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RMA > RMA > Flashcards

RMA Flashcards

1
Q

ADL

A

activities of daily living

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2
Q

ASAP

A

As soon as possible

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3
Q

ax

A

Axillary

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4
Q

BE

A

Barium enema

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5
Q

bx

A

Biopsy

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6
Q

CABG

A

Coronary artery bypass graft

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7
Q

CAM

A

Complementary and alternative medicine

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8
Q

CC

A

Chief complaint

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9
Q

c/o

A

Complains of

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10
Q

CSF

A

Cerebrospinal fluid

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11
Q

CPAP

A

Continuous positive airway pressure

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12
Q

cx

A

Cervix

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13
Q

D&C

A

Dilation and curettage

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14
Q

drsg, dsg

A

Dressing

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15
Q

ECP

A

Emergency contraceptive pill

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16
Q

EEG

A

Electroencephalogram

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17
Q

ERT

A

Estrogen replacement therapy

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18
Q

ETOH

A

Ethyl alcohol

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19
Q

FB

A

Foreign body

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20
Q

FH

A

Family history

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21
Q

fx

A

Fracture

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22
Q

GIFT

A

Gamete intrefallopian transfer

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23
Q

GP

A

General practitioner

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24
Q

grav,gravida

A

Pregnancy

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25
Q

GU

A

Genitourinary

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26
Q

H&P

A

History and physical

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27
Q

HEENT

A

Head, eye, ear, nose, throat

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28
Q

HRT

A

Hormone replacement therapy

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29
Q

hs

A

Hour of sleep, bedtime

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30
Q

I&D

A

Incision and drainage

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31
Q

LPN

A

Licensed practical nurse

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32
Q

IVF

A

In vitro fertilization

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33
Q

LVN

A

Licensed vocational nurse

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34
Q

Mets

A

Metastasis

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35
Q

N&V

A

Nausea and vomiting

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36
Q

NKA

A

No known allergies

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37
Q

NKDA

A

No known drug allergies

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38
Q

NPO

A

Nothing by mouth

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39
Q

NVD

A

Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea

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40
Q

OC

A

Oral contraceptive

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41
Q

os

A

Opening

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42
Q

P

A

Pulse

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43
Q

OCP

A

Oral contraceptive pill

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44
Q

Para

A

Live births

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45
Q

PE, px

A

Physical examination

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46
Q

PERLA

A

Pupils equally reactive to light and accommodation

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47
Q

PH

A

Past history

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48
Q

R

A

Respiration

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49
Q

r/o

A

Rule out

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50
Q

ROM

A

Range of motion

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51
Q

Which of the following is added to code for a procedure that was extemsive, unusual, or required an assistant?

A

A 2-digit modifier

A modifier is an addition to a procedure code. It indicates unusual circumstances related to the procedure. It consists of 2 digits and is added to the main code after a hyphen.

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52
Q

An established patient is defined as

A

A patient who has been seen in the past 3 years.

An established patient is a patient who has been seen by the same provider or the same group of providers over time.

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53
Q

What is the format of most CPT codes?

A

6 digit codes.

Procedure codes are a means to classify the type of care given to a patient. The CPT manual provides a 5 digit code for each procedure for each or service a provider may perform.

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54
Q

The ICD-9 code that identifies an encounter other than illness or injury related is a(n)

A

V code

A v code is used when a patient is not currently I’ll or to explain problems that influence a patients current injury, illness, or condition.

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55
Q

All ICD-10 codes contain

A

3-7 alphanumeric digits.

IDC-10 codes consist of 3-7 alphanumeric digits. The first digit is alphabetic, the second is numeric, and digits 3-7 are either.

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56
Q

All of the following are considered a tort except

A

Breach of contract

A tort is a civil wrong committed against another or property. A tort can be unintentional or intentional.

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57
Q

When the release of medical records is authorized, the MA should

A

Give the pt a copy of the original records.

The pt owns the information in the medical record, but the physician owns the record

58
Q

Which is not a criterion for establishing negligence

A

Informed consent.

Negligence is the commission of an act that a prudent person would not do. Duty owed, dereliction of duty, direct cause, and damages make up for the “4 Ds” of negligence.

59
Q

The MAs signature on an informed consent form means that the MA

A

Verified the pts signature

A physician must have consent to treat a pt. this consent can be implied which is sufficient for procedures that involve little risk, or this consent can be informed when more complex procedures are involved. Informed consent implies an understanding of what is to be done, why is it to be done, risks involved, expected benefits, and alternative treatments. This should be done by discussion between the pt and physician, and a form may be signed. The MA witnesses the signature of the pt on this form by signing and dating.

60
Q

The initial report for a workers compensation claim should be filed

A

Immediately after the initial visit

The first report of the injury should be completed in quadruplaticate at the first visit and distributed to the pts chart, employer, compensation carrier, and the state workers compensation board. Filing deadlines vary by state, but they generally range from 24 hours to 10 days after the initial visit.

61
Q

When a physician accepts a pt for treatment, the physician has a duty to

A

Use care, diligence, and skill in treatment.

A duty is an obligation or commitment to act in a certain way. The physician has a duty to do no harm, act to create good, meet the pts reasonable expectation, and tell the truth.

62
Q

Which of the following pts would require a legal agent to consent to surgery

A

A 6 year old child

Consent is voluntary permission that is granted by someone who is legally able to do so to receive medical treatment. A minor requires the consent of a parent or guardian.

63
Q

When a physician treats a Medicaid pt, the physician agrees

A

To accept the fee approved by Medicaid as payment in full.

Medicaid is a federal insurance program admits reed each state and available to patients with income below the poverty level. A physician who elects to treat a Medicaid pt must accept the reimbursement as pay,net in full without further billing the pt.

64
Q

Rendering care to a pt without consent could result in a charge of

A

Battery

Battery is defined as intentional physical contact with another without that persons consent. A physician who fails to secure some formal expression of consent before treating a pt could be charged with trespass or battery.

65
Q

A commitment or obligation to act in a certain way is a(n)

A

Duty

A duty is the obligation or commitment of a person to act in a certain ways. It is a basic principle of ethics- judgement of right and wrong. Duties include beneficence, nonmaleficence, veracity, fidelity, and justice.

66
Q

SOAP

A

Subjective, objective, assessment, plan

67
Q

Stat

A

Immediately

68
Q

sx

A

Symptoms

69
Q

T

A

Temperature

70
Q

T&A

A

Tonsilloadenoidectomy

71
Q

TLC

A

Tender loving care

72
Q

TSE

A

Testicular self examination

73
Q

tx

A

Treatment, therapy

74
Q

UCHD

A

Usual childhood diseases

75
Q

vo

A

Verbal order

76
Q

VS

A

Vital signs

77
Q

WDWN

A

Well developed, well nourished

78
Q

WNL

A

Within normal limits

79
Q

AIDS

A

Acquire immune deficiency syndrome

80
Q

ADD

A

Attention deficit disorder

81
Q

ALL

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

82
Q

AMI

A

Acute myocardial infarction

83
Q

ASHD

A

Arteriosclerotic heart disease

84
Q

BPH

A

Benign prostate hyperplasia/ hypertrophy

85
Q

CA, ca

A

Cancer

86
Q

CAD

A

Coronary artery disease

87
Q

CHF

A

Congestive heart failure

88
Q

COPD

A

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

89
Q

CTS

A

Carpal tunnel syndrome

90
Q

CVA

A

Cerebral vascular accident

91
Q

DJD

A

Degenerative joint disease

92
Q

DLE

A

Discoid lupus erythematosus

93
Q

DT

A

Delirium tremens

94
Q

DVT

A

Deep vein thrombosis

95
Q

FTT

A

Failure to thrive

96
Q

GAD

A

Generalized anxiety disorder

97
Q

Gc

A

Gonococcus

98
Q

GERD

A

Gastroesophageal reflux disease

99
Q

HPV

A

Human papillomavirus

100
Q

IBS

A

Irritable bowel syndrome

101
Q

IDDM

A

Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus

102
Q

MI

A

Myocardial infarction

103
Q

NIDDM

A

Non insulin dependent diabetes mellitus

104
Q

OA

A

Osteoarthritis

105
Q

OM

A

Otitis media

106
Q

PID

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease

107
Q

POCS

A

Polysystic ovary syndrome

108
Q

PMDD

A

Premenstual dysphoric disorder

109
Q

RA

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

110
Q

RAD

A

Reactive airway disease

111
Q

RDS

A

Respiratory distress syndrome

112
Q

RSV

A

Respiratory syncytial virus

113
Q

SAD

A

Seasonal affective disorder

114
Q

SARS

A

Severe acute respiratory syndrome

115
Q

SLE

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus

116
Q

SOB

A

Shortness of breathe

117
Q

TMJ

A

Temporomandibular joint

118
Q

URI

A

Upper respiratory infection

119
Q

aa

A

Of each

120
Q

a

A

Before

121
Q

ac

A

Before meals

122
Q

AD

A

Right ear

123
Q

Ad lib

A

As desired

124
Q

amp

A

Ampule

125
Q

amt

A

Amount

126
Q

aq

A

Water

127
Q

AS

A

Left ear

128
Q

ASA

A

Aspirin

129
Q

AU

A

Both ears

130
Q

NSAIDS

A

Nonsteroidal anti inflammatory drug

131
Q

OD

A

Right eye

132
Q

os

A

Mouth

133
Q

OS

A

Left eye

134
Q

OU

A

Both eyes

135
Q

pc

A

After meals

136
Q

po

A

By mouth

137
Q

qod

A

Every other day

138
Q

SL

A

Sublingual

139
Q

AP

A

Anterior/posterior

140
Q

BaS

A

Barium swallow

141
Q

BUN

A

Blood urea nitrogen

142
Q

CT

A

Computed tomography

RMA (1 decks)

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