Rhinology Allergy General Flashcards

1
Q

What hypothesis postulates that the increase in
allergic and atopic diseases in the world is
secondary to reductions in infectious disease as
well as cleaner environments that limit our
exposure to common allergens when we are young
and more likely to become tolerant to them rather
than allergic?

A

Hygiene hypothesis

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2
Q

What are the two phases of an allergic reaction?

A

Early and late responses

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3
Q

What is the clinical term used to refer to patients who
have a genetic predisposition toward developing an
allergic response after exposure to an antigen?

A

Atopy

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4
Q

What are the types of hypersensitivity reactions?

A

Type I: Immediate/anaphylactic or antibody mediated
● Type II: Cytotoxic T-cell mediated
● Type III: Immune complex mediated
● Type IV: Delayed hypersensitivity

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5
Q

What is another name for the hypersensitivity

reactions?

A

Gell and Coombs classes

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6
Q

Anaphylaxis is a form of what type of

hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type I, immediate or antibody-mediated

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7
Q

What is the most important cytokine in the early
or acute phase of a type I hypersensitivity
reaction?

A

Histamine

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8
Q

What is the predominant cell type during an early

or acute phase type I hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Mast cells

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9
Q

What is the predominant cell type during the late

phase of a type I hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Eosinophils

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10
Q

In what type of hypersensitivity reaction might
you see a systemic hypersensitivity induced by an

unknown factor that results in IgG- or IgM-
mediated cytotoxic action against an antigen

located on the surface of a cell (or complement-
mediated lysis of the cell)?

A

Type II (cytotoxic) hypersensitivity

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11
Q

In what hypersensitivity reaction are immune com-
plexes formed (IgG) as a result of the presence of
drugs/bacterial products, which result in complement activation and a delayed (days) acute
inflammatory reaction?

A

Type III (immune complex mediated) hypersensitivity

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12
Q

In what hypersensitivity reaction do antigens
directly stimulate T-cell activation and cell-
mediated inflammation resulting in dermatitis,
granulomatous disease and some fungal disease?

A

Type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity

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13
Q

What three cell types are required during the
primary antigen exposure for the formation of
antigen specific IgE antibody formation?

A

● Mast cells
● T cells (T-helper cells type 2 [TH2] pathway)
● B Cells

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14
Q

After reexposure to an antigen, what is the result
of antigen-specific IgE crosslinking on mast cell
surfaces followed by release of preformed

mediators (histamine, tryptase, chymase) and syn-
thesis of newly formed mediators (leukotrienes,

prostaglandins, platelet activating factor,
interleukins, etc) that results in allergic symptoms
within minutes?

A

Early phase allergic response

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15
Q

After reexposure to an antigen, what occurs after
the release of newly generated inflammatory
mediators that cause eosinophil, basophil,
monocyte, and lymphocyte migration, infiltration,
and cell-mediated inflammation, which can take
hours (i.e., 3 to 12 hours) to occur and can last for
up to or more than 24 hours?

A

Late-phase allergic response

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16
Q

What is the definition of anaphylaxis?

A

A severe life-threatening generalized or systemic hyper-
sensitivity reaction that may involve urticaria, angioedema,
bronchospasm, hypotension, and shock

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17
Q

What are the criteria for diagnosing anaphylaxis?

A

● Criterion 1: Acute onset (minutes) of illness with
involvement of skin, mucosa, or both with either
respiratory compromise or hypotension
● Criterion 2: At least two of the following occurring within
minutes of an exposure to a likely allergen:
○ Involvement of skin-mucosa tissue
○ Respiratory compromise
○ Hypotension
○ Persistent gastrointestinal symptoms
● Criterion 3: Hypotension after exposure to a known
allergen for the patient

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18
Q

What are the two most common causes of

anaphylaxis?

A

● Foods

● Drug reactions

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19
Q

What medication, not including antibiotics, most

commonly causes drug-induced anaphylaxis?

A

ACE inhibitors

20
Q

A patient has multiple recurrent episodes of
anaphylaxis with an unidentified cause. The
patient states his allergist asked him to have a
laboratory test in the emergency department the
next time he had an episode of angioedema in an
effort to confirm the diagnosis. What test does
the allergist want, and when should it be drawn?

A

Serum tryptase. Serum tryptase peaks in 30 minutes and

should be drawn within 3 hours of the start of the episode.

21
Q

What percentage of patients with anaphylaxis

initially have cutaneous findings?

A

Greater than 90%

22
Q

What is the most common condition to be

mistaken for anaphylaxis?

A

Vasodepressor reaction, usually triggered by trauma or
stress and manifesting as flushing, pallor, weakness,
diaphoresis, hypotension, and at times loss of conscious-
ness

23
Q

What is the initial treatment of a patient with

anaphylaxis?

A

● Advanced cardiovascular life support (ACLS) protocol, and
secure the airway if necessary
● Elevate lower extremities in recumbent position if
possible
● Supplemental O2 (100%, 8 to 10 L by open face mask)
● Gain peripheral IV access (two large-bore IVs) → fluid
resuscitation
● First-line medications:
○ Vasopressors (i.e., intramuscular epinephrine) if hypo-
tension is not responding
○ Second-line medications
○ IV H1- or H2-antihistamine (e.g., diphenhydramine
50 mg IV)
○ Nebulized ß2-adrenergic agonist
○ Administer corticosteroids (e.g., dexamethasone 8 to
10 mg IV)
Remember, death can occur in minutes!

24
Q

What dose of epinephrine should be given during

anaphylaxis to adults and children?

A

Intramuscular administration is preferred to subcutaneous:
1 mg/1 ml (1:1000), mid-outer thigh
● Adult: 0.3 to 0.5 mg
● Child: 0.01 mg/kg, maximum 0.5 mg
Can repeat at 5- to 15-minute intervals
Note: Autoinjectors generally have 0.3-mg doses for adults
and 0.15-mg doses for children who weigh < 25 kg.

25
What is the primary reason for administering an | antihistamine to patients with anaphylaxis?
Resolution of cutaneous manifestations of anaphylaxis
26
A patient taking what kind of class of drugs might be refractory to the treatment of anaphylaxis?
β-blockers
27
What type of anaphylaxis results in recurrence of symptoms after the initial resolution of associated symptoms without any additional allergen exposure?
``` Biphasic anaphylaxis (23% of adults, 11% of children; generally 8 to 10 hours after initial reaction) ```
28
What is the definition of angioedema?
Significant swelling of deep dermal or subcutaneous tissues; less often associated with pruritus and more commonly associated with burning or pain
29
What is the most common cause of angioedema | presenting to emergency departments today?
ACE inhibitors
30
What is the cause of hereditary angioedema?
The condition is caused by high levels of activated C1 in the bloodstream secondary to deficiency of C1 inhibitor.
31
What is the mechanism of inheritance of | hereditary angioedema?
Autosomal dominant
32
What is the treatment for hereditary angioedema?
Attacks usually spontaneously abate in 3 to 4 days. Many patients respond to androgen derivatives, such as danazol, that stimulate the production of C1 inhibitor and C4 but help even at levels that do not stimulate the production of these proteins. Purified C1 inhibitor is now starting to be used in Europe for acute attacks or monthly preventative therapy. Laryngeal involvement may not respond to subcutaneous epinephrine, and a tracheostomy may be needed.
33
Inhalant allergens include proteins such as pollens, animal dander, and molds. How is an inhalant allergy classified in the United States, and based on the World Health Organization (WHO) ARAI (allergic rhinitis and its impact on asthma) guidelines?
U.S. Classification ● Seasonal allergy (outdoor allergen): Seasonal occurrence, winter/spring = tree, summer = grass, fall = mold ● Perennial allergy (indoor allergen): No consistent seasonal pattern, dust mites, animal dander, etc WHO ARAI Guidelines ● Intermittent allergic rhinitis: Present < 4 days/week, < 4 weeks/year ● Persistent allergic rhinitis: Present > 4 days/week, > 4 weeks/year ● Mild: Does not impact quality of life or function ● Moderate/severe: Does impact quality of life or function
34
During which seasons would you expect to see seasonal allergic rhinitis in response to the following inhalant allergens? ● Elm, birch, ash, oak, aspen, maple, box elder, hickory, sycamore, cedar, etc. ● Bermuda grass, Johnson grass, sweet vernal grass, Timothy grass, Orchard grass, etc. ● Ragweed, nettle, mugwort, sage, lamb’s quarter, goosefoot, sorrel, etc.
● Winter/spring (February-May) ● Late spring/summer (April-August) ● Late summer/fall (July to first hard frost)
35
What are some measures to decrease exposure to | house dust mite antigen?
● Wash bedding weekly at > 130°F ● Use impermeable covers over pillows and bedding ● Use hardwood flooring or laminates instead of carpet ● Keep humidity levels at less than 45%
36
How long after removing a pet from a home can it take for the amount of allergen to decrease below clinically significant levels?
4 months
37
What is the definition of urticaria?
Pruritic, erythematous cutaneous elevations that blanch with pressure
38
What percentage of the general population will | develop urticaria at some point in their lives?
10 to 20%
39
A patient with aspirin-sensitive asthma and urticaria. In addition to NSAIDs, what chemical, used in foods, would you recommend they avoid as well?
Tartrazine (Yellow #5); as many as 15% of affected | individuals also react to this.
40
Infection with what pathogenic organism is most commonly associated with eosinophilia and urticaria?
Helminth infections such as Ascaris lumbricoides
41
What is cold urticaria, and what should patients | be warned to avoid?
Rapid swelling, erythema, and pruritus after exposure to cold objects or weather. It affects only the areas exposed to the cold. There have been reported deaths, secondary to hypotension, of people who swam in cold water.
42
What clinical test might be used to determine whether a patient suffers from cold (temperature) urticaria?
Clinical history is most important. However, the ice cube test can be used to confirm the diagnosis. Place an ice cube on the forearm for 4 minutes, and then observe the area for 10 minutes. Symptoms should develop in 2 minutes.
43
Stroking of the skin with a fingernail or tongue blade causes a wheal and flare reaction where the skin was touched. What is the diagnosis?
Dermatographism
44
What form of allergy testing must be used in | patients with dermatographism?
``` Radioallergosorbent test (RAST) or enzyme-linked immu- nosorbent assay (ELISA)-based blood assays ```
45
What is the treatment for dermatographism?
Patients are typically treated with diphenhydramine or hydroxyzine 25 to 50 mg daily. Use of second-generation antihistamines works for mild symptoms. Doses needed are typically two or three times the advised doses.
46
A patient has a history of developing itchy red skin on any sun-exposed skin and intense hives if he or she spends any significant time in the sun. The patient does not report a similar reaction when exposed to heat not associated with sunlight. How is this type of reaction classified?
Solar urticaria is classified by the wavelength of light that causes immediate hypersensitivity.
47
What immunoglobulin mediates most food | allergies?
IgE