Rheumatology Flashcards

1
Q

What is rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Long term autoimmune disorder primarily affecting joints that is more common in females. Most commonly diagnosed in those aged 40-50 but affects people of all ages.

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2
Q

What are the two biggest risk factors for rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Genetics

Smoking

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3
Q

What causes rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Autoimmune disease involving immune complexes

Rheumatoid arthritis pathogenesis is basically an imbalance of immune proteins and cells.

Rheumatoid factor is a circulating factor that reacts with the Fc portion of a patients IgG

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4
Q

What are the clinical features of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Insidious onset over a few months
Bilateral and symmetrically painful joints, usually the MCP and PIP joints
Joints will be warm, swollen, and stiff
Pain following rest i.e. when waking up in the morning
Stiffness following rest that is slowly improves with use (slower than osteoarthritis)

If picked up late the joints will become immobile and deformed – swan neck and boutonniere deformities

Positive squeeze test – discomfort on squeezing across MC or MT joints

Non-Joint manifestations
Rheumatoid nodules are the most common non joint manifestation
Respiratory – fibrosis, effusion, nodules, bronchiolitis obliterans, pneumonitis and pleurisy
Ocular – keratoconjunctivitis sicca, episcleritis, scleritis, corneal ulceration, keratitis, steroid induced cataracts, and chloroquine retinopathy
Osteoporosis
Cardiac – IHD (similar risk as T2DM),
Increased risk of infections
Depression
Anaemia (of chronic disease)

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5
Q

How should suspected rheumatoid arthritis be investigated?

A

Clinical diagnosis is most important
X-ray
Early signs – loss of joint space, juxta-articular osteoporosis and soft tissue swelling
Late signs – periarticular erosions and subluxation
Blood test for Rheumatoid factor (Rosa-waaler test or Latex agglutination test) (only positive in 70-80% of cases), high levels indicate severe progressive disease but are not a marker for disease activity.

Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibodies (ACPA) – may be detectable 10 years before RA develops – sensitivity of 70% and specificity of 90-95%. Test if RF negative but high clinical suspicion

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6
Q

What other conditions are positive for rheumatoid factor?

A
Other conditions with raised RF include:
Sjogren’s syndrome – 50% 
Infective endocarditis – 50%
SLE – 20-30%
Systemic sclerosis – 30% 
General population – 5%
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7
Q

Describe the American college of rheumatology criteria for diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Used in patients who have at least 1 joint with definite clinical synovitis that is not better explained by another disease. Scored on:

  1. Type and number of joints involved
  2. Serology – RF and ACPA
  3. Acute phase reactants – CRP and ESR
  4. Duration of symptoms – > or < 6 weeks
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8
Q

How is rheumatoid arthritis managed?

A

First line – DMARD monotherapy +/- short course of bridging prednisolone. Monitor efficacy with CRP and disease activity such as using the composite score DAS28

Pain control using paracetamol, codeine but avoid NSAIDs if possible.

Flares – corticosteroid either oral or IM

Anti-TNF agents – indicated if inadequate response to at least two DMARDs including methotrexate. Examples include etanercepts, infliximab and adalimumab. Most important SE of these are the possibility to reactivate TB.

Other monoclonal antibodies to consider are Rituximab and Abatacept

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9
Q

Give some examples of the DMARDs used in Rheumatoid Arthritis and their side effects?

A

DMARDs include:
Methotrexate – SE: myelosuppression, liver cirrhosis and pneumonitis
Sulphasalazine – SE: rashes, oligospermia, Heinz body anaemia and interstitial lung disease
Leflunomide – SE: liver impairment, interstitial lung disease and hypertension
Hydroxychloroquine – SE: retinopathy and corneal deposits

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10
Q

What is hydroxychloroquine and what are its side effects?

A

Hydroxychloroquine – very similar to chloroquine which is used to treat malaria. SE – bull’s eye retinopathy (severe and permanent visual loss) so baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening is recommended. Safe in pregnancy.

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11
Q

What is methotrexate and what are its side effects?

A

Methotrexate – inhibits dihydrofolate reductase. SE mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis. Avoid in pregnancy and must be on effective contraception for at least 6 months following treatment. Prescribed weekly and monitored through FBC, U&E and LFT every 2-3 months once stabilised (weekly before this). Should be co-prescribed with folic acid. Interacts with trimethoprim, co-trimoxazole and high dose aspirin.

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12
Q

What is penicillamine?

A

Penicillamine – mechanism of action unknown – SE rashes, disturbance of taste and proteinuria

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13
Q

What are the poor prognostic factors for rheumatoid arthritis?

A
Poor Prognostic Factors 
RF positive 
Poor functional status 
HLA DR4
X-ray showing early erosions after < 2 years 
Extra articular features e.g. nodules 
Insidious onset 
ACPA positive
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14
Q

What is SLE?

A

Systemic Lupus Erythematous
Definition – multisystemic autoimmune disease with a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction mostly to nuclear antigens and DNA itself causing immune complex formation and deposition resulting in inflammation and damage to tissue. 9:1 F:M ratio typically women of child bearing age with a strong genetic link for some forms of the disease. Most common in afro Caribbean and Asian populations. Associated with HLA B8, DR2 and DR3.

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15
Q

What causes SLE?

A

95% are ANA positive (antinuclear antibodies)
60% are anti-double stranded DNA positive
40% are Rheumatoid factor positive
SLE can also be associated with antiphospholipid antibodies, autoimmune thyroid disease and Sjogren’s.

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16
Q

What is drug induced lupus?

A

Features – renal and nervous system involvement is unusual. Arthralgia, myalgia, malar rash and pulmonary involvement, ANA positive in 100% but dsDNA negative, anti-histone antibodies in 80-90%.

Most common causes are procainamide and hydralazine with isoniazid, minocycline and phenytoin being less common.

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17
Q

What are the clinical features of SLE?

A

Skin
Malar – butterfly rash that spares the nasolabial folds
Discoid rash – scaly, erythematous and well demarcated in sun exposed areas – may progress to pigmented and hyperkeratotic before becoming atrophic
Photosensitivity
Raynaud’s phenomenon
Livedo reticularis
Non-scarring alopecia

Other
MSK – Arthralgia and non-erosive arthritis
Cardiac – pericarditis and non-infective endocarditis (Libman-Sacks syndrome)
Respiratory – pleurisy and fibrosing alveolitis
Renal – proteinuria and glomerulonephritis – diffuse proliferative most commonly
Neuropsychiatric – anxiety and depression, psychosis and seizures

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18
Q

How should suspected SLE be investigated?

A

Clinical diagnosis + antibodies
ANA – 99% of people with SLE are positive
RF – 20% of people with SLE are positive
Anti-dsDNA – highly specific (>99%) but less sensitive (70%)
Anti-Smith – highly specific (>99%) but less sensitive (30%)

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19
Q

How is SLE monitored?

A

Inflammatory markers – ESR used more commonly, CRP may be normal in active disease
Complement levels C3 and C4 are low during active disease
Anti-dsDNA titres can be used for disease monitoring

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20
Q

How is this diagnosis of SLE made?

A

Diagnosis based on >4 criteria with at least 1 laboratory, and 1 clinical (or biopsy proven lupus nephritis with positive ANA or anti-DNA.

Clinical Criteria
Acute cutaneous lupus rash – butterfly rash (over cheeks sparing nasolabial folds)
Non-scarring alopecia
Oral/nasal ulcers
Synovitis – 2 or more joints with >30mins of morning stiffness
Serositis – pleurisy or pericarditis
Urinalysis – proteinuria or red cell casts
Neurological features – seizures, psychosis, neuropathies and confusion
Haemolytic anaemia
Leukopenia
Thrombocytopenia

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21
Q

How is SLE managed?

A

High factor sun block
Hydroxychloroquine – reduces disease activity and improves survival
For skin flares use topical steroids

Maintenance
NSAIDs unless renal involvement
Hydroxychloroquine for skin and joint symptoms
Azathioprine, methotrexate or mycophenolate mofetil as steroid sparing agents

Flares
Mild (no serious organ damage): low dose steroids or hydroxychloroquine
Moderate (organ involvement): DMARDs or mycophenolate Mofetil
Severe (life or organ threatening): Urgent high dose steroids, Mycophenolate, rituximab or cyclophosphamide

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22
Q

What is azathioprine and what are its side effects?

A

Azathioprine – inhibits purine synthesis and patients should be tested for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) prior to starting as this makes individuals prone to toxicity.
SE – bone marrow depression, nausea and vomiting, pancreatitis and increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. Significant interaction with allopurinol. Safe in pregnancy

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23
Q

What are the complications of SLE?

A
80% 15 years survival 
Lupus nephritis – intensive immunosuppression with steroids and cyclophosphamide or Mycophenolate 
Haemolytic anaemia
Pericarditis
CNS involvement 
Osteoporosis 
Stroke
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24
Q

What is antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

Acquired disorder characterised by a predisposition to venous and arterial thrombosis, recurrent foetal loss and thrombocytopaenia. Can occur as a primary disorder or secondary to others, most commonly SLE, but also autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders and phenothiazines.

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25
Q

What are the clinical features of antiphospholipid syndrome?

A
Paradoxical rise in APTT – reaction of lupus anticoagulant antibodies with phospholipids involve in coagulation cascade 
Venous/arterial thrombosis 
Recurrent foetal loss 
Livedo reticularis
Thrombocytopenia 
Pre-eclampsia 
Pulmonary hypertension
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26
Q

How is antiphospholipid syndrome managed?

A

Primary thromboprophylaxis – low dose aspirin
Secondary thromboprophylaxis
• Initial venous event or any arterial events = warfarin with target INR of 2-3
• Recurrent venous events = warfarin with target INR of 3-4

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27
Q

What is gout?

A

Definition – Inflammatory arthritis occurring as a result of urate crystal deposits. It is more common in men until age of 60 and twice as common in men of African descent.

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28
Q

What causes gout?

A

Persistently elevated levels of uric acid due to diet and genetic factors. The uric acid crystallises and deposits itself within the join capsule making moving very painful.

Triggers – drugs, stress illness and dehydration as well as many drugs, food and drink

Decreased excretion of Urate
• Drugs – diuretics and high dose aspirin
• Chronic kidney disease
• Lead toxicity

Increased production of urate
• Myeloproliferative/lymphoproliferative disorders
• Cytotoxic drugs
• Psoriasis

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29
Q

What are the clinical features of gout?

A

Patient have episodes lasting several days during flares with:
• Erythema
• Pain with maximal intensity within 12 hours
• Hot
• Swollen – can form tophi which are large swelling of urate deposition
Usually affecting the 1st metatarsal-phalangeal joint
Other joints commonly affected: ankles, knees, wrists and fingers

Without treatment will resolve within a week but repeated episodes can damage the joints resulting in chronic problems

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30
Q

How should suspected gout be investigated?

A

Blood Urate levels
Aspiration of synovial fluid if there is any doubt
X-ray in chronic disease will show – joint effusion, punched out erosions with sclerotic margins, relative preservation of joint space, eccentric erosions, no periarticular osteopenia (on contrast to RA) and soft tissue tophi may be seen

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31
Q

How is gout managed acutely?

A

Acute management
NSAIDs at maximum dose until 1-2 days after the symptoms are settled and gastroprotection is usually required
Colchicine – slower onset of action and the main SE is diarrhoea
If NSAIDs and Colchicine are CI then oral steroids
Intraarticular steroid injection
Continue allopurinol if already on it

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32
Q

How is gout managed in the long term?

A
Ongoing management 
Everyone who has had their first attack of gout should be using urate lowering therapy
Particularly if: 
•	2 attacks in 12 months 
•	Tophi 
•	Renal disease 
•	Uric acid renal stones 
•	Prophylaxis if on cytotoxic or diuretic drugs

Allopurinol is first line – do not start until 2 weeks post attack/after inflammation has settled as long-term drug decision are best made when not in pain
Titrate dose against serum uric acid levels aiming for < 300umol/l
Consider Colchicine cover when starting allopurinol and may be required for 6 months
Second line agent is Febuxostat (another xanthine oxidase inhibitor)

If refractory to treatment, then trial uricase or pegloticase (infusion every 2 weeks)

Note losartan has a specific uricosuric action and is particularly useful if hypertensive

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33
Q

What lifestyle modifications should people with gout be encouraged to make?

A

Lifestyle Modification
Reduce alcohol intake and avoid during an acute attack
Lose weight if obese
Avoid food high in purines – liver, kidneys, seafood, oily fish (mackerel and sardines) and yeast products
Increased vitamin C intake

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34
Q

What is pseudogout?

A

Pseudogout is an inflammatory arthritis caused by deposits of calcium pyrophosphate crystals within the joint so also known as Acute calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease. The condition often mimics gout, however, is more likely to affect proximal joints, with the knee and wrist being most commonly affected.

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35
Q

What are the risk factors for pseudogout?

A

Advanced age
Hyperparathyroidism,
Hypophosphatemia and hypomanesaemia
Acromegaly and Wilson’s disease

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36
Q

What are the clinical features of pseudogout?

A

Knee, wrist and shoulders most commonly affected
Acute onset joint swelling
Subcutaneous deposits near the affected joint

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37
Q

How should suspected pseudogout be investigated?

A

Diagnosis of pseudogout is also made by joint aspiration and microscopy, which will show weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals.
X-ray – chondrocalcinosis
Exclude septic arthritis

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38
Q

How is pseudogout managed?

A

Pseudo-gout is treated acutely with NSAIDs

Intra-articular or intra-muscular or oral steroids

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39
Q

What is chronic fatigue syndrome?

A

Diagnosed after at least 4 months of disabling fatigue affecting mental and physical function more than 50% of the time in the absence of other diseases which may explain the symptoms. It is more common in females.

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40
Q

What are the clinical features of chronic fatigue syndrome?

A
Sleep problems – insomnia, hypersomnia, unrefreshing and disturbed sleep-wake cycle 
Muscle and/or joint pains 
Headaches 
Painful lymph node enlargement 
Sore throat 
Cognitive dysfunction 
General malaise 
Dizziness 
Nausea 
Palpitations

Physical or mental exertion make symptoms worse

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41
Q

How is chronic fatigue syndrome investigated?

A

Mostly to exclude other pathology – FBC, U&E, LFT, Glucose, TFT, CRP, Calcium, CK, ferritin, Coeliac and urinalysis

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42
Q

How is chronic fatigue syndrome managed?

A

CBT – very effective
Graded exercise therapy – formal supervised program
Pacing – organising activities to avoid tiring
Low dose amitriptyline if poor sleep
Referral to pain management clinic if this is the main symptoms
Better prognosis in the young

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43
Q

What is fibromyalgia?

A

Fibromyalgia is a syndrome characterised by widespread pain throughout the body with tender points at specific anatomical sites. The cause of fibromyalgia is unknown. Women are around 5 times more likely to be affected and it typically presents between 30-50 years old.

44
Q

What are the clinical features of fibromyalgia?

A

Chronic pain: at multiple site, sometimes ‘pain all over’
Lethargy
Cognitive impairment known as fibro fog
Sleep disturbance, headaches and dizziness are common

45
Q

How is fibromyalgia investigated?

A

Diagnosis is clinical
The American College of Rheumatology classification criteria lists 9 pairs of tender points on the body. If a patient is tender in at least 11 of these 18 points it makes a diagnosis of fibromyalgia more likely.

46
Q

What is the management of fibromyalgia?

A

The management of fibromyalgia is difficult
Psychosocial and multidisciplinary approach is helpful
Unfortunately, there is currently a paucity of evidence and guidelines to guide practice

Explanation
Aerobic exercise: has the strongest evidence base
Cognitive behavioural therapy
Medication: pregabalin, duloxetine, amitriptyline

47
Q

What is polymyalgia rheumatica?

A

Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a relatively common condition seen in older people characterised by muscle stiffness and raised inflammatory markers. Whilst it appears to be closely related to temporal arteritis the underlying cause is not fully understood and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process.

48
Q

What are the clinical features of polymyalgia rheumatica?

A

Typically patient > 60 years old
Usually rapid onset (e.g. < 1 month)
Aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles
Weakness is not considered a symptom of polymyalgia rheumatica
Mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, night sweats

49
Q

How is polymyalgia rheumatica investigated?

A

Raised inflammatory markers

Creatine kinase and EMG normal

50
Q

How is polymyalgia rheumatica managed?

A

Prednisolone e.g. 15mg/od
Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis

51
Q

What is Marfan’s syndrome?

A

Marfan’s syndrome is an autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder. It is caused by a defect in the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15 that codes for the protein fibrillin-1. It affects around 1 in 3,000 people.

52
Q

What are the clinical features of Marfan’s syndrome?

A

Tall stature with arm span to height ratio > 1.05
High-arched palate
Arachnodactyly long fingers and toes
Pectus excavatum
Pes planus – loss of medial longitudinal arch of the foot
Scoliosis of > 20 degrees

Heart – dilation of the aortic sinuses (seen in 90%) which may lead to aortic aneurysm, aortic dissection, aortic regurgitation and mitral valve prolapse (75%)

Lungs – repeated pneumothoraces

Eyes – upwards lens dislocation (superotemporal ectopia lentis), blue sclera and myopia
dural ectasia (ballooning of the dural sac at the lumbosacral level)
53
Q

What is the prognosis of Marfan’s syndrome?

A

The life expectancy of patients used to be around 40-50 years. With the advent of regular echocardiography monitoring and beta-blocker/ACE-inhibitor therapy this has improved significantly over recent years. However, aortic dissection and other cardiovascular problems remain the leading cause of death.

54
Q

What is ehler-danlos syndrome?

A

Ehler-Danlos syndrome is an autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder that mostly affects type III collagen. This results in the tissue being more elastic than normal leading to joint hypermobility and increased elasticity of the skin.

55
Q

What are the clinical features of ehelr-danlos syndrome?

A

Elastic, fragile skin
Joint hypermobility leading to recurrent joint dislocation
Easy bruising
Aortic regurgitation, mitral valve prolapse and aortic dissection
Subarachnoid haemorrhage
Angioid retinal streaks

56
Q

What is osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Also known as brittle bone disease, is a group of disorders affecting metabolism of collagen resulting in bone fragility and fractures.

Type 1 is the most common and is autosomal dominant.

57
Q

What are the clinical features of osteogenesis imperfecta?

A
Presents in childhood 
Fractures following minor trauma 
Blue sclera 
Deafness secondary to otosclerosis 
Dental imperfections are common
58
Q

What are ANCA associated vasculitides?

A

Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) are associated with a number of small vessel vasculitides such as granulomatosis with polyangiitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss Syndrome) and microscopic polyangiitis. ANCA is more common with increasing age.

59
Q

What are the clinical features of ANCA associated vasculitides?

A

Renal impairment – immune complex glomerulonephritis
Respiratory symptoms such as dyspnoea and haemoptysis
Systemic symptoms – fatigue, weight loss and fever
Vasculitis rash – minority of patients
ENT symptoms such as sinusitis

60
Q

How should ANCA associated vasculitides be investigated?

A

Urinalysis for haematuria and proteinuria
Bloods – U&Es, FBC (normocytic anaemic and thrombocytosis)
CRP
ANCA testing
Chest X-ray – nodular, fibrotic or infiltrative lesions
Kidney or lung biopsies

61
Q

What are the two main types of ANCA?

A

There are two main types of ANCA – cytoplasmic and perinuclear both are seen in most ANCA conditions but are much more common in some
• cANCA – granulomatosis with polyangiitis (90%), Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (low) and microscopic polyangiitis (40%)
• pANCA – granulomatosis with polyangiitis (25%), Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (50%) and microscopic polyangiitis (75%). Also seen in UC (70%), primary sclerosing cholangitis (70%), Anti-GBM (25%) and Crohn’s (20%).

62
Q

How are ANCA associated vasculitides managed?

A

Via specialist teams e.g. renal, rheumatology and respiratory
Immunosuppressive therapy is the mainstay of treatment

63
Q

What is Raynaud’s phenomenon?

A

Raynaud’s phenomenon is characterised by an exaggerated vasoconstrictive response of the digital arteries and cutaneous arteriole to the cold or emotional stress. It may be primary (Raynaud’s disease) or secondary (Raynaud’s phenomenon).

64
Q

What are the clinical features of Raynaud’s?

A

Raynaud’s disease typically presents in young women (e.g. 30 years old) with bilateral symptoms.
Typical white, blue then red colour change

65
Q

What are the secondary causes of Raynaud’s disease?

A
Connective tissue disorders
Scleroderma (most common)
Rheumatoid arthritis
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Leukaemia
Use of vibrating tools
Drugs: oral contraceptive pill, ergot
Cervical rib
66
Q

What factors would suggest an underlying connective tissue disorder was causing Raynaud’s disease?

A

Factors suggesting underlying connective tissue disease
Onset after 40 years
Unilateral symptoms
Rashes
Presence of autoantibodies
Features suggesting rheumatoid arthritis or SLE
Digital ulcers, calcinosis

67
Q

How is Raynaud’s disease managed?

A
All patients with suspected of secondary Raynaud's phenomenon should be referred to secondary care to a rheumatologist 
First-line: calcium channel blockers e.g. nifedipine
IV prostacyclin (epoprostenol) infusions: effects may last several weeks/months
68
Q

What is Paget’s disease of the bone?

A

Increased and uncontrolled bone resorption followed by excessive and chaotic bone deposition. It is common, occurring in 1 in 20 people in the UK but only symptomatic in 1 in 20 of those with it.

69
Q

What are the risk factors for Paget’s disease of the bone?

A

Increasing age
Male sex
Northern Latitude
Family history

70
Q

What are the clinical features of Paget’s disease of the bone?

A

Affects (in order) spine, skull, pelvis and femur
Older male with bone pain and isolated raised serum alkaline phosphatase
Untreated features – bowing of tibia and bossing of skull
Calcium and phosphate are usually normal
Risk of high output cardiac failure with >15% bony involvement
Small risk of sarcomatous change – 1% if affected for > 10 years
Deafness from cranial nerve entrapment
Skull thickening
Fracture

71
Q

How should Paget’s disease of the bone be investigated?

A

Abnormal thickened, sclerotic bone on x-ray

Bone profile and PTH

72
Q

How is Paget’s disease of the bone managed?

A

Only treat if symptomatic i.e. pain, deformity, fracture, or periarticular Paget’s
Bisphosphonates either oral risedronate or IV zoledronate

73
Q

What are Spondyloarthritides?

A

These are often termed HLA-B27 Seronegative Spondyloarthropathies. This is because they are associated with HLA-B27 and are seronegative for rheumatoid factor. These include ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, psoriatic arthritis and enteropathic arthritis.

74
Q

What is ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Definition – chronic inflammatory disease of the spine and sacroiliac joints. Typical presentation is a man less than 30. It is a HLA B27 associated spondyloarthropathy however, HLA-B27 not useful for diagnosis as although 90% of patients have it positive, 10% of normal patients are also positive for it

75
Q

What are the clinical features of ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Gradual onset lower back pain and stiffness
Worse during the morning
Spinal morning stiffness relieved by exercise
Pain can radiate from sacroiliac joints to the buttocks
Gradual loss of spinal movements – lateral and forward flexion – schober’s test
Reduced chest expansion and loss of thoracic volume

Other associations 
Can have AV heart block
Eye problems – anterior uveitis 
Artic regurgitation
Achilles tendonitis 
Amyloidosis
76
Q

How should suspected ankylosing spondylitis be investigated?

A

Clinical diagnosis
Inflammatory markers are typically raised
X-ray looking at sacroiliac joint (normal early on) – sacroiliitis, squaring on lumbar vertebrae, bamboo spine, syndemophytes (ossification of outer fibres of annulus fibrosus
CXR – apical fibrosis
MRI useful to confirm active disease if X-ray negative but suspicion high
Spirometry – restrictive defect

77
Q

How is ankylosing spondylitis managed?

A

Regular exercise NOT rest such as swimming
NSAIDs for pain relief
Physiotherapy

Anti-TNF alpha if severe
DMARDs only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement
Surgery for replacement of hip or shoulder involvement

78
Q

What is reactive arthritis?

A

Reactive arthritis is one of the HLA-B27 associated seronegative spondyloarthropathies. It encompasses what was formerly called Reiter’s syndrome. Reactive arthritis is defined as an arthritis that develops following an infection where the organism cannot be recovered from the joint e.g. Sexually acquired reactive arthritis – SARA. Post-STI form much more common in men (e.g. 10:1). Post-dysenteric form equal sex incidence.

79
Q

What are the clinical features of reactive arthritis?

A

Classic triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis and arthritis following a n infection
Typically develops within 4 weeks of initial infection and lasts 4-6 months
Typically asymmetrical oligoarthritic of lower limbs
Dactylitis – inflammation of the a digit

Can’t see, pee or climb a tree

80
Q

What are the common causes of reactive arthritis?

A

Post-dysenteric form – Shigella, salmonella, Campylobacter

Post STI form – chlamydia

81
Q

How is reactive arthritis managed?

A

Symptomatic – analgesia, NSAIDs and intra-articular steroids
Sulfasalazine and methotrexate are sometimes used if persistent
Symptoms rarely last more than 12 months

82
Q

What is Behcet’s syndrome?

A

Complex multisystem disorder presumed to be autoimmune inflammation of arteries and veins. The classic triad of symptoms are oral ulcers, genital ulcers and anterior uveitis. It is more common in men, particularly from easter Mediterranean e.g. Turkey, tends to affect young adults and is associated with HLA B51. Often there is a family history

83
Q

What are the clinical features of Behcet’s syndrome?

A

Classical triad – oral ulcers, genital ulcers, and anterior uveitis
Thrombophlebitis and DVT
Arthritis
Aseptic meningitis
GI – abdominal pain, diarrhoea, and colitis
Erythema nodosum

84
Q

What is dermatomyositis?

A

An inflammatory disorder causing symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness and characteristic skin lesions. polymyositis is a variant of the disease where skin manifestations are not prominent.

85
Q

What causes dermatomyositis?

A

Idiopathic
Associated with connective tissue disorders
Underlying malignancy (typically ovarian, breast and lung cancer, found in 20-25% - more if patient older).

86
Q

What are the clinical features of dermatomyositis?

A

Skin features
Photosensitive
Macular rash over back and shoulder
Heliotrope rash in the periorbital region
Gottron’s papules - roughened red papules over extensor surfaces of fingers
Mechanic’s hands – extremely dry and scaly hands with linear ‘cracks’ on the palmar and lateral aspects of the fingers
Nail fold capillary dilatation

Other features
Proximal muscle weakness +/- tenderness
Raynaud's
Respiratory muscle weakness
Interstitial lung disease: e.g. Fibrosing alveolitis or organising pneumonia
Dysphagia and dysphonia
87
Q

How should dermatomyositis be investigated?

A

Screening for an underlying malignancy is usually performed following a diagnosis of dermatomyositis
Majority of patients are ANA positive (80%)
30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases (anti-synthetase antibodies), including:
• Antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1)
• Antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP)
• Anti-Mi-2 antibodies

88
Q

What is polymyositis?

A

Inflammatory disorder causing symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness. Thought to be a T-cell mediated cytotoxic process directed against muscle fibres. May be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders. Associated with malignancy. Typically affects middle-aged, female:male 3:1

89
Q

What are the clinical features of polymyositis?

A
Proximal muscle weakness +/- tenderness
Raynaud's
Respiratory muscle weakness
Interstitial lung disease: e.g. fibrosing alveolitis or organising pneumonia
Dysphagia and dysphonia
90
Q

How should suspected polymyositis be investigated?

A

Raised creatine kinase
Other muscle enzymes (lactate dehydrogenase (LD), aldolase, AST and ALT) raised
EMG
Muscle biopsy
Anti-synthetase antibodies - anti-Jo-1 antibodies are seen in pattern of disease associated with lung involvement, Raynaud’s and fever

91
Q

What is Sjogren’s syndrome?

A

Sjogren’s syndrome is an autoimmune disorder affecting exocrine glands resulting in dry mucosal surfaces. It may be primary (PSS) or secondary to rheumatoid arthritis or other connective tissue disorders, where it usually develops around 10 years after the initial onset. Sjogren’s syndrome is much more common in females (ratio 9:1). There is a marked increased risk of lymphoid malignancy (40-60 fold).

92
Q

What are the clinical features of sjogren’s syndrome?

A
Dry eyes: keratoconjunctivitis sicca
Dry mouth
Vaginal dryness
Arthralgia
Raynaud's
Sensory polyneuropathy
Recurrent episodes of parotitis
Renal tubular acidosis (usually subclinical)
93
Q

How should sjogren’s syndrome be investigated?

A

Rheumatoid factor (RF) positive in nearly 50% of patients
ANA positive in 70%
Anti-Ro (SSA) antibodies in 70% of patients with PSS
Anti-La (SSB) antibodies in 30% of patients with PSS

Schirmer’s test: filter paper near conjunctival sac to measure tear formation
Histology shows focal lymphocytic infiltration
Blood tests show hypergammaglobulinaemia and low C4

94
Q

How is sjogren’s syndrome managed?

A

Artificial saliva and tears

Pilocarpine may stimulate saliva production

95
Q

What is Still’s disease in adults?

A

Autoinflammatory disease that has a bimodal age distribution - 15-25 yrs and 35-46 yr

96
Q

What are the clinical features of of Still’s disease in adults?

A

Arthralgia
Elevated serum ferritin
Salmon-pink, maculopapular rash
Pyrexia that typically rises in the late afternoon/early evening in a daily pattern and accompanies a worsening of joint symptoms and rash
Lymphadenopathy
Rheumatoid factor (RF) and anti-nuclear antibody (ANA) negative

97
Q

How should suspected Still’s disease in adults be investigated

A

This is done clinically but the diagnosis of Still’s disease in adults can be challenging. The Yamaguchi criteria is the most widely used criteria and has a sensitivity of 93.5%.

98
Q

How is Still’s disease in adults managed?

A

NSAIDs – first line to manage fever, joint pain and serositis and trialled for at least a week before steroids are added
Steroids may control symptoms but won’t improve prognosis
If symptoms persist, the use of methotrexate, IL-1 or anti-TNF therapy can be considered

99
Q

What is systemic sclerosis?

A

Systemic sclerosis is a condition of unknown aetiology characterised by hardened, sclerotic skin and other connective tissues. It is four times more common in females. There are three patterns of disease

100
Q

What is limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis?

A

Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis
Raynaud’s may be first sign. Scleroderma affects face and distal limbs predominately and is associated with anti-centromere antibodies. A subtype of limited systemic sclerosis is CREST syndrome: Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, Telangiectasia

101
Q

What is diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis?

A

Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis
Scleroderma affects trunk and proximal limbs predominately, associated with scl-70 antibodies. The most common cause of death is now respiratory involvement, which is seen in around 80%: interstitial lung disease (ILD) and pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH). Other complications include renal disease and hypertension. This has a poor prognosis.

102
Q

What is scleroderma?

A

Scleroderma (without internal organ involvement)

Tightening and fibrosis of skin and may be manifest as plaques (morphoea) or linear

103
Q

What antibodies are positive in systemic sclerosis?

A
  • ANA positive in 90%
  • RF positive in 30%
  • Anti-scl-70 antibodies associated with diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis
  • Anti-centromere antibodies associated with limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis
104
Q

What is CREST syndrome?

A

Definition – multisystem connective tissue disorder causing: Calcinosis, Raynaud’s Phenomenon, Oesophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly and Telangiectasia. Sometimes also known as the Limited Cutaneous form of Systemic sclerosis. Autoimmune disease caused by antibodies against centromeres and nucleus.

105
Q

What are the clinical features of CREST syndrome?

A

Calcinosis – thickening and tightening of the skin with deposition of calcified nodules

Raynaud’s Phenomenon – Exaggerated vasoconstriction in the periphery causing very cold hands with poor circulation

Oesophageal Dysmotility – sensation of dysphagia, chest pain and cough. This occurs as a result of atrophy of the GI tract smooth muscle

Sclerodactyly – localised thickening of the skin around the fingers causing ulcerations. Usually this only occurs distal to the metacarpophalangeal joints

Telangiectasia – dilated capillaries on the skin surface

Other symptoms include: exhaustion, dyspnoea, badly healing wounds, pulmonary hypertension and the ensuing cor pulmonale.

106
Q

How should suspected CREST syndrome be investigated?

A

Detectable antibodies against centromeres and nucleus

Easily mimics other disease so can be missed. Diagnosis is made when 3 of the 5 symptoms are found. Assays for the autoantibodies will confirm this diagnosis.

107
Q

What is the management of CREST syndrome?

A

Immunosuppressive therapy
Symptoms management especially of GORD, pulmonary hypertension and raynaud’s phenomenon.
Steroid medication for inflammation