Ricci 38 (2) Flashcards

1
Q

The nurse is caring for a neonate who is suspected of having sepsis. Which assessment
findings would the nurse interpret as most indicative of sepsis?

A. Rash on face
B. Edematous neck
C. Hypothermia
D. Coughing

A

Answer: C

Rationale: Premature infants have more fragile capillaries in the periventricular area than term
infants, which puts them at greater risk for intracranial hemorrhage. Neonatal conjunctivitis can occur in any newborn during birth and is caused by viruses, bacteria, or chemicals. Facial
deformities are typical of babies of alcoholic mothers. Incomplete myelinization is present in all
newborns.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The nurse knows that children have larger heads in relation to the body and a higher center of
gravity. When developing a teaching plan for parents, the nurse includes information about an
increased risk for which problem?

A. Febrile seizures
B. Head trauma
C. Caput succedaneum
D. Posterior plagiocephaly

A

Answer: B

Rationale: The larger head size in relation to the body, coupled with a higher center of gravity,
causes children to hit their head more readily when involved in motor vehicle accidents, bicycle
accidents, and falls. Febrile seizures are not related to anatomy or physiology. Caput
succedaneum is an edematous area on the scalp caused by pressure of the uterus or vagina during
head-first delivery. Posterior plagiocephaly is caused by early closure of the lamboid suture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The nurse is caring for a child hospitalized with Reye syndrome who is in the acute stage of
the illness. The nurse would assess the child most carefully for what finding?

A. Indications of increased intracranial pressure
B. An increase in the blood glucose level
C. A decrease in the liver enzymes
D. A presence of protein in the urine

A

Answer: A

Rationale: Reye syndrome is characterized by brain swelling, liver failure, and death in hours if
treatment is not initiated. Therefore, increased intracranial pressure could occur. Liver enzyme
levels typically increase. Blood glucose levels and protein in the urine are not characteristic of
this illness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The physician has ordered rectal diazepam for a 2-year-old boy with status epilepticus. Which
instruction is essential for the nurse to teach the parents?

A. Monitor their child’s level of sedation.
B. Watch for fever indicating infection.
C. Gradually reduce the dosage as seizures stop.
D. Monitor for an allergic reaction to the medication.

A

Answer: A

Rationale: Diazepam is useful for home management of prolonged seizures and requires that the
parents be educated on its proper administration. Monitoring the child’s level of sedation is key
when giving diazepam because it slows the central nervous system. Parents need to monitor the
overall health of the child, including temperature when needed, but that has nothing to do with
the diazepam. When the use of an anticonvulsant is stopped, gradual reduction of the dosage is
necessary to prevent seizures or status epilepticus. This is not done without a physician’s order.
Monitoring for allergic reactions is necessary when any medications have been prescribed, but is
not specific to diazepam.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. As a result of seizure activity, a computed tomography (CT) scan was performed and showed
    that an 18-month-old child has intracranial arteriovenous malformation. When developing the
    child’s plan of care, what would the nurse expect to implement actions to prevent?

A. Drug interactions
B. Developmental disabilities
C. Hemorrhagic stroke
D. Respiratory paralysis

A

Answer: C

Rationale: Intracranial hemorrhage or hemorrhagic stroke is a risk for children with intracranial
arteriovenous malformation. Drug interactions are a risk for children who are treated with
combinations of anticonvulsants for epilepsy. Children with hydrocephalus are at an increased
risk for developmental disabilities. Respiratory paralysis is a risk of botulism that typically
affects infants younger than 6 months of age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A 16-year-old boy reports to the school nurse with headaches and a stiff neck. Which sign or
symptom would alert the nurse that the child may have bacterial meningitis?

A. Fixed and dilated pupils
B. Frequent urination
C. Sunset eyes
D. Sunlight is “too bright”

A

Answer: D

Rationale: Photophobia, or intolerance of light, is another symptom of bacterial meningitis.
Fixed and dilated pupils are a symptom of head trauma and warrant prompt intervention.
Frequent urination is a symptom of a type I Arnold-Chiari malformation. Sunset eyes indicate
increased intracranial pressure typical of hydrocephalus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A 4-year-old boy has a febrile seizure during a well-child visit. What action would be a
priority?

A. Hyperextending the child’s head while placing him on his side
B. Using a tongue blade to pry open the child’s jaw
C. Loosening the child’s clothing to ensure a patent airway
D. Protecting the child from harm during the seizure

A

Answer: D

Rationale: During a seizure, the child should not be held down in a specific position. Protecting
the child’s head and body during the seizure is the priority. Ensuring a patent airway is an
important intervention but is not accomplished by loosening the child’s clothing or
hyperextending his head. The child should be placed on his side and nothing should be inserted
into his mouth to forcibly open the jaw.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The nurse has developed a teaching plan for the family of a 2-year-old boy who holds his
breath when he gets frustrated. What will be most important to include in this plan?

A. Provide cuddle time whenever the child begins to act out.
B. Explain the child’s behavior to the parents.
C. Encourage the parents to interact more with the child.
D. Stay close to prevent injury when he gets frustrated.

A

Answer: D

Rationale: Encourage the parents to maintain a safe environment when an episode is occurring,
but to avoid giving extra attention to the child after the event since this could encourage
repetition of the behavior. It is important for the parents to understand what is happening, but
rewarding the child with cuddle time when he is misbehaving provides incorrect reinforcement
of behaviors. Encouraging the parents to interact more with the child may be helpful, but the
priority is safety for the child.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The nurse is caring for an 8-year-old boy who has chronic epilepsy. What would be most
important to address when teaching the child and parents about living with this condition?

A. Multiple corrective surgeries to slowly remove diseased parts of his brain
B. Physical, occupational, and speech therapy to maximize his potential
C. Support for maintaining self-esteem because of his altered lifestyle
D. Hyperventilation therapy to counteract the periods of decreased oxygenation

A

Answer: C

Rationale: The effects of living with a seizure disorder can be devastating, and it is essential for
the child to receive support to maintain self-esteem. While corrective surgery is possible, it
would only be performed once. Physical, occupational, speech, and hyperventilation therapy are not indicated for treatment of epilepsy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A 4-year-old boy has a history of seizures and has been started on a ketogenic diet. Which
food selection would be most appropriate for his lunch?

A. Fried eggs, bacon, and iced tea
B. A hamburger on a bun, French fries, and milk
C. Spaghetti with meatballs, garlic bread, and a cola drink
D. A grilled cheese sandwich, potato chips, and a milkshake

A

Answer: A

Rationale: The ketogenic diet involves a high intake of fats, adequate protein intake, and a very
low intake of carbohydrates, resulting in a state of ketosis. The child is kept in a mild state of
dehydration. Eggs and bacon are high in fat; the tea does not contain any carbohydrates.
Therefore, this is the best choice. The hamburger is fat and protein, the bun is a carbohydrate,
and the French fries and the milk both contain fat and protein, but both contain a lot of
carbohydrates. The pasta and the sauce for the spaghetti are carbohydrates, the meatballs are
protein, and the garlic bread is a carbohydrate, as is the cola drink. The grilled cheese sandwich
has the fat and protein from the cheese, but the bread and chips are primarily carbohydrates, and
the milkshake has fat, protein, and carbohydrates. Only the selection in A contains a ketogenic
meal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A child with increased intracranial pressure is being treated with hyperventilation. The nurse
understands that after this treatment:

A. PaCO2 levels decrease, causing vasoconstriction.
B. drainage of cerebrospinal fluid occurs.
C. activity is controlled via a stimulator.
D. hyperexcitability of the nerves is reduced.

A

Answer: A

Rationale: Hyperventilation decreases PaCO2, which results in vasoconstriction and therefore
decreases intracranial pressure. A shunt would allow for drainage of cerebrospinal fluid. A vagal
nerve stimulator is used to provide an appropriate dose of stimulation to manage seizure activity.
Anticonvulsants decrease the hyperexcitability of nerves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The nurse assesses a child’s level of consciousness, noting that the child falls asleep unless he is stimulated. What is the child’s level of consciousness?

A. Confusion
B. Obtunded
C. Stupor
D. Coma

A

Answer: B

Rationale: Obtunded is a state in which the child has limited responses to the environment and
falls asleep unless stimulation is provided. Confusion involves disorientation; the child may be alert but responds inappropriately to questions. Stupor exists when the child responds only to
vigorous stimulation. Coma is a state in which the child cannot be aroused even with painful
stimuli.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

During a well-child visit, the nurse assesses an infant’s ability to suck on a pacifier. The nurse
is assessing which cranial nerve?

A. Olfactory
B. Trigeminal
C. Facial
D. Accessory

A

Answer: B

Rationale: To test the trigeminal nerve, the nurse would note the strength of the infant’s suck on a
pacifier, thumb, or bottle. The olfactory nerve is not assessed in infants and young children. The
facial nerve is assessed by noting the symmetry of facial expressions. For the infant, this would
be assessed during spontaneous crying or smiling. The accessory nerve is assessed when the
infant is in the sitting position and symmetry of the head position is noted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. The nurse inspects the eyes of a child and observes that the sclera is showing over the top of
    the iris. The nurse documents this finding as:

A. Decorticate posturing
B. Nystagmus
C. Doll’s eye
D. Sunsetting

A

Answer: D

Rationale: Sunsetting is when the sclera of the eyes is showing over the top of the iris.
Decorticate posturing includes adduction of the arms, flexion at the elbows with the arms held
over the chest, and flexion of the wrists with both hands fisted and the lower extremities
adducted and extended. Nystagmus is manifested by involuntary rapid rhythmic eye movements.
Doll’s eye is a maneuver that tests for symmetric eye movement to the opposite side when the
head is turned in the other direction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What finding would lead the nurse to suspect that a child is beginning to develop increased
intracranial pressure?

A. Bradycardia
B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
C. Fixed, dilated pupils
D. Projectile vomiting

A

Answer: D

Rationale: Projectile vomiting is an early sign of increased intracranial pressure. Bradycardia,
Cheyne-Stokes respirations, and fixed dilated pupils are late signs of increased intracranial
pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. A nurse is talking with the parents of a child who has had a febrile seizure. The nurse would
    integrate an understanding of what information into the discussion?

A. The child’s risk for cognitive problems is greatly increased.
B. Structural damage occurs with febrile seizure.
C. The child’s risk for epilepsy is now increased.
D. Febrile seizures are benign in nature.

A

Answer: D

Rationale: Parents need reassurance that febrile seizures, although frightening, are benign in
nature. Children who experience one or more febrile seizures are at no greater risk of developing
epilepsy than the general population. No evidence exists that febrile seizures cause structural
damage or cognitive declines.

17
Q
  1. A nurse is preparing a school-aged child for a lumbar puncture. The nurse would expect to
    position the child in which manner?

A. On her side with the head flexed forward and knees flexed to the abdomen
B. Sitting upright with the head flexed forward to the chest
C. Supine with arms and legs pronated and extended
D. Prone with the arms flexed under the chest

A

Answer: A

Rationale: When a lumbar puncture is performed on a child, the child is placed on his or her side
with the head flexed forward and knees flexed to the abdomen. An infant would be positioned
sitting upright with the head flexed forward. A supine position with the arms and legs pronated
and extended suggests decerebrate posturing. A prone position is not used for a lumbar puncture.

18
Q

A group of nursing students are reviewing information related to seizures that occur in
infants and children. The students demonstrate a need for additional review when they identify
which type as common in neonates?

A. Tonic
B. Focal clonic
C. Multifocal clonic
D. Myoclonic

A

Answer: D

Rationale: Five major types of seizures have been recognized in the neonatal period: subtle,
tonic, focal clonic, multifocal clonic, and myoclonic. Of these, myoclonic seizures rarely occur
during the neonatal period. Subtle seizures affect preterm and full-term neonates. Tonic seizures
primarily occur in preterm neonates. Focal clonic and multifocal clonic are more common in
full-term neonates.

19
Q

Hydrocephalus is suspected in a 4-month-old infant. Which would the nurse expect to assess?

A. Sunken fontanels
B. Diminished reflexes
C. Lower extremity spasticity
D. Skull symmetry

A

Answer: C

Rationale: Hydrocephalus is manifested by spasticity of lower extremities, bulging fontanels,
brisk reflexes, and skull asymmetry.

20
Q

A nurse is providing teaching to the parents of a child who has had a shunt inserted as
treatment for hydrocephalus. The parents demonstrate understanding of the teaching when they make what statement?

A. “Having the shunt put in decreases his risk for developmental problems.”
B. “If he doesn’t get an infection in the first week, the risk is greatly reduced.”
C. “He will need more surgeries to replace the shunt as he grows.”
D. “The shunt will help to prevent any further complications from his disease.”

A

Answer: C

Rationale: Parents need to know that hydrocephalus is a chronic illness that requires lifelong
follow-up and regular evaluations, including future surgeries as the child grows. The risk for
infection is ever present, but is most common 1 to 2 months after shunt placement. The child
with a shunt and hydrocephalus is at risk for potential growth and developmental disabilities as
well as complications such as infection and malfunction of the shunt.

21
Q

A 15-year-old adolescent is brought to the emergency department by his parents. The
adolescent is febrile with chills that started suddenly. He states, “I had a sinus infection and sore
throat a couple of days ago.” The nurse suspects bacterial meningitis based on which findings?
Select all that apply.

A. Complaints of stiff neck
B. Photophobia
C. Absent headache
D. Negative Brudzinski sign
E. Vomiting

A

Answer: A, B, E

Rationale: In addition to the adolescent’s complaints and history, other findings suggesting
bacterial meningitis include complaints of a stiff neck, photophobia, headache, positive
Brudzinski sign, and vomiting.

22
Q

A child is brought to the emergency department after sustaining a concussion. The child is to
be discharged home with his parents. What would the nurse include in the child’s discharge
instructions?

A. “Expect his headache to get worse initially and then disappear.”
B. “Wake him every 2 hours to check his movement and responses.”
C. “Call your medical provider if he vomits more than five times.”
D. “Any watery fluid draining from his ears is normal.”

A

Answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the parents to wake the child every 2 hours to ensure that he
moves normally and wakes enough to recognize and respond appropriately to them. The parents
should be instructed to call the physician or nurse practitioner or bring the child back to the
emergency department if he experiences a constant headache that gets worse, vomits more than two times, or has oozing of blood or watery fluid from his ears or nose.

23
Q

A nurse is preparing a presentation for a local health fair about meningitis and has developed
a display that lists the following causes:

Streptococcus group B
Haemophilus influenzae type B
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Neisseria meningitidis

What would the nurse highlight as the most common cause of meningitis in newborns?

A. Streptococcus group B
B. Haemophilus influenzae type B
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Neisseria meningitidis

A

Answer: A

Rationale: Meningitis due to Streptococcus group B along with Escherichia coli is most common
in newborns and infants. H. influenzae type B is a common cause in infants between the ages of
6 and 9 months. S. pneumoniae

24
Q

A group of students are reviewing information about head injuries in children. The students
demonstrate understanding of this information when they identify what as the most common
type of skull fracture in children?

A. Linear
B. Depressed
C. Diastatic
D. Basilar

A

Answer: A

Rationale: The most common type of skull fracture in children is a linear skull fracture, which
can result from minor head injuries. Other, less common types of skull fractures in children
include depressed, diastatic, and basilar.

25
Q

During class, a student states, “I didn’t think children could have strokes. I thought this only
occurred in older adults.” When responding to the student, what would be most important for the
instructor to integrate into the response?

A. Strokes in children often have an identifiable cause.
B. The signs and symptoms in children are different from an adult.
C. Research has identified specific treatments for children.
D. Ischemic strokes are more common than hemorrhagic strokes.

A

Answer: D

Rationale: In children, ischemic strokes are more common than hemorrhagic strokes. However,
the cause of the stroke in many children remains unidentified. Signs and symptoms are similar to
those in adults and will vary based on age; underlying cause, if known; and location of the
stroke. Historically, children have been excluded from adult stroke studies and thus, many
treatments used have had to be adapted from adult studies.

26
Q

A 10-month-old infant is brought to the emergency department by the parents after they
found the infant face down in the bathtub. The parent states, “I just left the bathroom to answer
the phone. When I came back, I found my infant.” Which nursing action is priority?

A. Assess the client’s respiratory rate
B. Start cardiopulmonary resusitative measures
C. Determine how long the client was face down in the water
D. Apply a heart monitor to the client

A

Answer: A

Rationale: With a submersion injury, hypoxia is the primary problem. Therefore, assessment of
airway and breathing are priority. Based on this assessment, the nurse would determine if
resuscitative measures were needed. Other actions such as applying a heart monitor and
obtaining additional information about the event would be done once the infant’s airway and
breathing are assessed and emergency interventions are instituted.

27
Q

A hospitalized child is scheduled for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) with contrast. What
nursing intervention(s) will the nurse complete to ensure safety during the examination? Select
all that apply.

A. Place child in clothing with no metal
B. Connect the child to a heart monitor
C. Assess the IV site for patency
D. Review any prescriptions for sedation
E. Assess for a latex allergy

A

Answer: A, C, D

Rationale: When preparing a child for an MRI procedure, it is important the child and parent are
aware of the test procedure. No metal can be used in the MRI scanner room so all clothing,
jewelry, etc. need to be removed before testing. IV contrast may be used so the IV needs to be
patent and in good working order. If the child is to be sedated the nurse should review the
sedation prescription and identify any discrepancies before the child goes for the examination. If the child is to be sedated a heart monitor will be used, but it is not necessary for the nurse on the
unit to connect the child. A special monitor compatible with the MRI scanner will be used. If
sedated the child may also receive oxygen just as a prevention because the exam take a long time
in a confined space. Having a latex allergy is not a contraindication for receiving gadolinium, the
MRI contrast used during testing.

28
Q

A child is in the emergency department with a head injury obtained in a motor vehicle crash.
The glascow coma scale assessment is rated at 10 (3 eye opening, 3 motor, 4 verbal). How
should the nurse interpret these findings?

A. The child’s eyes open to verbal stimuli, is confused and flexes with painful stimuli
B. The child’s eyes open spontaneously, able to localize pain and uses inappropriate words
C. The child’s eyes open to speech, is able to obey commands but is confused
D. The child’s eyes open to pain, opens to extension and says incomprehensible words

A

Answer: A

Rationale: The glascow coma scale is a widely used tool for assessing the extent of brain injury
and prognosis. The scores are based on eye opening, motor response and verbal response. The perfect score is 15. The lower the score the more severe the injury and prognosis. Scores for a
severe head injury are 8 or less. A moderate head injury scores between 9-12 points and a mild
head injury scores between 13 and 15. With a score of 10 this child would be classified as having
a moderate head injury. For answer B the eyes open spontaneously (4), localizes pain (5) and
uses imcomprehensive words(2) for a total score of 11.For answer C the eyes open to speech (3),
uses inappropriate words (2) and has flexion withdrawal (4) for a total score of 9. For answer D
the eyes open to pain (2) extremities open to expension (2) and uses incomprehensible words (2) for a score of 6.

29
Q

Phenytoin IV has been prescribed by health care provider for a child who has experienced a
seizure. Before administering the drug what should the nurse do?

A. Determine the IV fluid infusing is normal saline
B. Assess the child’s vital signs
C. Monitor the electrolyte levels
D. Start another IV with a large bore needle

A

Answer: A

Rationale: The drug phenytoin can be administered PO or IV. If it is to be administered IV, the fluids needs to be normal saline solution. Any other type of fluid will cause the drug to
precipitate in the IV tubing.There is no need to start an additional peripheral IV. The drug can be
administered via a secondary set through the IV pump. The vital signs can be monitored after the
drug is infusing. The electrolyte levels can be monitored, but treatment of the seizure is the
priority. Fosphenytoin is another form of phenytoin and may be tolerated better. It can be
administered through all IV fluids without precipitation.

30
Q

A child with a seizure disorder will be discharged home from the hospital on the drug
levetiracetam. What discharge instruction is the most important for the nurse to provide the
parent?

A. Notify the health care provider if child experiences poor coordination
B. Notify the health care provider if the number of seizures increases after 4 weeks
C. Return to the clinic in 3 weeks for laboratory test to determine therapeutic level of the drug
D. Do not to take two doses together if one dose is missed

A

Answer: A

Rationale: Levetiracetam is used in children to help control seizures. One major side effect of the
drug is that it can cause difficulty with gait or coordination. Another major side effect is the
development of psychiatric symptoms. The parent should be instructed to call the health care
provider immediately if either of these side effects occur. This drug does not have a therapeutic
level so there is no need for routine laboratory tests.The parent should be instructed not to give
the child two doses together if one has been missed, but this is not the most important
instruction. The drug takes about 4 weeks to stabilize in the blood stream, so additional seizures may be seen during this time.