RJs GEN Codes Flashcards

1
Q

What is the formula for power in a DC circuit?

A

Power = Voltage times Current

P = VI

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2
Q

What is the relationship between mechanical and electrical power?

A

1 horsepower = 746 watts

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3
Q

What is meant by true power in an AC circuit?

A

The product of the circuit voltage and the current that is in phase with this voltage.

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4
Q

In what units is true power expressed?

A

In watts.

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5
Q

What is meant by apparent power in an AC circuit?

A

The product of the circuit voltage and the circuit current, without reference to phase angle.

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6
Q

In what units is apparent power expressed?

A

In volt-amps.

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7
Q

What is meant by reactive power in an AC circuit?

A

The power consumed in the inductive and capacitive reactances in an AC circuit. Reactive power is also called wattless power.

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8
Q

In what units is reactive power expressed?

A

In volt-amps reactive (VAR), or kilovolt-amps reactive (KVAR).

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9
Q

What is meant by power factor in an AC circuit? (Ratio)

A

The ratio of true power to apparent power. It is also the ratio of circuit resistance to circuit impedance.

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10
Q

How many watts of power are consumed by a US horsepower, 24-volt DC motor that is 75% efficient?

A

Power consumed is the same as Power in, and 1 horsepower (hp) equals 746 watts.

Therefore, Power In = Power Out = 1 hp = 0.75 hp (746 W/hp) = 499 Watts

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11
Q

What is meant by the capacity rating of a lead acid battery?

A

The number of hours a battery can supply a given current.

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12
Q

What electrolyte is used in a lead-acid battery?

A

A mixture of sulfuric acid and water.

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13
Q

Does the specific gravity of the electrolyte in a lead-acid battery increase or decrease as the battery becomes discharged?

A

It decreases.

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14
Q

What is the specific gravity of a fully charged lead-acid battery?

A

Between 1.275 and 1.300.

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15
Q

How many cells are there in a 24-volt lead-acid battery?

A

12.

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16
Q

What is the range of temperatures of the electrolyte in a lead-acid battery that does not require a correction when measuring specific gravity?

A

Between 70° and 90°.

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17
Q

How do you treat a lead-acid battery compartment to protect it from corrosion?

A

Paint it with an asphallic (tar-base) paint or with a polyurethane enamel.

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18
Q

What is used to neutralize spilled electrolyte from a lead-acid battery?

A

A solution of sodium bicarbonate and water.

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19
Q

How high should the electrolyte level be in a properly serviced lead-acid battery?

A

Only up to the level of the indicator in the cell.

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20
Q

Why is the closed circuit voltage of a lead-acid battery lower than its open-circuit voltage?

A

Voltage is dropped across the internal resistance of the battery.

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21
Q

What gases are released when a lead-acid battery is being charged?

A

Hydrogen and oxygen.

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22
Q

What is the electrolyte used in a nickel-cadmium battery?

A

Potassium hydroxide and water.

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23
Q

Why is a hydrometer not used to measure the state of charge of a nickel-cadmium battery?

A

The electrolyte of a nickel-cadmium battery does not enter into the chemical changes that occur when the battery is charged or discharged; its specific gravity does not change appreciably.

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24
Q

How can you know that the aircrat drawing you are using is the most current version of the drawing?

A

revision block numbers/ recent drawing logs

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25
Q

What is a detail drawing?

A

A drawing that includes all the information needed to fabricate the part.

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26
Q

What is an assembly drawing?

A

A drawing that shows all the components of a part in an exploded form. A parts list is included with an assembly drawing.

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27
Q

What is an installation drawing?

A

A drawing that shows the location of the parts and assemblies on the complete aircraft.

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28
Q

What type of drawing is most helpful in troubleshooting a system?

A

A schematic diagram.

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29
Q

What is a block diagram?

A

A drawing that shows the various functions of a system by a series of blocks. These blocks do not include any detail, but instead indicate what happens in each block.

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30
Q

How are dimensions shown on an aircraft drawing?

A

By numbers shown in the break of a dimension line.

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31
Q

What is the purpose of a center line on an aircraft drawing?

A

It divides a part into symmetrical halves.

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32
Q

Where would an aviation mechanic find aircraft electrical schematics?

A

In the aircraft maintenance manual or the aircraft wiring diagram manual.

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33
Q

Why is it necessary to consider the category under which an aircraft is licensed when computing its weight and balance?

A

Different categories under which an aircraft can be licensed have different maximum gross weights and different center of gravity ranges.

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34
Q

Where do you find the leveling means specified for a particular aircraft?

A

In the Type Certificate Data Sheets for the aircraft.

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35
Q

What must be done when an aircraft is weighed?

A

The tare weight must be subtracted from the scale readings to find the weight of the aircraft.

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36
Q

Why are the distances at all the items installed in an aircraft measured from the datum when computing weight and balance?

A

This makes it possible to find the point about which the aircraft would balance (the center of gravity).

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37
Q

Where is the maximum allowable gross weight of an aircraft found?

A

In the Type Certificate Data Sheets for the aircraft.

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38
Q

Is there a Federal Regulation requiring that all private aircraft be reweighed periodically?

A

No.

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39
Q

What must be done to find the empty weight of an aircraft if it has been weighed with fuel in its tanks?

A

The weight of the fuel and its moment must be subtracted from the weight and moment of the aircraft as it was weighed.

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40
Q

How would you find the empty weight and empty weight center of gravity of an airplane if there are no weight and balance records available?

A

The aircraft is weighed, and the empty weight center of gravity is computed. These values are recorded in new weight and balance records started for the aircraft.

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41
Q

Which has the more critical center of gravity range, an airplane or a helicopter?

A

A helicopter.

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42
Q

Where is the center of gravity for most airplanes located in relation to the center of lift?

A

The center of gravity is normally ahead of the center of lift.

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43
Q

How do you find the moment of an item installed in an aircraft?

A

Multiply the weight of the item in pounds by its distance from the datum in inches.

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44
Q

Where do you find the arm of an item installed in an aircraft?

A

In the Type Certificate Data Sheets or the aircraft equipment list.

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45
Q

Why is it important that turbine fuel not be mixed with aviation gasoline used in an aircraft reciprocating engine?

A

The turbine engine fuel may cause the engine to detonate severely.

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46
Q

What is the danger of using fuel that vaporizes too readily?

A

Vapor lock can occur in the fuel lines. This may shut off the flow of fuel to the engine.

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47
Q

What is meant by the root of a number?

A

The root of a number is one of two or more equal numbers that when multiplied together will produce the number.

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48
Q

What is an angle?

A

A figure formed by two lines radiating from a common point.

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49
Q

What is meant by a right angle?

A

An angle of 90°.

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50
Q

What is an obtuse angle?

A

An angle greater than 90° but less than a straight line.

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51
Q

What is an acute angle?

A

An angle between 0° and 90°.

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52
Q

What is a quadrant?

A

One fourth of a circle.

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53
Q

What is a sector?

A

The portion of a circle bounded by two radii and an arc (think slice of pizza)

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54
Q

What is a polygon?

A

A closed figure having three or more sides.

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55
Q

What is an obtuse triangle?

A

A triangle with one obtuse angle.

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56
Q

What is a right triangle?

A

A triangle containing a 90° angle.

57
Q

What is an equilateral triangle?

A

A triangle with three equal sides.

58
Q

What is an isosceles triangle?

A

A triangle with two equal sides.

59
Q

What is a scalene triangle?

A

A triangle in which no two sides are equal.

60
Q

What is the hypotenuse of a right triangle?

A

The side opposite the right angle.

61
Q

What is a quadrilateral?

A

A polygon having four sides.

62
Q

What is a parallelogram?

A

A closed four-sided figure in which the opposite sides are parallel.

63
Q

What is a trapezoid?

A

A closed four-sided figure in which only one pair of opposite sides are parallel.

64
Q

What is a hexagon?

A

A closed figure with six equal sides.

65
Q

What is the significance of the constant (pi)?

A

Pi (n) is the constant amount the circumference of a circle is greater than its diameter.

66
Q

What is the value of the constant n?

A

n = 3.1416

67
Q

What is the base in the following expression: 10^3?

68
Q

What is the exponent in the following expression: 10^3?

69
Q

What is meant by scientific notation?

A

A method of writing very large or very small numbers using powers of 10.

70
Q

How do you write 56,000,000 in scientific notation?

A

5.6 x 10^7

When converting standard notation to scientific notation, move the decimal to the left or right until there is one non-zero integer on its left.

71
Q

How do you write 0.00000098 in scientific notation?

A

9.8 x 10^-7

72
Q

Who is authorized to perform a 100-hour inspection on an aircraft?

A

A certificated Aviation Mechanic who holds an Airframe and Powerplant rating.

73
Q

Who is authorized to perform an annual inspection on an aircraft?

A

A certificated ABP mechanic who holds an inspection Authorization.

74
Q

Can a certificated A&P mechanic supervise an unlicensed person as the unlicensed person performs a 100-hour inspection on an aircraft?

A

No, a certificated mechanic must personally perform the inspection.

75
Q

Who is authorized to rebuild an aircraft engine and issue a zero-time maintenance record?

A

Only the manufacturer of the engine or a facility approved by the manufacturer.

76
Q

Which FAR specifies required maintenance records?

A

14 CFR 91.417 specifies you must keep records of maintenance, preventive maintenance, major repairs and alterations, and 100-hour, annual, and progressive inspections.

77
Q

Are instructions included in the Federal Regulations mandatory or optional?

A

They are mandatory.

78
Q

Who is authorized to approve an aircraft for return to service after a major repair?

A

An aircraft mechanic holding an inspection Authorization.

79
Q

Who is authorized to perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft that is not flown under Part 121, 127, 129, or 135?

A

The holder of a pilot certificate that flies that particular aircraft.

80
Q

Who is authorized to approve an aircraft for return to service after a minor alteration has been performed on the airframe?

A

A certificated Aviation Mechanic holding an Airframe rating.

81
Q

What is the minimum age for an Aviation Mechanic certificate?

82
Q

What are the two ratings that can be issued to an Aviation Mechanic certificate?

A

Airframe and Powerplant.

83
Q

How many months of practical experience is needed to qualify for the Aviation Mechanic certificate with both Airframe and Powerplant ratings?

A

30 months.

84
Q

What can be used in place of the 30 months of experience to qualify to take the mechanic tests?

A

A certificate of completion from a certified aviation maintenance technician school.

85
Q

What type of experience is required to take the tests for Aviation Mechanic certification?

A

Practical experience with the procedures, practices, materials, tools, machine tools, and equipment generally used in constructing, maintaining, or altering airframes, or powerplants appropriate to the rating sought.

86
Q

What tests are used to demonstrate that a mechanic applicant has the proper knowledge?

A

The written knowledge tests.

87
Q

What tests are used to demonstrate that a mechanic applicant meets the minimum skill requirements?

A

The oral and practical tests.

88
Q

What certificate and ratings are required for a mechanic to conduct a 100-hour inspection and approve the aircraft for return to service?

A

An Aviation Mechanic certificate with both Airframe and Powerplant ratings.

89
Q

What certificate and ratings are required for a mechanic to conduct an annual inspection and approve the aircraft for return to service?

A

An Aviation Mechanic certificate with an Inspection Authorization.

90
Q

When, after making a permanent change of address, is the holder of an Aviation Mechanic certificate required to notify the FAA?

A

Within 30 days.

91
Q

Is a certificated Aviation Mechanic with Airframe and Powerplant ratings authorized to perform 100-hour and annual inspections?

A

No. Only 100-hour inspections. Inspection Authorization is required to perform an annual inspection.

92
Q

What stipulation must a certificated Aviation Mechanic meet to supervise maintenance or approve aircraft for service?

A

The mechanic must have satisfactorily performed the work concerned at an earlier date.

93
Q

Can a mechanic with an Airframe and Powerplant rating replace the tachometer cable for a magnetic drag tachometer?

A

Yes, this does not constitute a repair to an instrument.

94
Q

Is a certificated Aviation Mechanic with an Airframe and Powerplant rating allowed to zero the pointers on a fuel pressure gauge?

A

No, a mechanic is not allowed to make any repairs or alterations to an aircraft instrument.

95
Q

What happens to the aircraft maintenance records when the aircraft is sold?

A

These maintenance records must be transferred with the aircraft when it is sold.

96
Q

What is a Type Certificate Data Sheet (TCDS)?

A

The TCDS is a formal description of the aircraft, engine, or propeller. It lists limitations and information required for type certification including speed limits, weight limits, thrust limitations, and so forth.

97
Q

What are Aircraft Specifications?

A

Documents that include basically the same information as the TCDS but are issued for aircraft, engines, and propellers certificated under the Air Commerce Regulations.

98
Q

What document specifies the type of fuel that should be used in an airplane?

A

The TCDS for that airplane.

99
Q

What document would you use to find the control surface movement for a specified airplane?

A

The TCDS for that airplane.

100
Q

Why is it necessary to refer to the TCDS for an airplane when conducting a 100-hour inspection?

A

The TCDS includes the specifications required for the aircraft to maintain its airworthiness.

101
Q

What FAA publication describes methods of nondestructive testing?

A

AC 43-2, Nondestructive Testing Manual.

102
Q

What is the purpose of an ADP CAN?

A

It provides guidance and information to users and operators of aircraft informing them of the discovery of a condition that prevents the aircraft from continuing to meet its conditions for airworthiness.

103
Q

What is the first step in the issuance of an AD?

A

A notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) is published in the Federal Register.

104
Q

How is information on an AD disseminated?

A

It is printed and distributed by first-class mail to the registered owners and known operators of the products affected.

105
Q

What type of AD may be adopted without an NPRM?

A

ADs of an urgent nature are issued as immediately adopted rules without prior notice.

106
Q

How is information on an emergency AD sent to the owner or operator of an affected aircraft?

A

By first-class mail, telegram, or other electronic method.

107
Q

Where can you find a list of all of the ADs that apply to aircraft, engines, propellers, or appliances?

A

On the FAA website under the Dynamic Regulatory System (DRS).

108
Q

How can you get information on subscribing to the Airworthiness Directives?

A

Contact FAA, Manufacturing Standards Section (AFS-613), PO Box 26460, Oklahoma City, OK. 73125-0450.

109
Q

What is the significance of the identification number 91-00-07 RL?

A

91 - This AD was issued in 1991.
0d - This AD was issued in the eighth biweekly period (4501 or 15th week) of 1991.
07 - This is the seventh AD issued during this period.
Al - This is the first revision of this number.

110
Q

Is it mandatory that the information in an AC be complied with?

A

No, this information is advisory in nature.

111
Q

With which part of 14 CFR is AC 43.13-1b associated?

A

14 CFR Part 42.

112
Q

May all of the information in AC 43.13-18 be used as approved data?

A

No, it is acceptable, but not necessary to approve.

113
Q

What is the purpose of General Aviation Airworthiness Alerts? (AM.L. K9)

A

They contain information gleaned from Malfunction and Defect Reports to warn maintenance personnel of problems that have been reported.

114
Q

What formula is used to find the amount of work done when an object is moved across a surface? (AM.L.J. N2)

A

Work = Force x Distance

115
Q

What determines the mechanical advantage of an arrangement of ropes and pulleys? (AM.1.3. K2)

A

The number of ropes that support the weight.

116
Q

What determines the mechanical advantage of a gear train? (AM.1.0.K2)

A

The ratio between the number of teeth on the drive gear and the number of teeth on the driven gear.

117
Q

What is meant by the density of air? (AM.l.J.KB)

A

The weight of a given volume of air.

118
Q

What is meant by relative wind with regard to an airfoil? (AM. I J.Ka)

A

The direction the wind strikes an airfoil.

119
Q

What is meant by the mean aerodynamic chord (MAC)? (AM.!.J.KS)

A

MAC is the average distance from the leading edge to the trailing edge of the wing.

120
Q

What is meant by the angle of attack? (AM.lo.KC)

A

The acute angle formed between the chord line of an airfoil and the direction the air strikes the airfoil.

121
Q

What is meant by the critical angle of attack? (AM.I.J.KB)

A

The highest angle of attack at which the air passes over the airfoil in a smooth flow. Above the critical angle of attack, the airflow breaks away and becomes turbulent.

122
Q

What is meant by the stagnation point of an airfoil? (AM la.Ke)

A

The point on the leading edge of an airfoil at which the airflow separates, some flowing over the top and some over the bottom.

123
Q

What is the difference between speed and velocity? (AM Id Ka)

A

Speed is the rate at which an object is moving; velocity is the vector quantity that expresses both the rate and direction an object is moving.

124
Q

What is meant by air density? (dANto KEy)

A

The mass of air in a given volume.

125
Q

What is meant by weight?

A

The measure of the force of gravity acting on a mass.

126
Q

What is meant by thrust?

A

The aerodynamic force produced by a propeller, fan, or turbojet engine as it forces a mass of air to the rear, behind the engine.

127
Q

What is meant by drag?

A

The aerodynamic force acting in the same plane as the relative wind striking an airfoil. Drag acts in the direction opposite to that of thrust.

128
Q

What is meant by autorotation in a helicopter?

A

The aerodynamic force that causes a helicopter rotor to spin with no engine power applied to the rotor system.

129
Q

What is meant by dissymmetry of lift produced by a helicopter rotor?

A

The difference in lift between the two sides of the rotor disc when the helicopter is in forward flight. The side with the advancing blade produces greater lift because the forward speed adds to the rotor speed.

130
Q

What is meant by a blade stall of a helicopter rotor?

A

A condition of flight in which the retreating blade is operating at an angle of attack higher than will allow for the air to flow over its upper surface without turbulence.

131
Q

What is meant by translational lift in a helicopter?

A

The additional lift produced by a helicopter rotor as the helicopter changes from hovering to forward flight.

132
Q

What is meant by ground effect in helicopter flight?

A

An increase in lift when a helicopter is flying at an altitude of less than half the rotor span. This increase is produced by the effective increase in the angle of attack caused by the deflection of the downwashed air.

133
Q

What is meant by ground resonance in a helicopter?

A

The destructive vibration that occurs when the helicopter touches down roughly and unevenly. The shock throws a load into the lead-lag hinges of the rotor blades and causes them to oscillate about this hinge.

134
Q

How often should torque wrenches be calibrated?

A

Depending on the tool, some are calibrated every 6 months, while others are calibrated every 12 months.

135
Q

How would you describe an organization that has a positive safety culture?

A

An organization that has a set of shared beliefs and attitudes that promote safety through communication, training, and other actions within all levels of the workforce.

136
Q

What are the different types of human error?

A

Human errors can be grouped into omission, commission, and extraneous errors. Omission errors are tasks which should have been performed but were not. Commission errors are tasks which were done incorrectly. Extraneous elements occur when an individual performs a task that was not authorized.

137
Q

What is the difference between an active error and a latent error?

A

An active error is an error that is committed by the person doing the work. A latent error is one that comes from an administrative decision, a flaw in the system, or a culture that exists in a workplace. Latent errors may take a long time to be seen and usually show up as an active error that has its roots in the latent error.

138
Q

What are the different levels of consequences of human error?

A
  • Little or no effect.
  • Damage to equipment or hardware. The equipment or hardware can be replaced, but at a loss of time and financial setback.
  • Personal injury. Injury to an aviation mechanic, aircraft operator, or passenger.
  • Catastrophic damage (loss of life or loss of an aircraft).