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RMA PRE EXAM Flashcards

1
Q

The left ventricle of the heart sends blood out through which artery?

a. Aorta
b. Carotid
c. Coronary
d. Pulmonary

A

a. Aorta

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2
Q

Where are the sublingual glands located?

a. Beside the esophagus
b. Beneath the mucous membrane
c. Around the abdomen
d. In the tissue of the labia

A

b. Beneath the mucous membrane

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3
Q

A hernia develops when:

a. A ulceration of the lining of the bowel occurs
b. There is pressure in the alimentary tract
c. An organ pushes through the wall
d. Bloating increases significantly

A

a. A ulceration of the lining of the bowel occurs

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4
Q

What is the process of ovum formation?

a. Ovulation
b. Oogenesis
c. Fertilization
d. Menarche

A

b. Oogenesis

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5
Q

The receptors for hearing and equilibrium are located in the:

a. Eardrum
b. Inner ear
c. Middle ear
d. External ear

A

b. Inner ear

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6
Q

The grey matter on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres is called the:

a. Cerebrum
b. Cerebellum
c. Cerebral cortex
d. Corpus callosum

A

c. Cerebral cortex

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7
Q

the three sections of the small intestine are the:

a. Cecum, duodenum, and ileum
b. Duodenum, jejunum, and ileum
c. Duodenum, sigmoid, and jejunum
d. Ascending, transverse, and descending

A

b. Duodenum, jejunum, and ileum

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8
Q

The kidneys are located behind the:

a. Peritoneum
b. Spinal column
c. Bladder
d. Sternum

A

a. Peritoneum

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9
Q

Night blindness may be caused by a deficiency of:

a. Niacin
b. Thiamin
c. Vitamin A
d. Vitamin D

A

c. Vitamin A

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10
Q

Many of the questions on patient history forms are used to determine:

a. Conditions at their place of employment or home
b. Lifestyle choices such as smoking and drinking
c. Frequency of travel outside of the state
d. Occupation of immediate family members

A

b. Lifestyle choices such as smoking and drinking

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11
Q

The part of the pharynx that is a passageway for air only is the:

a. Nasopharynx
b. Oropharynx
c. Laryngopharynx
d. Larynx

A

a. Nasopharynx

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12
Q

The outer layer of the skin is the:

a. Dermis
b. Corium
c. Epidermis
d. Subcutaneous

A

c. Epidermis

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13
Q

A type of bone fracture producing many bone fragments is:

a. An open fracture
b. A compound fracture
c. A comminuted fracture
d. A greenstick fracture

A

c. A comminuted fracture

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14
Q

The cavity within the kidney that collects urine is the:

a. Ureter
b. Renal pelvis
c. Urinary bladder
d. Bowman’s capsule

A

b. Renal pelvis

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15
Q

At what point does systolic pressure occur?

a. During ventricular relaxation
b. During ventricular construction
c. During contraction of the atria
d. during relaxation of the atria

A

b. During ventricular construction

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16
Q

The internal folds of the stomach are known as:

a. Villi
b. Rugae
c. Cilia
d. Convolutions

A

b. Rugae

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17
Q

the abdominal lateral curvature of the spine that is often congenital in origin is:

a. Lordosis
b. Scoliosis
c. Kyphosis
d. Spondylosis

A

b. Scoliosis

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18
Q

The mucous membrane that lines the inner surface of the eyelid is called:

a. Conjunctiva
b. Epithelium
c. Lacrimal apparatus
d. Tears

A

a. Conjunctiva

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19
Q

When gastric contents leak into the abdominal cavity from perforation of the stomach, bowel, gallbladder, or appendix it is called:

a. Pyelonephritis
b. Vomiting
c. Peritonitis
d. Duodenal ulcer

A

c. Peritonitis

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20
Q

Which of the following is the most common blood disorder that may result from a variety of causes?

a. Leukemia
b. Thrombocytopenia
c. Anemia
d. Polycythemia

A

c. Anemia

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21
Q

Presbycusis is:

a. The hearing loss associated aging
b. The condition of impacted cerumen
c. Inflammation of the ear
d. Changes in the middle ear

A

a. The hearing loss associated aging

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22
Q

Prostatic hypertrophy is:

a. An enlarged prostate
b. Inflamed prostate
c. No prostate
d. Decreased size of the prostate

A

a. An enlarged prostate

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23
Q

The ventral cavity refers to the:

a. Cranial cavity
b. Spinal cavity
c. Anterior body cavity
d. Posterior body cavity

A

c. Anterior body cavity

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24
Q

Permanent adult dentition consists of ___ teeth:

a. 32
b. 30
c. 20
d. 18

A

a. 32

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25
Q

The most important digestive enzyme in the gastric juice is:

a. Rennin
b. Gastrin
c. CCK
d. Pepsin

A

d. Pepsin

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26
Q

The hormone responsible for ovulation is:

a. FSH- follicle Stimulating Hormone
b. TSH- Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
c. LH- Luteinizing Hormone
d. ACTH- Adrenocorticotropic hormones

A

c. LH- Luteinizing Hormone

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27
Q

What is it called when the food is traveling the wrong way and backs up to the esophagus?

a. Gastritis
b. GERD
c. Cholangitis
d. Colitis

A

b. GERD

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28
Q

what term is best associated with cancer that has spread to other organs of the body?

a. Benign
b. Meiosis
c. Malignancy
d. Metastasis

A

d. Metastasis

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29
Q

The abbreviation for “perscription” is:

a. Fx
b. Bx
c. Rx
d. Sx

A

c. Rx

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30
Q

All medication orders, progress notes, consultation reports, operative reports, and clinical orders are subject to:

a. The release of records to family members who ask for a copy
b. The “Do Not Use” List of abbreviations created by JCAHO
c. Every practice can determine what abbreviations are used
d. The right to change as needed without authorization

A

b. The “Do Not Use’ List of abbreviations created by JCAHO

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31
Q

An accumulation of serious fluid in the peritoneal cavity is:

a. Melena
b. Deglutition
c. Eructation
d. Ascites

A

d. Ascites

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32
Q

Encephalopathy is defined as:

a. Swelling of the brain
b. Deterioration of the brain
c. Inflammation of the brain
d. Disease of the brain

A

d. Disease of the brain

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33
Q

The combining form “hist/o” means:

a. Fat
b. Tissue
c. Organ
d. Muscle

A

b. Tissue

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34
Q

What is the first portion of the small intestine?

a. Ileum
b. Jejunum
c. Duodenum
d. Cecum

A

c. Duodenum

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35
Q

When analyzing a medical term, where is the best work part to begin analyzing?

a. Beginning
b. Middle
c. Root
d. End

A

d. End

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36
Q

The inflammation of the pancreas is:

a. Pancreatis
b. Pancreatitis
c. Pancreatin
d. Pancreatic

A

b. Pancreatitis

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37
Q

Which of the following is the correct spelling of the term meaning inflammation of the tonsils?

a. Tonsilitis
b. Tonsillitis
c. Toncilitis
d. Toncillitis

A

b. Tonsillitis

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38
Q

The prefix “ad” means:

a. To move away from
b. To add to
c. Around
d. Removal of

A

b. To add to

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39
Q

“Abnormal widening of the arterial wall that is weak and bulges” defines the term:

a. Embolism
b. Phlebitis
c. Aneurysm
d. Arteriosclerosis

A

c. Aneurysm

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40
Q

The surgical incision into the abdomen is:

a. Ileostomy
b. Vagotomy
c. Hemiotomy
d. Laparotomy

A

d. Laparotomy

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41
Q

Inflammation of the salivary glands is known as:

a. Saladenitis
b. Sialadenitis
c. Sialaden
d. Sialoangitis

A

b. Sialadenitis

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42
Q

The medical term for inflammation of the liver is:

a. Hepatitis
b. Hepatomegaly
c. Cirrhosis
d. Ascites

A

a. Hepatitis

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43
Q

To comply with Medicare guidelines, the physician must write off which of the following charges if not covered by Medigap?

a. Coinsurance
b. Deductible
c. Prevailing charges
d. Disallowed charges

A

d. Disallowed charges

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44
Q

Which of the following Medicare plans provides outpatient prescription drug coverage?

a. Part A
b. Part B
c. Part C
d. Part D

A

d. Part D

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45
Q

This insurance covers health benefits program for the spouses and dependent children of veterans suffering total, permanent, service connected disabilities and for surviving spouses and dependent children of veterans who died as a result of service-related disabilities.

a. TRICARE Prime
b. TRICARE Extra
c. TRICARE Standard
d. CHAMPVA

A

d. CHAMPVA

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46
Q

Traditional health insurance plans that pay for all or a share of the cost of covered services, regardless of which physician, hospital, or other licensed healthcare provider is used. Policyholders and their dependents chose when and where to get healthcare services.

a. Indemnity plan
b. Health maintenance organization plan
c. Self-insured plan
d. Managed care plan

A

a. Indemnity plan

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47
Q

Claims for Medicaid patients enrolled in a managed care plan are paid according to what fee schedule?

a. PPO
b. Medicaid
c. Medicare
d. Capitated

A

d. Capitated

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48
Q

Medicare Part B covers:

a. Prescription drugs
b. Eye exams related to prescribing glasses
c. Cosmetic surgery
d. Prescription medical equipment

A

d. Prescription medical equipment

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49
Q

The policy describing a period of non-coverage for conditions diagnosis prior to the insurance benefit plan is called:

a. An exclusion
b. A special risk rider
c. A hold-harmless clause
d. A pre-existing conditions waiver

A

d. A pre-existing conditions waiver

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50
Q

Accepting assignment on a Medicare claim means that the physician is compensated:

a. 70% of the allowable charge
b. 100% of the limiting charge
c. 80% of approved amount
d. 100% of the usual and customary fee

A

c. 80% of approved amount

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51
Q

Using diagnostic codes to show medical necessity for procedures performed is called:

a. Code linkage
b. Code pairing
c. Medical necessity
d. Procedure pairing

A

a. Code linkage

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52
Q

Medicare patients treated by a non-participating physician:

a. Are responsible for billing Medicare
b. Are covered at 100% of the physician’s charge
c. Pay a higher deductible
d. Are responsible for a portion of the fee

A

d. Are responsible for a portion of the fee

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53
Q

A scheduling method in which patients sign in and are seen on a first-come, first-serve basis is known as which of the following?

a. Open hours
b. Double booking
c. Stream
d. Wave

A

a. Open hours

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54
Q

For a multipage letter, the medical assistant should use:

a. Letterhead for all pages
b. Letterhead for the first page only
c. Blank paper for all pages
d. 3 in margins and single spacing

A

b. Letterhead for the first page only

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55
Q

The physician has just arrived, and several patients are waiting to be seen. Which of the following patients should the physician see first?

a. A patient for a blood pressure check
b. A patient scheduled for an in office minor surgical procedure
c. A walk in patient complaining of chest pain
d. a walk in patient with a swollen ankle

A

c. A walk in patient complaining of chest pain

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56
Q

Which of the following words is NOT required in the heading of a memorandum?

a. Date
b. Subject
c. Copy
d. From

A

c. Copy

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57
Q

The subject line of a letter appears:

a. One line below the date
b. One line above the inside address
c. Two lines below the salutation
d. Last line of the body

A

c. Two lines below the salutation

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58
Q

What information would you need in order to properly matrix the appointment book or electronic medical record?

a. Patient preferences regarding appointment times
b. Days and hours the physician performs hospital rounds
c. Patient wait times in exam rooms
d. Modified wave scheduling patterns

A

b. Days and hours the physician performs hospital rounds

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59
Q

When an order arrives from a supplier, the box should be inventoried. The list of the items included in a shipment is called the:

a. Invoice
b. Warranty
c. Receipt
d. Packing slip

A

d. Packing slip

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60
Q

Speaking clearly and articulating carefully during telephone conversation is referred to as:

a. Pronunciation
b. Enunciation
c. Proclamation
d. Expression

A

b. Enunciation

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61
Q

When making travel arrangements for the physician to attend a medical seminar or convention, the medical assistant should provide the physician with details of the entire trip, including dates and times of arrival and departure, flight and hotel confirmation numbers, and other details all in one document. This detailed description is called:

a. An honorarium
b. An inventory
c. A statement
d. An itinerary

A

d. An itinerary

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62
Q

Which of the following pieces of incoming mail should be delivered directly to the physician unopened?

a. A check from a patient
b. A certified letter marked “Confidential”
c. A magazine subscription renewal form
d. An insurance company letter

A

b. A certified letter marked “Confidential”

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63
Q

The medical assistant develops a matrix or a template prior to creating the physician’s schedule in order to:

a. Establish the legality of the appointment book
b. Prevent overcrowding in the reception area
c. Block out time slots when the physician is not available to see patients
d. Allow patient self-scheduling

A

c. Block out time slots when the physician is not available to see patients

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64
Q

The signature of the treating physician, medical assistant, or other healthcare provider on the medical record indicates that the record is accurate. This is called:

a. Authorization
b. Encryption
c. Authentication
d. Accessibility

A

c. Authentication

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65
Q

When a patient fails to keep an appointment, the medical assistant should:

a. Bill the appointment fee to the insurance company
b. Document the failed appointment in the patient’s chart
c. Call the patient’s nearest relative
d. Refuse further treatments

A

b. Document the failed appointment in the patient’s chart

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66
Q

Which of the following dates is written correctly for inclusion in the heading of a business letter?

a. 7/27/11
b. July 27th, 2011
c. July 27, 2011
d. July 27, ‘11

A

c. July 27, 2011

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67
Q

Which one of the following represents the statistical characteristics of human populations (as in date of birth, address, telephone number, occupation, place of employment) used for identification?

a. Consumer
b. Demographic
c. Template
d. Matrix

A

b. Demographic

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68
Q

A medical assistant made an incorrect entry into her patient’s medical record. She understands that corrections in the medical record are made by:

a. Obliterating the incorrect entry
b. Drawing a line through the text to be corrected and then writing the new information above the old
c. Drawing a line through the text to be corrected, writing the new info above
d. Scribble it out

A

c. Drawing a line through the text to be corrected, writing the new info above

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69
Q

Which of the following is required for electronic data interchange?

a. Modem
b. Photocopier
c. Scanner
d. Transcriber

A

a. Modem

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70
Q

Which of the following is the correct way to write the first line of an inside address in a letter to Susan Martin, a pediatrician?

a. Susan Martin, Pediatrician
b. Dr. Susan Martin, MD
c. Doctor Susan Martin
d. Susan Martin, MD

A

d. Susan Martin, MD

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71
Q

Immunization records should be kept in the medical office for how long?

a. 5 years
b. 7 years
c. 10 years
d. Permanently

A

b. 7 years

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72
Q

Which of the following is the best method of interacting with an angry patient in the reception area?

a. Be assertive in calming the patient down
b. Sit down next to the patient and gently pat their back to calm the patient
c. Invite the patient into a room out of the reception area
d. Ignore the patient

A

c. Invite the patient into a room out of the reception area

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73
Q

According to the Patient Care Partnership (formally the Patient’s Bill of Rights) which of the following is a patient right?

a. To be provided with sample medications
b. To obtain information about a family member’s care
c. To expect continuity of care
d. To participate in research without informed consent

A

c. To expect continuity of care

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74
Q

The Committee on Medicolegal Problems of the American Medical Association (AMA) has determined that patients must present evidence of four elements before negligence has been proven. Which of the following is NOT one of the four elements of negligence?

a. Duty
b. Defamation
c. Direct causes
d. Damages

A

b. Defamation

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75
Q

The purpose of HIPAA security standards is to set national standards of safeguarding the confidentiality of:

a. Electronic exchange of patient information
b. Insurance premium information
c. Paper-based patient files
d. Office employee files

A

a. Electronic exchange of patient information

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76
Q

HIPAA requires covered entities to submit Medicare claims:

a. Through claims processing centers
b. Through electronic data exchange
c. By paper CMS 1500 forms
d. By facsimile transmission

A

b. Through electronic data exchange

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77
Q

Which of the following is a legally blinding request to provide records or documents to a court that is usually issued to the person considered the custodian of the records?

a. Prima Facie
b. Respondeat superior
c. Subpoena duces tecum
d. Res judicata

A

c. Subpoena duces tecum

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78
Q

The purpose of the Good Samaritan Act is to protect healthcare providers rendering First Aid from:

a. Loss of credentials
b. Civil and criminal liability
c. Contracting diseases
d. Accidental injury

A

b. Civil and criminal liability

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79
Q

The Controlled Substances Act is a United States law that regulates controlled drugs. “The law is administered by the Drug Enforcement Administration. All of the following are responsibilities of medical assistants in the medical setting when dealing with controlled substances EXCEPT:

a. Reporting loss or theft of controlled substances
b. Storing controlled substances in a locked cabinet or safe
c. Prescribing controlled drugs
d. Maintaining an inventory of controlled substances

A

c. Prescribing controlled drugs

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80
Q

The law requires that which one of the following be reported to the appropriate authorities?

a. Physician advertising
b. Suspected child abuse
c. A minor with a positive pregnancy test
d. Advertising for surrogacy

A

b. Suspected child abuse

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81
Q

The physician performed plastic surgery on a patient and later published an article about the procedure in a medical journal. A photograph of the surgical site was included. Permission to publish the photograph had not been obtained. This act is an example of:

a. Negligence
b. Malfeasance
c. Invasion of privacy
d. Fraud

A

c. Invasion of privacy

82
Q

A discussion involving the physician providing the patient or the patient’s legal representative with a deeper understanding of the patient’s condition, a full explanation of the plan for treatment, and enough information to decide whether the patient will undergo the treatment or seek an alternative is called what type of consent:

a. Implied consent
b. Informed consent
c. Reasonable consent
d. Contributory consent

A

b. Informed consent

83
Q

In some states, a minor is legally unable to make treatment decisions with limited exceptions. Under what circumstances would a patient such as Jane Doe, a 16-year-old minor, suffering from cancer, be allowed to refuse continued chemotherapy treatments?

a. Being an emancipated minor
b. Being declared mentally incompetent
c. Being abandoned by her parents
d. Under the doctrine of Res Ipsa Loquitor

A

a. Being an emancipated minor

84
Q

Translated as “the thing speaks for itself”, which of the following is evidence showing that negligence by the accused person maybe reasonably inferred from the nature of the injury occurring to the plaintiff?

a. Non compus mentis
b. Quid quo pro
c. Res ipsa loquitur
d. Corpus jusis

A

c. Res ipsa loquitur

85
Q

In the absence of the employing physician’s supply, a medical assistant determines that a patient needs a prescription drug and dispenses the wrong drug from the physician’s supply. The performance of this wrongful and unlawful act is known as:

a. Malfeasance
b. Misfeasance
c. Nonfeasance
d. Duty

A

a. Malfeasance

86
Q

A patient’s implied consent usually covers which one of the following procedures?

a. Blood test
b. Lumbar puncture
c. Organ donation
d. Breast biopsy

A

a. Blood test

87
Q

Who created physiological ideas such as the id, ego, and superego?

a. Jung
b. Frued
c. Maslow

A

b. Frued

88
Q

The justification of behavior with socially acceptable reasons and the tendency to ignore the real reasons underlying the behavior is a defense mechanism. An example is, “I dieted strictly all day; therefore, it’s okay to eat a couple of candy bars later in the evening after supper.” This defense mechanism is known as:

a. Repression
b. Displacement
c. Compensation
d. Rationalization

A

d. Rationalization

89
Q

Positioning or sitting behind a desk communicates the message of:

a. Authority
b. Impartiality
c. Congruency
d. Acknowledgement

A

a. Authority

90
Q

This type of listening is highly recommended for health care providers and patients in communicating needs. It involves participation in a conversation with another by means of repeating words and phrases or giving approving or disapproving nods.

a. Active listening
b. Inactive listening
c. Casual listening
d. Discriminative listening

A

a. Active listening

91
Q

According to the theory of death and dying, a patient with terminal cancer who is beginning to deal with the fact that he or she will die is in which of the following stages of dying?

a. Acceptance
b. Denial
c. Bargaining
d. Anger

A

a. Acceptance

92
Q

The technique used to let a patient know how you interpreted the message he or she is communicating is called:

a. Focusing
b. Reflecting
c. Restating
d. Clarification

A

c. Restating

93
Q

Dr. Elizabeth Kubler-Ross’ stage of Death and Dying progress through five stages. Which of the following is the correct order of her Death and Dying stages?

a. Depression, anger, bargaining, denial, acceptance
b. Anger, depression, denial, bargaining, acceptance
c. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
d. Denial, depression, anger, bargaining, acceptance

A

c. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

94
Q

When dealing with a seriously ill patient, you should:

a. Abandon the patient
b. Judge the patient’s statements
c. Respond with empathy
d. Minimize the patient’s feelings

A

c. Respond with empathy

95
Q

Psychologist Abraham Maslow created the “Hierarchy of Needs”. Maslow believed that our human needs can be categorized into five levels and that the needs of each level must be satisfied before we can move to the next. Which of the following is the correct order of Maslow’s “Hierarchy of Needs” starting from the bottom to the top?

a. Physiological needs, Love and belonging, Safety and security, Esteem and recognition, Self-actualization
b. Physiological needs, Safety and security, Esteem and recognition, Love and belonging, Self-actualization
c. Physiological needs, Love and belonging, Esteem and recognition, Safety and security, Self-actualization
d. Physiological needs, Safety and security, Love and belonging, Esteem and recognition, Self-actualization

A

d. Physiological needs, Safety and security, Love and belonging, Esteem and recognition, Self-actualization

96
Q

When performing medical aseptic hand washing, the hands should be positioned:

a. Above the elbows
b. Level with the elbows
c. Below the elbows
d. Below the waist

A

c. Below the elbows

97
Q

What regulatory body is responsible for monitoring the observance of Standard Precautions guidelines?

a. CDC
b. EPA
c. CMS
d. OSHA

A

d. OSHA

98
Q

What are the two most important factors in performing an effective hand wash?

a. Friction and running warm water
b. Antibacterial soap and hot water
c. Length of time spent and type of soap
d. Friction and length of time

A

a. Friction and running warm water

99
Q

When performing skin preparation before a surgical procedure, the antiseptic solution or soap should be applied starting at the incision site and using a motion that is:

a. Crisscross over the entire surgical area
b. Up and down across the surgical area
c. Circular starting from the incision area to the outside edges of the area
d. Circular from the outside edges into the incision area

A

c. Circular starting from the incision area to the outside edges of the area

100
Q

Laura disinfects the exam tables in between each patient using a 1:10 bleach solution In order for the process to be effective she must:

a. Leave the disinfection solution in an open container to allow evaporation
b. Leave the solution on the exam tables for 15 minutes in order to kill spores and viruses
c. Dilute the bleach solution with boiling water
d. Prepare the solution according to the recommended dilution, store the solution in a closed container, allow recommended contract time, and change after recommended period of expiration

A

d. Prepare the solution according to the recommended dilution, store the solution in a closed container, allow recommended contract time, and change after recommended period of expiration

101
Q

While Susan is preparing a blood specimen for a laboratory analysis, the container tips over and blood spills on the laboratory table. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of the spill?

a. Wear protective equipment such as gloves, use a congealing powder over the spill, scoop up the spill, place contents in bag, wipe area with germicide, place all contaminated materials in the biohazard container
b. Spray the spill with a strong detergent and allow the table to dry
c. wipe up the spill with paper towels, spray disinfectant on the table every 15 minutes for 30 minutes, and discard the towels in the contaminated laundry bin
d. wipe up the spill with soapy cloth towels, rinse the table thoroughly with water and discard the towels in the contaminated laundry bin

A

a. Wear protective equipment such as gloves, use a congealing powder over the spill, scoop up the spill, place contents in bag, wipe area with germicide, place all contaminated materials in the biohazard container

102
Q

Microorganisms may be transmitted by each of the following except

a. Fomites
b. Vectors
c. Droplets
d. Asepsis

A

d. Asepsis

103
Q

Monica is responsible for sterilizing instruments. She places a biological sterilization indicator into the auto clave to test the effectiveness of the sterilization process. What information is provided by the biological sterilization indicator?

a. maximum temperature reached during the sterilization process
b. Presence of microorganisms in the items that were sterilized
c. Highest pressure reached during the sterilization process
d. The presence of spores in the autoclave

A

d. The presence of spores in the autoclave

104
Q

According to the standard precautions guidelines, personal protective equipment MUST be worn whenever there is contact with:

a. Blood
b. Skin
c. Hair
d. Sweat

A

a. Blood

105
Q

The distraction of all microorganisms Is essential for surgical asepsis. The method often used in the medical office that completely destroys microorganisms is:

a. Disinfection
b. Sterilization
c. Sanitization
d. Boiling

A

b. Sterilization

106
Q

Sterile field rules include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Talking over the sterile field should be kept to a minimum
b. Sterile team members do not need to face each other
c. Always keep the sterile field in your view
d. Nonsterile persons or items should never cross over the sterile field

A

b. Sterile team members do not need to face each other

107
Q

The cleaning process to remove debris such as blood, tissue and other bodily fluids from medical instruments or equipment is called:

a. Asepsis
b. Disinfection
c. Sanitation
d. Sterilization

A

c. Sanitation

108
Q

which of the following is the primary method for sterilizing instruments and equipment?

a. Autoclave
b. Chemicals
c. Gas processes
d. Dry heat process

A

a. Autoclave

109
Q

The third level of infection control is:

a. Disinfection
b. Sterilization
c. Sanitization
d. Washing

A

b. Sterilization

110
Q

Items should be moved from the autoclave:

a. Immediately when the auto clave shuts off
b. After all the items are completely dried
c. Five minutes before the autoclave is finished
d. You only need to wait five minutes after the autoclave shuts off

A

b. After all the items are completely dried

111
Q

The distraction of all microorganisms is called:

a. Disinfection
b. Sanitization
c. Sterilization
d. Universal Precaution

A

c. Sterilization

112
Q

Sterilization is the:

a. Destruction of all microbial life
b. Destruction of pathogens
c. Careful cleaning of instruments
d. Removal of blood and bodily fluids

A

a. Destruction of all microbial life

113
Q

Which of the following are applied to the outside of the material used to wrap instructions or supplies for the autoclave that lets you know when an item or items have been sterilized?

a. Thermometers
b. Makers
c. Sterilization indicators
d. Labels

A

c. Sterilization indicators

114
Q

Cold sterilization is achieved through the use of?

a. Pressure
b. Chemicals
c. Steam
d. Gas

A

b. Chemicals

115
Q

The autoclave chamber door is slightly opened at the end of the autoclave cycle to:

a. Prevent contamination
b. Allow the items to dry
c. Release the steam
d. Avoid the pressure build-up

A

b. Allow the items to dry

116
Q

What kind of machines do electrocardiograph technicians operate?

a. EEG
b. EKG
c. MRI
d. Ultrasound

A

b. EKG

117
Q

The instrument used to view the urinary bladder is:

a. Sigmoid scope
b. Otoscope
c. Cystoscope
d. Urinoscope

A

c. Cystoscope

118
Q

A blood pressure cuff is technically called:

a. A tonometer
b. A spirometer
c. An audiometer
d. Sphygmomanometer

A

d. Sphygmomanometer

119
Q

A stainless-steal instrument with a handle at one end and two prongs at the other end used to test hearing is a:

a. Tuning fork
b. Tuning knife
c. Percussion hammer
d. Reflex hammer

A

a. Tuning fork

120
Q

When obtaining a patient’s blood pressure, the patient’s arm should be:

a. A waist level
b. Below waist level
c. At the level of the heart
d. Slightly below the level of the heart

A

c. At the level of the heart

121
Q

What instruments have sharp edges and are used to incise skin and tissue?

a. Cutting and dissecting instruments
b. Dilators
c. Refractors
d. Probes

A

a. Cutting and dissecting instruments

122
Q

According to OSHA, what information must be included in the exposure control plan?

a. A list potential hazards and decontamination processes
b. Records of exposure incidents in the last 7 years and follow up procedures
c. Exposure determination, method of compliance, postexposure evaluation and follow up procedures
d. Safety information for medical equipment and maintenance records for the equipment

A

c. Exposure determination, method of compliance, postexposure evaluation and follow up procedures

123
Q

The major components of a routine urinalysis are:

a. Chemical, visual, and culture
b. Physical, chemical, and microscopic
c. Visual, analytic, and microscopic
d. Physical, analytical, and chemical

A

b. Physical, chemical, and microscopic

124
Q

A urine specimen collected over a specific period of time for quantitative analysis is:

a. Random
b. Timed
c. Clean-catch
d. Mid-stream

A

b. Timed

125
Q

Calibration:

a. Detects errors caused by laboratory equipment not working properly
b. Is a substance that is being identified in a laboratory test
c. Is a solution that is used to monitor a test system
d. Detects reagents added to testing specimens

A

a. Detects errors caused by laboratory equipment not working properly

126
Q

Which of the following best represents the major areas of urinalysis?

a. Physical, physical, random
b. Physical, chemical, microscopic
c. Physical and chemical only
d. Random and physical only

A

b. Physical, chemical, microscopic

127
Q

Why did Congress pass the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendment (CLIA) in 1988?

a. To ensure payment for laboratory testing
b. To ensure safety of laboratory workers
c. To ensure accuracy, reliability, and timeliness of testing
d. To ensure accreditation of laboratories

A

c. To ensure accuracy, reliability, and timeliness of testing

128
Q

Quality control are important because:

a. It assures validity and reliability of the testing
b. It cleans the machine to keep it operational
c. It defines the normal ranges for testing
d. It determines the final test result

A

a. It assures validity and reliability of the testing

129
Q

The process of sanitization:

a. Removes organic material and reduces the number of microorgansims
b. Uses a chemical to remove pathogens on an item
c. Is an agent used to destroy pathogenic microorganisms
d. Is the process of destroying all forms of microbial life

A

Removes organic material and reduces the number of microorgansims

130
Q

When caring and handling surgical instruments which of the following can prolong the life span and ensure proper function of the instrument?

a. Sharp instruments can be mixed with other instruments
b. Rinse blood and body secretions off after allowing it to dry on the instrument
c. Prevent instruments from being piled and getting entangled with one another
d. Using instruments in a way other than their intended purpose does not affect their life span

A

c. Prevent instruments from being piled and getting entangled with one another

131
Q

Most instruments are classified according to their function, which instruments is classified as a dilating/probing instrument?

a. Scalpel
b. Specula
c. Forceps
d. Hemostat

A

b. Specula

132
Q

Electrosurgery is used for:

a. Removal of benign skin lesions
b. Freezing tissue
c. Aspirating tissues or cells
d. Lasering a targeted area

A

a. Removal of benign skin lesions

133
Q

Which of the following is a surgery that is used to treat an abscess?

a. Laceration
b. Suturing
c. Incision and drainage
d. Scraping

A

c. Incision and drainage

134
Q

Diabetic patient education must be acknowledged and followed by the patient. Which of the following is not recommended for the diabetic patient?

a. Maintain plasma glucose level between 120-200mg/dL
b. Stop smoking because smoking causes vasoconstriction which reduces circulation to the extremities
c. Wash your feet every day with warm (not hot) water and mild soap
d. Check your feet every day, using a mirror if necessary

A

a. Maintain plasma glucose level between 120-200mg/dL

135
Q

Instructing patients with collection of a clean catch, midstream urine specimen is especially important in order to avoid a contamination. Which of the following is incorrect in patient education?

a. cleanse each side of the urinary meatus with a front to back motion from the pubic to the anus
b. On the second motion, cleanse directlyacross the meatus, Front to back, using another antiseptic wipe
c. Allow the initial flow of the urine to travel into the toilet flushing and opening the urethra
d. Fill the container halfway

A

b. On the second motion, cleanse directlyacross the meatus, Front to back, using another antiseptic wipe

136
Q

When educating a patient, which of the following is not recommended for the prevention of deep vein thrombosis?

a. Avoid compression stockings
b. If anticoagulants Have been prescribed, eat foods high in vitamin K in small amounts
c. Avoid sitting for long periods
d. Walk around several times during the day or move legs frequently

A

a. Avoid compression stockings

137
Q

In order to have patience learn and retain information The medical assistant can do all the following EXCEPT:

a. Keep it short and be specific
b. Use terms that the patient can understand
c. Focus on the “why”
d. Repeat and reinforce important information

A

c. Focus on the “why”

138
Q

Educating female patients on the signs and symptoms of a myocardial infraction reduces all the following EXCEPT:

a. Back pain or arching and throbbing in the biceps or forearms
b. Shortness of breath (SOB)
c. Feeling of lightness or feeling famished in the media
d. Dizziness (vertigo) - unexplained lightheadedness or syncopal episodes

A

c. Feeling of lightness or feeling famished in the media

139
Q

Patient education for preventing Lyme Disease includes all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Wear pants tucked into socks and long sleeve shirt when walking in wooded or grassy areas
b. Use insect repellent‘s that contain DEET
c. understand that deer ticks are no bigger than the head of a pin or a grain of pepper
d. Remove a tick by squeezing or crushing the tick with tweezers

A

d. Remove a tick by squeezing or crushing the tick with tweezers

140
Q

When obtaining an accurate weight of an infant, The medical assistant should be should do all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Put a dry paper towel on the patient or remove the diaper
b. Remove all the clothing from the patient
c. Place the infant on their stomach for safety
d. Keep a hand over the infant for safety

A

c. Place the infant on their stomach for safety

141
Q

which of the following is not associated with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus?

a. Due to lack of insulin
b. Type 1
c. Type 1A and Type 1B
d. Type 2

A

d. Type 2

142
Q

The most common arterial site for obtaining an adult pulse is?

a. Popliteal
b. Branchial
c. Carotid
d. Radial

A

d. Radial

143
Q

The average pulse for an adult at rest is in the range of:

a. 20-40 beats per minute
b. 40-55 beats per minute
c. 60-100 beats per minute
d. 100-110 beats per minute

A

c. 60-100 beats per minute

144
Q

Normal bacteria that are found in the intestinal tract and are the most common causes of lower-tract urinary infections (due to improper hygiene after bowel movements) are:

a. Ketones
b. Nitrites
c. Coli
d. Electrolytes

A

b. Nitrites

145
Q

The signs and symptoms of IDDM (insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus) do not include:

a. Ketonuria and glycosuria
b. Hyperglycemia and polyuria
c. Weight gain
d. Weight loss

A

c. Weight gain

146
Q

A sudden attack, such as that observed in epilepsy is known as:

a. An aneurysm
b. A seizure
c. Generalization
d. Inspiration

A

b. A seizure

147
Q

To obtain the most accurate rate, respirations should be counted for:

a. 10 seconds and multiply by 6
b. 15 seconds and multiply by 4
c. 30 seconds and multiply by 2
d. 60 seconds

A

d. 60 seconds

148
Q

A marked drop in blood pressure is found with:

a. Shock
b. Fright
c. Hysteria
d. Hypertension

A

a. Shock

149
Q

The position with one arm behind the body and one arm near the chest while the person lays on one side with one knee up is:

a. Dorsal recumbent
b. Jackknife
c. Knee-chest
d. Sims’

A

d. Sims’

150
Q

The correct site for an adult IM injection is the:

a. Gluteus medius
b. Gluteus maximus
c. Gluteus minimus
d. Gastrocnemius

A

a. Gluteus medius

151
Q

Cardinal signs are also known as:

a. Height and weight
b. Pulse oximeter
c. Blood pressure, temperature, pulse, and respirations
d. Oxygen saturation

A

c. Blood pressure, temperature, pulse, and respirations

152
Q

You have just done a venipuncture your patient and the patient says she feels like she is going to faint. Into what positions do you quickly place your patient in?

a. Trendelenburg
b. Lithotomy
c. Sims’
d. Semi-fowler’s

A

d. Semi-fowler’s

153
Q

“The Snellen Chart” is used to test:

a. Reflexes
b. Hearing
c. Smell
d. Sight

A

d. Sight

154
Q

Cheyne-Stokes describes a:

a. Stethoscope
b. Surgical instrument
c. Type of pulse
d. Type of respiration

A

d. Type of respiration

155
Q

The angle for a subcutaneous injection is:

a. 15 degrees
b. 25 degrees
c. 45 degrees
d. 90 degrees

A

c. 45 degrees

156
Q

The knee-chest position is used for examination of the:

a. Lumbar spine
b. Abdomen
c. Bladder
d. Rectum

A

d. Rectum

157
Q

What type of pulse is obtained using a stethoscope?

a. Popliteal
b. Radial
c. Apical
d. Brachial

A

c. Apical

158
Q

The method used to perform a breast examination is:

a. Palpation
b. Percussion
c. Auscultation
d. Mensuration

A

a. Palpation

159
Q

Which statement is considered to be closed-ended?

a. Do you have a headache?
b. Describe the pain you are having in your head.
c. Describe the abdominal pain you are having.
d. Tell me how you hurt your back

A

a. Do you have a headache?

160
Q

Mitchell has an order to administer a TB test on her patient. She knows that the body sites used for an intradermal injection are the:

a. Deltoid muscle and/or gluteal muscle
b. Anterior forearm and the upper back
c. Outer forearm and the thigh
d. The thigh and/or the middle of the back

A

b. Anterior forearm and the upper back

161
Q

Samantha is administering an infant’s first dose of the Diphtheria, Tetanus, Pertussis, vaccine. What is the safe site for an intramuscular injection on an infant?

a. Dorsogluteal
b. Vastus lateralis
c. Deltoid
d. Abdomen

A

b. Vastus lateralis

162
Q

Dr. Thompson has ordered penicillin for her patient. Sarah has prepared the injection and is instructing the patient to remain in the medical office for 30 minutes post injection so that she can monitor the patient. Sarah warns the patient that the most common adverse reaction to penicillin is:

a. Nausea
b. Fever with diarrhea
c. Diarrhea
d. An allergic reaction

A

d. An allergic reaction

163
Q

The physician orders 1 gram of a medication of injection. On hand is 0.5 grams per mL. How many mL will be administered?

a. 0.5 mL
b. 1.0 mL
c. 1.5 mL
d. 2.0 mL

A

d. 2.0 mL

164
Q

The drug used to relieve pain is a:

a. Antidote
b. Antibiotic
c. Analgesic
d. Antidepressant

A

c. Analgesic

165
Q

Sarah knows that legally, all vaccine providers must give patients, their parents, or their legal representatives, the appropriate Vaccine Information Statement (VIS) whenever a vaccine is administered. The required information that must be recorded on the patient’s medical record includes. the:

a. Edition date of the VIS, the date the VIS is provided (example: the date of the visit when the vaccine administered)
b. Date of the last outbreak of disease that the vaccine prevents
c. Country in which the vaccine was developed
d. Chances of vaccination

A

a. Edition date of the VIS, the date the VIS is provided (example: the date of the visit when the vaccine administered)

166
Q

Which of the following administration routes will result in the most rapid action of a drug?

a. Intradermal
b. Intramuscular
c. Intravenous
d. Subcutaneous

A

c. Intravenous

167
Q

Which of the following types of intramuscular injections is recommended for the administration of irritating or staining medications?

a. Z-track
b. Subcantaneous
c. Intradermal
d. Intramuscular

A

a. Z-track

168
Q

While administering an intramuscular injection, the medical assistant inadvertently aspirates blood into the syringe. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

a. Change the needle angle
b. Continue the injection
c. Insert the needle deeper
d. Withdraw the needle completely and start the procedure over

A

d. Withdraw the needle completely and start the procedure over

169
Q

For a medication to be maintained at the proper blood level, it must be given:

a. By the right route
b. At the right time
c. In the right dose
d. In the right place

A

b. At the right time

170
Q

A syringe marked with U-100 would be used for administering which of the following?

a. Allergy testing
b. Chemotherapy
c. Insulin
d. Tuberculin testing

A

c. Insulin

171
Q

Laura’s patient has just been informed that she is pregnant. Laura explains to her patient that she should not take any medications without the knowledge of her physician. Medications considered relativity safe in pregnancy are classified in Food and Drug Administration (FDA) category:

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

A

a. A

172
Q

Sarah been given the following physician order: Give antibiotic 1 gram orally now. The drug that is available is a 250 mg per capsule antibiotic. How many capsules should the patient receive?

a. 0.125
b. 0.25
c. 2
d. 4

A

d.4

173
Q

Tim is newly diagnosed with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. Tim is receiving insulin. His medical assistant knows that Tim needs to be taught to be cautious about which of the following adverse effects?

a. Hypoglycemic reaction
b. Malignant hyperthermia
c. Malignant hypertension
d. severe hyperglycemia

A

a. Hypoglycemic reaction

174
Q

Sarah is administering an influenza shot to her patient. She knows that when administering an injection into the deltoid muscle, caution must be taken to avoid the:

a. Sciatic nerve
b. Radial and ulnar nerves
c. Clavicle
d. Greater trochanter

A

b. Radial and ulnar nerves

175
Q

Which of the following is NOT a physical therapy modality?

a. Massage
b. Whirlpool
c. Diathermy
d. Immobilization

A

d. Immobilization

176
Q

Which of these statements is true regarding angioplasty?

a. An angiogram and angioplasty are the same procedure
b. Angioplasty is used to restore blood flow to ischemic myocardial tissue
c. Angioplasty is used to diagnose heart disorders
d. Angioplasty is a small battery operated device

A

b. Angioplasty is used to restore blood flow to ischemic myocardial tissue

177
Q

Sensitivity testing microbiology is performed to:

a. Check for antibiotic sensitivity to the bacteria found in the specimen
b. Check for reactions to dyes
c. Check for mistakes in specimen collection
d. Correct mistakes in specimen collection

A

a. Check for antibiotic sensitivity to the bacteria found in the specimen

178
Q

Of the following, what is the most appropriate patient position for a venipuncture?

a. Standing at a counter
b. Sitting in a chair
c. Sitting on a stool
d. Standing at the examination table

A

b. Sitting in a chair

179
Q

Staphylococci are the primary causative pathogen for which one of the following diseases?

a. Ringworm
b. Gonorrhea
c. Acne/boils
d. Tuberculosis

A

c. Acne/boils

180
Q

The “universal donor” has blood type:

a. A+
b. B-
c. AB+
d. O-

A

d. O-

181
Q

What should be done if a patient reports intense pain after a needle is inserted into the patient’s arm?

a. Hurry and finish drawing your blood specimen
b. Remove the needle immediately and treat the patient appropriately
c. Remove the needle and then ask the patient if you can redraw a specimen in the same arm
d. A period of time when the MD with use the laboratory results to treat their patient

A

b. Remove the needle immediately and treat the patient appropriately

182
Q

The preanalytical phase of laboratory procedures refers to:

a. The laboratory testing phase in which tests are ordered and specimens are collected and prepared for testing
b. A period of time after a specimen has been centrifuged but before serum or plasma has been removed for testing
c. The laboratory testing phase when the test results to go back to the MD
d. A period of time when the MD will use the laboratory results to treat their patient

A

a. The laboratory testing phase in which tests are ordered and specimens are collected and prepared for testing

183
Q

A urine pregnancy test checks for the presence of:

a. FSH
b. PTH
c. HCG
d. TSH

A

c. HCG

184
Q

The most common blood type is:

a. A
b. B
c. AB
d. O+

A

d. O+

185
Q

Which one of the following is a highly specific host defense mechanism?

a. Presence of normal flora
b. Immune response
c. Inflammation
d. Phagocytosis

A

b. Immune response

186
Q

darkish brown urine may be an indiction of:

a. Diabetes
b. Infection
c. Hepatitis
d. Hematuria

A

c. Hepatitis

187
Q

The normal specific gravity of urine, which measures the ability to kidneys to concentrate urine, ranges from:

a. 1.000 to 1.005
b. 1.010 to 1.030
c. 1.005 to 10.10
d. 1.010 to 1.020

A

b. 1.010 to 1.030

188
Q

Palpating the venipuncture site:

a. Helps the healthcare worker determine the age of the patient
b. Moves arteries out of the way for venipuncture
c. Contributes to the assessment of the size and the depth of the vein
d. Keeps the patient distracted prior to the venipuncture

A

c. Contributes to the assessment of the size and the depth of the vein

189
Q

In electrocardiography, the electrodes used as a ground is:

a. Right arm (RA)
b. Left arm (LA)
c. Right leg (RL)
d. Left leg (LL)

A

c. Right leg (RL)

190
Q

The basic ECG has how many levels?

a. 6
b. 8
c. 10
d. 12

A

d. 12

191
Q

When preparing a patient for an ECG, leads should be placed:

a. On the costals
b. Anywhere on the upper chest
c. On the intercostal spaces
d. On the sternum

A

c. On the intercostal spaces

192
Q

What typically does NOT cause an artifact in the tracing of an electrocardiogram?

a. Electricity
b. Movement
c. Muscle tremors
d. Relaxed patient

A

d. Relaxed patient

193
Q

Mr. Smith suspects that her child has ingested a corrosive person because the child had been playing in their shed and was complaining of feeling sick. She brought the child to the doctor’s office quite concerned. What is the next step regarding treatment?

a. Gather as much information as possible from the mother about the products in the shed
b. Induce vomiting immediately
c. Call the poison control
d. Administer activated charcoal

A

a. Gather as much information as possible from the mother about the products in the shed

194
Q

What is the first thing you should do if you walk into a room and find a patient collapsed on the floor?

a. Run to the victim and start the assessment
b. Go to your car and get a first aid kit
c. Assess the scene before going any further
d. Go and wash your hands and get a first aid book

A

c. Assess the scene before going any further

195
Q

What is the proper treatment for syncope?

a. Place the patient in a chair and lean the head backward
b. Place the patient in a supine position with the less elevated
c. Administer water and cold compresses to the neck and forehead
d. Place the patient in a prone position with the arms above their head

A

b. Place the patient in a supine position with the less elevated

196
Q

When using a fire extinguisher, what does the acronym PASS mean?

a. Point, assess, squeeze, and squirt
b. Pin, aim, squirt, and sweep
c. Pull, aim, squeeze, and sweep
d. Pull, assert, squirt, and stop

A

c. Pull, aim, squeeze, and sweep

197
Q

A second-degree burn would appear is:

a. Red, edematous, wet, shiny, or blistered
b. Leathery tissue, white, no blisters
c. Red and dry with no blisters
d. Deeply charred tissue damage

A

a. Red, edematous, wet, shiny, or blistered

198
Q

Fire extinguishers must be inspected and recharged, if necessary:

a. Every six months
b. Once a year
c. Every two years
d. As needed

A

b. Once a year

199
Q

If it is necessary to move an unresponsive, adult victim quickly away from a scene unassisted, you should:

a. Drag the patient by the heels to safety
b. Sling the patient over your shoulder
c. Shake the patient and try to get the patient to work and walk
d. Drag the patient by the head to safety

A

a. Drag the patient by the heels to safety

200
Q

What should be done if a person exhibits changing levels of consciousness?

a. Consult your first aid book
b. Allow the patient to leave the area
c. Have the patient lie down
d. Give the patient fluids

A

c. Have the patient lie down

201
Q

After putting gloves on, what should be done to assist a bleeding victim?

a. Apply direct pressure to the site
b. Wash the area and apply antibiotic ointment
c. Apply indirect pressure to the site
d. Check the wound for objects to remove

A

c. Apply indirect pressure to the site

RMA (2 decks)

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