Rheumatology Flashcards

1
Q

Which bottles/tubes should be used for joint arthrocentesis and why?

A

Plain sterile bottle- For M/C/S and gram stain, lower rate of false positives than blood culture bottles
FBE (EDTA) tube- At least 1ml, used for accurate cell count and differential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is seen in gout arthrocentesis microscopy?

A

Monosodium urate crystal (negative birefringence, needle shape, blue) these are located inside the phagocytes
High WCC’s
No bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is seen in pseudogout arthrocentesis microscopy?

A

Calcium pyrophosphate crystals (positive birefringence, rhomboid, yellow)
High WCC’s
No bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When should nucleic acid amplication testing(NAAT)/PCR be considered on synovial fluid?

A

When there is a history suggestive of reactive arthritis ie recent diarrhoeal illness, recent STI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the 3 most common causes of drug induced SLE

A

Isoniazid
Procainamide
Hydralazine (most common and highest rate of 5%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How is haemarthrosis generally managed?

A
  • Aspirate for both analysis and symptom relief (if tense effusion)
  • RICE
  • Simple analgesia +/- opioids
  • If using NSAID’s use “coxibs” as they are selective for COX-2 and thus dont inhibit platelet function and worsen bleeding
  • Consider reversing coagulation
  • Consider joint lavage in patients with recurrent bleeds from a coagulopathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the causes of haemarthrosis?

A
  • Trauma
  • Post operative
  • Anticoagulation
  • Bleeding disorder (ie haemophilia)
  • Charcots joint (neuropathy)
  • secondary to septic arthritis
  • Tumours
  • AVM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the differentials for Oligoarthritis?

A
  • Rheumatic fever
  • Oligoseptic arthritis (15%)
  • Reiters (reactive arthritis)
  • Gonococcal arhritis
  • Viral poly(aseptic)arhritis
  • Autoimmune disorders (ie RA)
  • Syphilis
  • Melioidosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the clinical features and confirmatory test for Behcets disease?

A
  • Oral ulceration
  • Asymmetric polyarthritis
  • Anterior uveitis
  • Pathergy test
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the treatments for Raynauds Phenomenon?

A

Acute
- Rewarming in warm water
- nifedipine 10mg IR TDS
- If severe heparin infusions, nerve blocks, prostaglandin infusions

Prophylaxis
- Diltiazem, nifedipine, prazosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the two best tests for Rheumatoid arthritis?

A

RF and Anti-CCP
- When combined specificity reaches 100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the difference between ertyhema multiforme major and minor?

A

Major has mucous membrane involvement but minor doesnt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How is Peroneal nerve injury differentiated from LF radiculopathy?

A

pEronEal Nerve
- Weakness on foot “E”version

L5 Radiculopathy
- Weakness on foot Inversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the typical cause of Reiters Syndrome?

A

Reactive Arthritis
- Oligoarthritis, back pain (spondyloarthritis), dactylitis (sausage digitis) and enthesitis
- Most commonly affected joint is the knee
- Caused by enteric bacteria (ie salmonella) and Chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly