Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Head and Neck > Robbins > Flashcards

Robbins Flashcards

1
Q

is caused by focal demineralization of tooth structure (enamel and dentin) by acidic products of bacterial sugar fermentation

A

dental carries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

inflammation of the oral mucosa surrounding the teeth, caused by accumulation of dental plaque and calculus

A

gingivitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

is an inflammatory process that affects the supporting structures of the teeth (ligaments), alveolar bone, and cementum

A

Periodontitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

a submucosal nodular mass of fibrous connective tissue stroma that occurs primarily on the buccal mucosa along the bite line or the gingiva

A

irritation fibroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

typically found on the gingiva of children, young adults, and pregnant women. This exophytic inflammatory lesion is red to purple in color and frequently ulcerated. Histologically, they are a highly vascularized proliferation of organizing granulation tissue.

A

pyogenic granulomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

red, ulcerated, nodular lesions of the gingiva that arise from a long-standing pyogenic granuloma, while others develop de novo from cells of the periodontal ligament, complete surgical excision down to the periosteum is required

A

Peripheral ossifying fibroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

oral cavity lesion that contains aggregates of multinucleate, foreign body–like giant cells separated by a fibroangiomatous stroma

A

Peripheral giant cell granuloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The pseudomembranous form of oral candidiasis is called

A

thrush

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

a distinctive oral lesion on the lateral border of the tongue caused by EBV

A

Hairy Leukoplakia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

T/F until proven otherwise by histologic evaluation, all leukoplakias must be considered precancerous

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

a possibly precancerous lesion which is red, velvety, possibly eroded area within the oral cavity that usually remains level with or may be slightly depressed relative to the surrounding mucosa

A

erythroplakia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Approximately 95% of cancers of the head and neck are _____, with the remainder largely consisting of ____

A

SCCs, adenocarcinomas of salivary origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

primary cause of SCC of the oropharynx

A

HPV infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

oropharyngeal carcinoma

prognosis is better in
hpv related scc or “classic” scc?

A

hpv related

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

postulates that multiple individual primary tumors develop independently in the upper aerodigestive tract as a result of years of mucosal exposure to carcinogens

A

field cancerization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

T/F second primary tumors in the oropharyngeal classic scca have the highest rate among all malignancies and commonly have good prognosis

A

False, they are usually fatal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

mutations in these 3 genes are drivers of cancer development

A

TP53, CDKN2A, PIK3CA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

hpv oncoproteins and the proteins they inactivate

A

E6 - p53
E7 - RB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

classic hpv neg scca vs hpv-assoc scca:

favored locations are the ventral surface of the tongue, floor of the mouth, lower lip, soft palate, and gingiva

A

classic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

classic hpv neg scca vs hpv-assoc scca:

tend to develop without a readily identified premalignant (i.e., dysplastic) component

A

hpv-assoc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

oropharyngeal:

classic hpv neg scca vs hpv-assoc scca:

appear as raised, firm, pearly plaques or irregular, roughened, or verrucous areas of mucosal thickening

A

classic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

oropharyngeal carcinoma

classic hpv neg scca vs hpv-assoc scca:

are most often nonkeratinizing neoplasms arising in the reticulated epithelium of the tonsillar crypts within the lingual tonsils, base of tongue, soft palate, and pharynx

A

hpv-assoc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

oropharyngeal carcinoma

classic hpv neg scca vs hpv-assoc scca:

typically preceded by premalignant lesions, such as leukoplakia and erythroplakia

A

classic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

oropharyngeal cancer

classic hpv neg scca vs hpv-assoc scca:

present as small primary tumors that lack obvious surface mucosal lesions but are accompanied by significant cervical lymphadenopathy

A

hpv assoc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The histology of this invasive oropharyngeal tumor is characterized by the proliferation of nests and lobules of nonkeratinizing and basaloid cells

A

HPV-associated SCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Immunohistochemical detection of strong ____ protein expression can serve as a marker for HPV-associated SCC

A

p16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

originates around the crown of an unerupted tooth as a result of fluid accumulation between the developing tooth and the dental follicle. Histologically, they are lined by a thin layer of stratified squamous epithelium, and there is frequently a dense chronic inflammatory cell infiltrate in surrounding connective tissue

A

dentigerous cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

well-defined unilocular or multilocular radiolucencies with a lining consisting of a thin layer of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium with a prominent basal cell layer and a corrugated epithelial surface. it is locally aggressive

A

keratocystic odontogenic tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

keratocystic odontogenic tumor is usually solitary so multiple cysts should be evaluated for this syndrome

A

nevoid basal cell carcinoma (Gorlin syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

mutations associated with nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome (Gorlin syndrome)

A

PTCH (Patched), chromosome 9q22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

common inflammatory lesion found at the tooth apex. The cysts develop as a result of long- standing inflammation of the tooth (pulpitis), often secondary to advanced carious lesions or local trauma. Over time, granulation tissue may develop, with subsequent epithelialization that results in a cyst

A

radicular cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

two most common and clinically significant odontogenic tumors

A

odontoma and ameloblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

most common odontogenic tumor, arises from epithelium and is associated with extensive enamel and dentin deposition. These lesions probably represent hamartomas rather than true neoplasms and are cured by local excision.

A

odontoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

arises from odontogenic epithelium and does not display ectomesenchymal differentiation. It is cystic, slow growing, and locally invasive with a typically indolent course. Treatment requires wide surgical resection to prevent recurrence.

A

ameloblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

T/F most people with nasal polyps are atopic

A

false, only 0.5% of atopic people have nasal polyps

36
Q

a benign, highly vascular tumor that arises within the fibrovascular stroma of the posterolateral wall of the roof of the nasal cavity and occurs almost exclusively in adolescent males who are often fair-skinned and red headed

A

nasopharyngeal angiofibroma

37
Q

mutation present in the majority of nasopharyngeal angiofibromas

A

CTNNB1 (beta-catenin)

38
Q

Sinonasal papilloma occurs in 3 forms: in descending order of frequency

A

exophytic
endophytic (inverted)
oncocytic

39
Q

Most endophytic sinonasal papillomas have mutations in _____ the remaining harbor _____

A

EGFR, HPV DNA, 6 and 11

40
Q

Sinonasal papilloma is a benign neoplasm arising from the

A

respiratory or Schneiderian mucosa lining the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses

41
Q

arise from neuroectodermal olfactory cells within the mucosa, particularly in the superior aspect of the nasal cavity are small, blue, round cell neoplasms typically composed of well-circumscribed nests and lobules of cells separated by fibrovascular stroma

A

Olfactory Neuroblastoma (Esthesioneuroblastoma)

42
Q

carcinoma uniformly associated with translocations that fuse genes encoding chimeric proteins composed of a chromatin regulator, and a portion of a “chromatin reader” protein, usually BRD4.

A

NUT midline carcinoma

43
Q

T/F nasopharyngeal carcinoma is characterized by a distinctive geographic distribution, a close anatomic relationship to lymphoid tissue, and an association with EBV infection

A

T

44
Q

3 patterns of nasopharyngeal carcinoma

A

keratinizing
non-keratinizing
basaloid

45
Q

three principal factors that influence development of nasopharyngeal carcinomas are

A

heredity
age
EBV infection

46
Q

refers to laryngotracheobronchitis in children that produces a characteristic inspiratory stridor due to airway narrowing

A

croup

47
Q

develop in the vocal cords often in smokers/ those who strain their voice often, covered by squamous epithelium that may become keratotic, hyperplastic, or even slightly dysplastic overlying a loose myxoid connective tissue core. The latter may be variably fibrotic, fibrinous, or highly vascularized

A

Reactive Nodules (bilateral)
Polyps (unilateral)

48
Q

mutiple laryngeal lesions in children which are caused by HPV types 6 and 11 acquired via the maternal birth canal

A

juvenile laryngeal papillomatosis

49
Q

T/F Nondysplastic hyperplasias in the larynx have almost no potential for malignant transformation

A

True

50
Q

most common risk factor for laryngeal carcinoma

A

tobacco smoke

51
Q

these ear cysts are typically 1 to 4 cm in diameter, lined by keratinizing squamous or metaplastic mucus-secreting epithelium, and filled with amorphous, keratinous debris

A

cholesteatoma

52
Q

refers to abnormal bone deposition in the middle ear about the rim of the oval window into which the footplate of the stapes fits

A

Otosclerosis

53
Q

benign lesions usually appear on the upper lateral aspect of the neck along the sternocleidomastoid muscle, lined by stratified squamous or pseudostratified columnar epithelium. The fibrous cyst walls typically contain lymphoid tissue with prominent germinal centers. Cyst contents may be clear and watery or mucinous and may also contain desquamated cells and granular cellular debris

A

branchial cysts

54
Q

lined by stratified squamous epithelium when located near the base of the tongue or by pseudostratified columnar epithelium in lower locations The fibrous cyst wall often includes lymphoid aggregates or thyroid remnants.

A

thyroglossal duct cyst

55
Q

also called carotid body tumors

A

paraganglioma

56
Q

occur frequently in both hereditary and spontaneous paragangliomas

A

loss-of-function mutations in genes encoding succinate dehydrogenase (SDH) subunits

57
Q

Nests (zellballen) of round to oval chief cells with abundant, clear or granular, eosinophilic cytoplasm and uniform, round to ovoid, sometimes vesicular, nuclei are surrounded by delicate vascular septae

A

paraganglioma

58
Q

The supporting network of spindle-shaped stromal cells in paragangliomas, collectively called ________, are positive for S-100 protein

A

sustentacular cells

59
Q

paragangliomas that occur with the adrenal (pheochromocytomas) are associated with the familial _____

A

MEN2

60
Q

paragangliomas that occur in association with hereditary paraganglioma syndromes (PGL1-4, SDH deficient), usually involve the _____

A

head and neck

61
Q

T/F Paragangliomas with succinate dehydrogenase A (SDHA) mutations are associated with the highest rates of metastasis (30% to 50%)

A

False, succinate dehydrogenase B (SDHB)

62
Q

Hereditary head and neck paragangliomas are associated with____ mutations, occur at younger ages, are often multiple, and can be malignant

A

succinate dehydrogenase gene mutations

63
Q

are these glands mostly serous, mucinous, or mixed?
parotid
submandibular
sublingual

A

parotid - serous
submandibular - mixed, mostly serous
sublingual - mixed, mostly mucous

64
Q

most prevalent form of sialadenitis

A

mucocele

65
Q

most common viral cause of sialadenitis

A

mumps

66
Q

most often found on the lower lip as the result of trauma, occur at all ages, and present as fluctuant lower lip swellings with a blue translucent hue. They are pseudocysts lined by inflammatory granulation tissue or fibrous connective tissue and filled with mucin and inflammatory cells, particularly macrophages

A

mucocele

67
Q

____ are epithelial-lined cysts that arise when the duct of the sublingual gland has been damaged

A

ranula

68
Q

T/F the malignant potential of salivary gland tumors is inversely proportional to gland size, with smaller glands harboring greater numbers of cancers

A

True

69
Q

the most common salivary gland neoplasm

A

Pleomorphic adenoma (PA)

70
Q

PA are most commonly seen in the _____ gland

A

parotid

71
Q

Many cases of PA are associated with chromosomal rearrangements that induce overexpression of

A

PLAG1

72
Q

In PA cases that lack PLAG overexpression mutations of ____ are usually present

A

HMGA2

73
Q

The dominant histologic feature of this salivary tumor is morphologic heterogeneity. The epithelial elements resembling ductal cells or myoepithelial cells are arranged as ducts, acini, irregular tubules, strands, or sheets of cells. and are typically dispersed within a background of loose myxoid and hyaline tissue containing islands of cartilage and, rarely, foci of bone

A

pleomorphic adenoma

74
Q

second most common salivary gland neoplasm that arises almost exclusively in the parotid gland

A

warthin tumor

75
Q

risk for development of a warthin tumor are increased by 8 fold in

A

smokers

76
Q

round to oval encapsulated mass with a lining that is composed of a double layer of oncocytic cells; the innermost layer is columnar, while cuboidal cells occupy the outer layer, usually in a lymphoid stroma

A

warthin tumor

77
Q

most common primary malignant tumor of salivary glands

A

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

78
Q

fusion protein that is believed to play a key role in the genesis of mucoepidermoid carcinoma

A

CRTC1-MAML2

79
Q

this salivary tumor demonstrates cords, sheets, or cystic configurations of squamous, mucous, or intermediate cells that have squamous features and small to large mucus-filled vacuoles

A

mucoepidermoid carcinoma

80
Q

small, poorly encapsulated, infiltrative, gray-pink lesions composed of small cells with dark, compact nuclei and scant cytoplasm.The tumor cells are organized in a cribriform growth pattern that resembles swiss cheese.The spaces between the tumor cells are often filled with hyaline material thought to represent excess basement membrane

A

adenoid cystic carcinoma

81
Q

gene rearrangement present in a subset of adenoid cystic carcinomas

A

MYB-NFIB

82
Q

T/F Adenoid cystic carcinomas arising in the parotid tend to have a poorer prognosis than those arising in the minor salivary glands

A

False, poorer prognosis if in minor salivary glands

83
Q

The cytoplasm of cells of acinic cell carcinomas contain purple granules called

A

zymogen granules

84
Q

Eosinophilic, granular to vacuolated cytoplasm with no zymogen granules.
Tubular, papillary and cystic growth.
Sometimes has distinctive eosinophilic secretions in lumina.

A

secretory carcinoma

85
Q

fusion gene associated with secretory carcinoma

A

ETV6-NTRK3

86
Q

Solid, trabecular, or tubular growth

Perpendicular basal cells on outside of nests

Epithelial cells on inside of nests

pleomorphic adenoma without the stroma

A

basal cell adenoma / monomorphic adenoma

87
Q

translocations common in acinic cell carcinomas

A

NR4A3 translocations

Head and Neck (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions