Rheumatology PassMed Flashcards

1
Q

what is etanercept and what side effect is it associated with?

A

Anti-TNF drug

Reactivate TB

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2
Q

Discuss the mgt of rheumatoid arthritis

A
  1. DMARD monotherapy +/- short course of pred
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3
Q

how do you monitor treatment response in RA

A

Das28 score and CRP levels

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4
Q

how are flare ups of RA managed

A

oral or IM steroids

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5
Q

what do you have to regularly monitor in a patient on methotrexate and why

A

LFTs and FBC

risk of myelosuppression and liver cirrhosis

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6
Q

methotrexate and cough

A

side effect is pneumonitis

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7
Q

the current indication for a TNF-inhibitor is an inadequate response to

A

at least two DMARDs including methotrexate

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8
Q

pain worse on wrist extension against resistance with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended

A

lateral epicondylitis

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9
Q

which one is tennis elbow

A

lateral epicondylitis

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10
Q

how long does lateral epicondylitis last for?

A

6-12 weeks of acute pain but usually lasts for 6mths to 2 years

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11
Q

manage lateral epicondylitis

A

advice on avoiding muscle overload
simple analgesia
steroid injection
physiotherapy

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12
Q

what is ankylosing spondylitis?

A

HLA-B27 associated spondyloarthropathy - inflammatory disorder which also affects the joints

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13
Q

who gets ank spond

A

It typically presents in males (sex ratio 3:1) aged 20-30 years old.

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14
Q

what are the classical features of ank spond?

A

typically a young man who presents with lower back pain and stiffness of insidious onset
stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise
the patient may experience pain at night which improves on getting up

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15
Q

what is the main clinical sign seen on examination with people with ank spond

A

shoebers test <5cm

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16
Q

what are the other features of ank spond (all the As)

A
the 'A's 
Apical fibrosis
Anterior uveitis
Aortic regurgitation
Achilles tendonitis
AV node block
Amyloidosis
and cauda equina syndrome
peripheral arthritis (25%, more common if female)
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17
Q

what is the main side effect of colchicine and what do GPs use instead due to this SE

A

diarrhoea

NSAIDS like naproxen

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18
Q

what is gout

A

form of microcrystal synovitis caused by the deposition of monosodium urate monohydrate in the synovium. It is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia

19
Q

what is classed as chronic hyperuricaemia

A

uric acid >450 µmol/l

20
Q

what is first line mgt of gout

A

colchicine or naproxen

if contraindicated can give steroids

21
Q

what is the criteria for offering urate lowering therapy

A
→ >= 2 attacks in 12 months
→ tophi
→ renal disease
→ uric acid renal stones
→ prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics
22
Q

what is the first and second line urate lowering therapy

A

allopurinol

xanthine oxidase inhibitors such as febuxostat

23
Q

what food is high in purines

A

Liver, kidneys, seafood, oily fish (mackerel, sardines) and yeast products

24
Q

what drugs can precipitate gout

A

thiazides

25
Q

what is ehlers danlos

A

genetic collagen disorder, which results in widespread elasticity of tissue. There are many differing subtypes, but most commonly it is an autosomal dominant condition affecting type III collagen

26
Q

what cardiac conditions are associated with ehlers danlos

A

valvular incompetence

27
Q

what are the main features of ehlers danlos?

A

elastic, fragile skin
joint hypermobility: recurrent joint dislocation
easy bruising
aortic regurgitation, mitral valve prolapse and aortic dissection
subarachnoid haemorrhage
angioid retinal streaks

28
Q

treat ank spond

A

nsaids (methotrexate doesn’t work)

second line anti tnf

29
Q

what are blood calcium pth alpphos and phosphate levels like in osteoporosis

A

all normal

30
Q

Normal calcium, normal phosphate, raised alkaline phosphatase, normal parathyroid hormone

A

pagets

31
Q

Decreased calcium, decreased phosphate, raised alkaline phosphatase, raised parathyroid hormone

A

osteomalacia

32
Q

Raised calcium, decreased phosphate, raised alkaline phosphatase, raised parathyroid hormone

A

primary hyperpapathyroidism (adenoma?)

33
Q

Decreased calcium, raised phosphate, raised alkaline phosphatase, raised parathyroid hormone

A

secondary hyperparathyrpidism (chronic kidney disease)

34
Q

what is osteoporosis in terms of bone marrow density

A

bone marrow density <2.5 standard deviations below the mean

35
Q

risk factors for osteoporosis

A
corticosteroid use
smoking
alcohol
low body mass index
family history
female 
>>age
36
Q

how do you diagnose osteoporosis

A

DEXA of hip and lumbar spine

37
Q

treat osteoporosis

A

bisphosphonates (alendronate)

38
Q

what is temporal arteritis associated with

A

polymyalgia rheumatica

39
Q

what are the typical features of temporal arteritis

A

typically patient > 60 years old
usually rapid onset (e.g. < 1 month)
headache (found in 85%)
jaw claudication (65%)
visual disturbances secondary to anterior ischemic optic neuropathy
tender, palpable temporal artery
around 50% have features of PMR: aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles (not weakness)
also lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, night sweats

40
Q

diagnose temporal arteritis on

A

biopsy (be aware of skip lesions)

41
Q

what is the treatment of temporal arteritis

A

should have a fast response to prednisalone

42
Q

SLE is associated with low levels of

A

C4

43
Q

how can you monitor disease progression in SLE

A

anti-DsDNA titres
ESR
complement levels