RKAs Flashcards

1
Q

Maximum ITT for Takeoff

A

1013 C

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2
Q

What sources of power and hydraulics are needed to activate Nose Wheel Steering?

A

C Bus Power

No. 2 Hydraulics

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3
Q

Landing gear handle does what if the gear is not properly sequenced?

A

Flashes after 20 seconds

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4
Q

Source of power for TR controls and indications?

A

A Bus

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5
Q

The battery RCR relay trips open at ______ amps.

A

250

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6
Q

What does the GCU do after a start?

A

Soft charge: reduce gen voltage to 27.5V for 3 minutes.

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7
Q

On the ground landing lights are limited to _______?

A

15 min on followed by 45 min off

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8
Q

Emergency Lights should last for?

A

15 min

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9
Q

The fire pull handle shuts off fuel where?

A

Base of the feeder tanks

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10
Q

Total Fuel capacity with SB?

A

15513

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11
Q

No. 3 transfer pump failure is indicated by the ________?

A

No. 3 XFR pump light

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12
Q

The TFE-731-40 has how much thrust?

A

3700 lbs

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13
Q

How many stages of LP compression are on the engine?

A

4

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14
Q

When an engine computer fails the surge bleed valve does what?

A

Fails to 1/3 open position

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15
Q

If the starter remains engaged above 50% N2 what should you do?

A

Set to “Motor Start/Stop”

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16
Q

What temp does the APU automatically shut down?

A

732 degrees C

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17
Q

High pressure bleed air is provided by which engines in flight?

A

No. 1,2,3 only

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18
Q

Secondary HP and LP bleed air is supplied by which engines?

A

Engines 1 & 2

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19
Q

What does secondary LP air supply?

A

Wing tanks, Feeder Tanks and Hydraulic Tank

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20
Q

Bleed OVHT Light comes on when?

A

310 degrees C

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21
Q

What supplies the wing anti ice?

A

HP1, HP2, HP3 when switch is in auto and LP air

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22
Q

When should the wing anti ice be turned on?

A

After gear retraction

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23
Q

When do the A/C valves fully open after takeoff?

A

2.5 minutes

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24
Q

What cabin altitude does the CABIN light come on?

A

10,000’

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25
Q

At what altitude do the outflow valves fully close?

A

14,500’

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26
Q

How can you dump the cabin?

A

Guarded Dump switch or “up/down” control knob.

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27
Q

What bus is the pressurization controller on?

A

A Bus

28
Q

What systems are used to pressurize the hydraulic reservoirs?

A

Eng 1 and Eng 2

29
Q

When does the “ST Pump No. 2” light come on?

A

Standby Pump selector in GROUND TEST or if pump runs continuously for 60 seconds.

30
Q

Type of hydraulic fluid used in the Falcon 50 is?

A

5606 H

31
Q

What airspeed do you fly with a loss of either hydraulic system?

A

260 KIAS or 0.76M

32
Q

What system are emergency slats on?

Which slats do you get and how many?

A

No. 2

Outboard slats (2)

33
Q

How do you get outboard slats out with a loss of system No.1?

A

Emergency slat switch

34
Q

What lights do you get with the Emergency Gear Pull Handle?

A

3 gear lights (green) and 2 main wheel door lights.

35
Q

What system does the Emergency Gear Pull Handle use to extend gear?

A

No. 1 Hydraulic System

36
Q

What powers the normal gear system?

A

A Bus

37
Q

What do you loose if you have to use Emergency pitch trim?

A

Autopilot and Mach Trim

38
Q

Which slats retract last under normal retraction?

A

Outboards

39
Q

Which bus is Emergency pitch trim powered off?

A

B Bus

40
Q

What speed are we limited to with Mach trim inop?

A

.78 Mach

41
Q

Max airspeed with Q Unit Light on?

A

260 KIAS

42
Q

What hydraulic and electrical system do normal slats use?

A

No. 1 Hydraulics and no electrics are required

43
Q

Source of power for flaps?

A

D Bus

44
Q

What happens to air brakes with a loss of electrical power?

A

Retract

45
Q

What does it mean when there are cyan colored indications on the FMS?

A

Data manually entered by the pilot.

46
Q

Display of single bearing pointers is controlled by the ________?

A

DCP

47
Q

Flags appearing on the ADI and HIS indicate a failure of?

A

On-side IRS

48
Q

Which flight mode is energy management mode?

A

FLC

49
Q

Max Radio Altimeter altitude is ______?

A

2500’

50
Q

Flashing ALIGN light and FAULT light indicate _________?

A

Excessive movement of the aircraft

51
Q

Does the AP switch on the yoke disconnect the YD also?

A

No

52
Q

Which pitch trim will cause the AP to disconnect?

A

EMERG AND normal pitch trim

53
Q

What does the NO AIR light indicate IRS panel?

A

IRU fan intakes are clogging

54
Q

Primary means of navigation of the FMS is?

A

GPS

55
Q

What does the SEC button do on the WXP?

A

Reduces scan from 120 degrees to 60 degrees

56
Q

How big is the radar dish?

A

18 inches

57
Q

What comes on when you turn on the mode select unit?

A

ALIGN, NO AIR AND ON BATT lights

58
Q

Which displays give you overlays of radar, TCAS and Terrain info?

A

Rose, VOR Map and FMS present position

59
Q

Normal O2 bottle pressure?

A

1850 psi

60
Q

What is the capacity of the O2?

A

76 cu-ft

61
Q

What altitude do the cabin masks drop automatically?

A

11,200’

62
Q

How much psi drops the masks?

A

70 psi

63
Q

What airspeed can the TRs be used down to?

A

0 KIAS

64
Q

Maximum speed Thrust Reverser emergency stow switch can be activated?

A

230 KIAS

65
Q

What hydraulic system does the thrust reverser work on?

A

No. 1