agents can u use to “stress” these patients?

A

septal defect . can use adenosine, regadenosine, dipyramidole NOT dobutamine

214
Q

what is the best parameter to change in order to reduce metallic artifact on CT from arthroplasty?

A

increase kV

215
Q

what is the best parameter to change in order to reduce metallic artifact on CT from arthroplasty?

A

increase kVp

216
Q

what is the Y90 treatment for unresectable HCC? for liver mets?

A

HCC: thera sphere. for mets: SIR

217
Q

what effect do vitamin D and calcium have on breast density?

A

decrease

218
Q

what is the most common cause of herpes encephalitis in adults?

A

HSV 1 (neonates is HSV 2)

219
Q

what is the phi angle? what is the normal value?

A

the angle made by the long axis of the spine and the long axis of a gastric band should be btw 4-58 degrees

220
Q

what happens to HVL and patient dose when u move from Al filter to Cu filter?

A

the HVL increases (bc the average energy increases - Cu takes away more low photons than Al) and the patient dose decreases

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