Risk Assessment Flashcards

1
Q

How often do adolescents (13-19) need a complete PE

A

Three visits (11-14, 15-17, 18-21)

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2
Q

When should syphilis screening start for both males and females

A

when sexually active

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3
Q

Who should get meningococcal vaccine?

A
  • All adolescents age 11-18.

- Re-vaccinate for special populations (college dorms, military, immunecompromised, travelers) after 5 years

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4
Q

Who should get pneumococcal vaccine?

A
  • Age 19-64 who is smoker or has asthma
  • COPD, diabetes, and ETOH abuse. PPSV23
  • Age 65 or older. PPSV23 and PCV13
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5
Q

How often do young adults need PE (age 20-39)?

A

Every 5-6 years

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6
Q

How often do young adults need a pap smear? (20-39)

A

every 3 years (with chlamydia and GC screen)

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7
Q

4 leading causes of death?

A
  1. Heart disease
  2. Cancer
  3. Lower resp diseases (COPD, PNA, Asthma, influenza)
  4. CVA
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8
Q

How often should early adults have their BP checked? What is the desired range?

A

every two years

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9
Q

How often should the early adult have a cholesterol panel checked. what is the desired range?

A

Starting at age 20 and every five years unless chol >200

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10
Q

How often do adults need tdap?

A

every 10 years

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11
Q

Leading cancers in women?

A
  1. Lung-highest mortality
  2. Ovarian-highest OB/GYN mortality CA
  3. Breast- highest incidence
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12
Q

Leading cancers in men?

A
  1. Lung-highest mortality

2. Prostate- highest incidence, increased mortality

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13
Q

Leading cancers in men and women combined?

A
  1. Lung-highest mortality

2. Colorectal-highest incidence.

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14
Q

When should women start getting mammograms and on what schedule?

A

At age 45
Every 2 years until age of 55
Some discrepancy. Continue as long as pt healthy and has life expectancy of 10+ years.

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15
Q

What age should men start having DRE and PSA for prostate CA?

A

beginning at age 40 and annually if family history or african american
Age 50 for all males

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16
Q

When should colorectal screening/colonoscopy start for men and women? How often?

A

Age 50 and every 10 years

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17
Q

How often do older adults (age 60 and older) need a PE?

A

every two years

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18
Q

At what age can PAP smear be discontinued? What is the criteria?

A

> 65-70 with three consecutive negative tests or no abnormal tests in past 10 years.

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19
Q

When should a pt get a baseline ECG?

A

At age 40

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20
Q

Define sensitivity

A

True positives. the degree to which those who have a disease screen/test positive

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21
Q

Define Specificity

A

True Negatives. the degree to which those who do NOT have a disease screen/test negative.

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22
Q

Define Inicidence

A

The frequency at which something occurs

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23
Q

Define prevalence

A

the proportion of population affected.

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24
Q

What is primary prevention?

A

measure to promote health prior to the onset of sx

i.e. diet exercise, immunization

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25
Q

What is Secondary prevention?

A

Focuses on early ID and tx of existing problem

i.e. pap smear, cholesterol screen

26
Q

What is tertiary prevention?

A

Rehab and restoration of health

i.e. cardiac rehab after MI, PT after MVC

27
Q

What is an antigen?

A

substance capable of inducing an immune reponse

“Bad Guy”.

28
Q

What is an antibody?

A

Molecules synthesized in reaction to antigen. “Fighter”

29
Q

Who should get Hep A vaccine?

A

Military, travelers to endemic area, men who have sex with men.

30
Q

What hepatitis strain is highest risk for fulmanent liver failure?

A

Hep B

31
Q

What is the major risk for herbal supplements that start with the letter G?

A

Bleeding

32
Q

What are the goal s of Healthy People 2020?

A
  1. To increase the quality and years of healthy life

2. Eliminate health disparity amoung Americans.

33
Q

Which 5 diagnoses are reportable to the CDC?

A
gonorrhea
chlamydia
syphilis
HIV
TB
34
Q

What is the strongest method to assess teaching?

A

returned demonstration

35
Q

What is the most powerful data collected from a patient?

A

Subjective data from patient and observation.

36
Q

What does a prblem focused exam entail?

A

a limited exam of the affected body area or organ system

37
Q

What does an expanded problem focused exam entail?

A

A limited exam of the affected area or organ system and any other symptomatic or related areas or organs

38
Q

What does a detailed exam entail?

A

An extended exam of the affected body area or organ and any other symptomatic or related areas or organ

39
Q

What is a comprehensive exam?

A

A general multi-system exam or complete exam of a single organsystem and other symtomatic organs or area.

40
Q

Medicare A

A

covers inpatient/hospital, SNF, home health, hospice

41
Q

Medicare B

A

covers physician services, outpatient hospital services, lab, diagnostic, medical equipment and some home health.
*NP’s recieve 85% of physician reimbursement for services supplied in collaboration with physician.

42
Q

Medicare C

A

A+B=C

Known as Medicare Advantage

43
Q

Medicare D

A

Limited Rx coverage.

Monthly premium required

44
Q

To qualify to be a Medicare provider, the NP must…

A

Hold a state license
Be certified by a recognized national certifying body
Hold at least an MSN degree

45
Q

who sets scope of practice?

A

State nurse practice acts

46
Q

who takes care of credentialing?

A

Hospital Credentialing Committee

47
Q

What is the most common form of documentation with regards to risk management?

A

Incident reports

48
Q

what are satisfaction surverys intended for?

A

To ID problems before developing into actual incidents or claims.

49
Q

Quantitative futlity

A

Where the likelihood that an intervention will benefit the pt is extremely poor

50
Q

Qualitative futilty

A

Where the quality of benefit an intervention will produce is extremely poor,

51
Q

define competence

A

a state in which a pt is able to make personal decisions about his/her care.
implies ability to understand, reason, differentiate good and bad and communicate

52
Q

Nonmaleficence

A

the duty to do no harm

53
Q

utilitarianism

A

the right act id the on that produces the greatest good for the greatest number

54
Q

beneficence

A

the duty to prevent harm and promote good

often in conflict with autonomy

55
Q

justice

A

the duty to be fair

56
Q

fidelity

A

the duty to be faithful

57
Q

veracity

A

the duty to be truthful

58
Q

autonomy

A

the duty to respect an individual’s thoughts and actions.

often in conflict with beneficence

59
Q

Four distinct roles of NP’s

A
  1. clinician
  2. consultant/collaborator
  3. educator
  4. researcher
60
Q

reliability

A

the consistency of a measurement or the degree to which an instrument measures the same way over time with the same objects

61
Q

validity

A

the degree to which a variable measures what it is intended to measure