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Rheumatology > Rheum > Flashcards

Rheum Flashcards

1
Q

What movements are affected in adhesive capsulitis?

A

External rotation mostly
Internal rotation
Abduction

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2
Q

What renal signs are associated with ANCA vasculitis?

A

Immune complex glomerulonephritis
Raised creatinine
Haematuria
Proteinuria

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3
Q

ANCA vasculitis CXR findings

A

Nodular/fibrotic/infiltrative lesions

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4
Q

cANCA target and conditions

A

Serine proteinase 3 SP3
Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (wegners)

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5
Q

pANCA target and conditions

A

Myeloperoxidase MPO
Eosinophilic granulomatous with polyangiitis (churg Strauss)
Ulcerative colitis
PSC
Anti GBM
Crohn’s

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6
Q

Can you use ANCA levels for monitoring?

A

cANCA has some correlation with disease activity
pANCA can’t be used to monitor disease

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7
Q

Ank spond features other than back signs

A

Atypical fibrosis
Anterior uveitis
Aortic regurgitation
Achilles tendonitis
AV node block
Amyloidosis
Cauda equina, peripheral arthritis

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8
Q

When are DMARDs indicated in ank spond?

A

Peripheral joint involvement

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9
Q

APTT in antiphospholipid syndrome

A

Paradoxically rises
Due to lupus anticoagulant antibodies reacting with phospholipids in coag cascade

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10
Q

What is associated with antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

SLE
Other autoimmune conditions
Lymphoproliferative disorders
Phenothiazines

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11
Q

Investigating antiphospholipid syndrome

A

Anticardiolipin antibodies
Anti beta 2 glycoprotein I antibodies
Lupus anticoagulant
Thrombocytopenia
Prolonged APTT

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12
Q

Secondary thromboembolism prophylaxis

A

VTE:
Lifelong warfarin INR 2-3
INR 3-4 if recurrent VTE
Add aspirin if VTE occurred while on warfarin

Arterial:
Lifelong warfarin INR 2-3

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13
Q

Causes of avascular necrosis and how to investigate?

A

Long term steroids
Chemo
Alcohol XS
Trauma

MRI

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14
Q

How to test for azathioprine toxicity?

A

TMPT test

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15
Q

How does azathioprine work?

A

Metabolised to mercaptopurine
Inhibits purine synthesis

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16
Q

Oral ulcers
Genital ulcers
Anterior uveitis
HLA B51

A

Behcets

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17
Q

How to diagnose behcets?

A

Clinical findings
Pathergy test: needle prick puncture develops small pustule

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18
Q

How do bisphosphonates work?

A

Pyrophosphate analogue
Inhibits osteoclasts
Decreases demineralisation in bone

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19
Q

Bisphosphonates side effects

A

Oesophagitis, oesophageal ulcers
Osteonecrosis of jaw
Atypical stress fractures
Acute phase response (fever, arthralgia, myalgia)
Hypocalcemia

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20
Q

Bisphosphonates duration of treatment

A

Stop at 5y if
> 75y
Femoral neck T score > - 2.5
Low FRAX/NOGG score

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21
Q

Osteoporosis blood results

A

Calcium, phosphate, ALP, PTH normal

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22
Q

Osteomalacia blood results

A

Decreased calcium and phosphate
Increased ALP and PTH

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23
Q

Primary hyperparathyroidism, osteitis fibrosis cystica blood results

A

Calcium increased
Phosphate decreased
Increased ALP, PTH

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24
Q

CKD, secondary hyperparathyroidism blood results

A

Calcium decreased
Phosphate increased
ALP increased
PTH increased

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25
Q

Paget’s disease blood results

A

Calcium, phosphate, PTH normal
ALP increased

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26
Q

Osteoma is associated with what condition

A

Gardner’s (FAP)

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27
Q

What is the commonest benign bone tumour?

A

Osteochondroma

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28
Q

Giant cell bone tumour

A

Benign
Multinucleated giant cells in fibrous stroma
20-40y
Epiphyses of long bones

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29
Q

XR findings of soap/double bubble

A

Giant cell bone tumour

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30
Q

Locations of osteosarcomas

A

Mataphyses of long bones before closure
Femur, tibia, humerus

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31
Q

XR sign of codman triangle and sunburst pattern

A

Osteosarcoma

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32
Q

Mutation associated with osteosarcoma

A

Rb gene

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33
Q

Osteosarcoma predisposing factors

A

Rb gene mutations
Paget’s disease
Radiotherapy

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34
Q

Small round blue cell tumour

A

Ewing’s sarcoma

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35
Q

Malignant bone tumour occuring in pelvis and long bones causing severe pain

A

Ewing’s sarcoma

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36
Q

Ewing’s sarcoma genetice

A

T(11:22) translocation
EWS FLI1

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37
Q

Onion skin on XR

A

Ewing’s sarcoma

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38
Q

Chondrosarcoma affects what areas

A

Axial skeleton

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39
Q

Physiology of carpal tunnel

A

Prolongation of action potential for motor and sensory

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40
Q

How does denosumab work?

A

Monoclonal antibody
Prevents development of osteoclasts
Inhibits RANKL

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41
Q

Denosumab uses

A

60mg injection every 6/12 for osteoporosis
120mg every 4/52 to prevent pathological fractures in PT with bone mets from solid tumours

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42
Q

Denosumab side effects

A

SOB
Diarrhoea
Hypocalcemia
URTI
Atypical femoral fractures

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43
Q

Dermatomyositis non skin features

A

Prox muscle weakness/tenderness
Raynaud’s
Resp muscle weakness
Interstitial lung disease
Dysphagia
Dysphonia

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44
Q

Investigating dermatomyositis

A

ANA 80%
tRNA synthetase antibodies (anti jo-1, anti SRP, anti Mi2)
Elevated CK
EMG
Muscle biopsy

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45
Q

What antibodies are specific to dermatomyositis?

A

Anti Mi 2

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46
Q

Anti Jo

A

Mostly polymyositis
Also dermatomyositis with lung involvement, rynauds, fever

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47
Q

Features of drug induced lupus

A

Arthralgia, myalgia
Macular rash
Pleurisy
ANA
dsDNA negative
Anti histone antibodies

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48
Q

Causes of drug induced luoue

A

Procainamide
Hydralazine
Isoniazid
Minocycline
Phenytoin

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49
Q

Ehlers danlos features

A

Elastic fragile skin
Hypermobility and dislocation
Bruising
Aortic regurgitation
Mitral prolapse
Aortic dissection
SAH
Angioid retinal streaks

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50
Q

What nerves may be involved in medical epicondylitis?

A

Ulnar

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51
Q

Radial tunnel syndrome presentation

A

Similar to lateral epicondylitis
Pain 4-5 cm distal to lateral epicondyle
Symptoms worsened by extending elbow and pronating

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52
Q

What are extractable nuclear antigens associated with?

A

ANA positive

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53
Q

Anti Ro associations

A

Sjogrens
SLE
Congenital heart block

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54
Q

Anti La associations

A

Sjogrens syndrome

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55
Q

Anti Jo 1 associations

A

Polymyositis

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56
Q

Anti Scl associations

A

Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis

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57
Q

Anti centromere associations

A

Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis

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58
Q

Familial Mediterranean fever inheritance

A

Autosomal recessive

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59
Q

Familial Mediterranean fever features

A

Pyrexia
Abdo pain (peritonitis)
Pleurisy
Pericarditis
Arthritis
Erysipeloid rash lower limbs
Attacks 1-3 days

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60
Q

Managing familial Mediterranean fever

A

Colchicine

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61
Q

What counts as uricaemia?

A

> 0.45 mmol/L

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62
Q

Drugs causing gout

A

Thiazides, furosemide
Ciclosporin
Alcohol
Cytotoxics
Pyrazinamide
Aspirin

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63
Q

Gout- when should you check uric acid levels?

A

Once acute episode has settled (2/52)

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64
Q

How does colchicine work?

A

Binds to tubulin and interferes with mitosis
Inhibits microtubule polymerization
So inhibits neutrophil activity and motility

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65
Q

Colchicine and renal impairment

A

Reduce dose if eGFR 10-50
Avoid if eGFR < 10

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66
Q

What can you give for gout if NSAIDs and colchicine are contraindicated?

A

15mg prednisolone OD
Intra articular steroid injection

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67
Q

Urate lowering therapy is especially recommended for who?

A

2 or more gout attacks in 1y
Tophi
Renal disease
Uric acid renal stones

On cytotoxics or diuretics (prophylaxis)

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68
Q

Uric acid level targets

A

< 0.36 mmol/l
< 0.3 if tophi/chronic gouty arthritis or flares ongoing despite urate <0.36

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69
Q

Urate lowering therapy

A

Colchicine first line
Febuxostat second line
Uricase
Pegloticase infusion

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70
Q

How does febuxostat work?

A

Xanthine oxidase inhibitor
Reduces urate levels

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71
Q

Gout predisposing factors

A

Decreased urate excretion (diuretics, CKD, lead)
Increased urate production (myelo or lymphoproliferative, cytotoxics, psoriasis)
Lesch Nyhan

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72
Q

Lesh Nyhan syndrome

A

HGPRTase deficiency
X linked recessive
Results in gout, renal failure, neuro deficits, LDS, self mutilation

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73
Q

Transient synovitis of hip

A

2-10y
Associated with viral infection

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74
Q

Perthes

A

Avascular necrosis of femoral head
4-8y
Progressive pain
Limo

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75
Q

Hip XR: Widened joint space, decreased femoral head size/flattened femoral head

A

Perthes

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76
Q

SUFE

A

10-15y
Obese
Femoral head epiphysis displaces posterio inferiorly
No internal rotation of leg in flexion

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77
Q

Hydroxychloroquine side effects

A

Bulls eye retinopathy

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78
Q

Secondary causes of iliopsoas abscess

A

Crohn’s
Diverticulitis, colorectal cancer
UTI
GU cancer
Vertebral osteomyelitis
Femoral catheter, lithotripsy
Endocarditis
IVDU

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79
Q

Diagnosing iliopsoas abscess

A

Supine, flex knee, externally rotate hip
Ask PT to lift ipsilateral thigh
CT abdo

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80
Q

Osteochondritis dissecans

A

Pain after exercise
Intermittent swelling and locking

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81
Q

Patellar subluxation

A

Medial knee pain
Lateral subluxation

82
Q

Langerhans cell histiocytosis features

A

Bone pain (skull, femur)
Cutaneous nodules
Recurrent otitis media/mastoiditis

83
Q

Tennis racket birbeck granules on electromicroscopy

A

Langerhans cell histiocytosis

84
Q

Geographic skull on XR

A

Punched out scalloped edged lesions
Bevelled edge
Parietal regions
Sign of Langerhans histiocytosis

85
Q

Leflunomide and pregnancy

A

Must use contraception during leflunomide treatment and 2y after (women) or 3months (men)

86
Q

Leflunomide side effects

A

Diarrhoea
HTN
Weight loss, anorexia
Peripheral neuropathy
Myelosuppression
Pneumonitis

87
Q

Leflunomide monitoring

A

FBC
LFT
blood pressure

88
Q

Leflunomide contraindications

A

Pregnancy
Caution in liver and lung disease

89
Q

Facet joint pain features

A

Worse in morning and on standing
Worse on extension
May be tenderness over facets

90
Q

L3 compression

A

Anterior thigh sensory loss
Weak hip flexion, knee extension, hip adduction
Reduced knee reflex
Pos femoral stretch test

91
Q

L4 compression

A

Sensory loss anterior knee, medial malleolus
Weak knee extension, hip adduction
Reduced knee reflex
Positive femoral stretch test

92
Q

L5 compression

A

Sensory loss dorsum of foot
Weak foot and big toe dorsiflexion
Reflexes intact
Positive sciatic stretch test

93
Q

S1 compression

A

Sensory loss posteriolateral leg and lateral foot
Weak plantar flexion
Reduced ankle reflex
Positive sciatic stretch tesr

94
Q

Spinal stenosis pathology

A

Intervertebral disc loss of proteoglycan and water content
Increased stress transfer to posterior facet joints
Cartilaginous degeneration, hypertrophy, osteophyte formation
Ligamentum flavum thickening and distortion
Canal narrows

95
Q

Marfan genetics

A

Autosomal dominant
FBN1 defect
Chromosome 15
Codes for fibrillin 1

96
Q

Marfan cardiac associations

A

Aortic sinus dilatation
Aortic aneurysm/dissection/regurgitation
Mitral valve prolapse

97
Q

Marfan eye features

A

Upward lens dislocation
Blue sclera
Myopia

98
Q

McArdle genetics

A

Autosomal recessive

99
Q

McArdle disease

A

Type V glycogen storage disease
Myophosphorylase deficiency
Decreased muscle glycogenolysis

Muscle pain/stiffness after exercise, cramps, myoglobinuria, low lactate after exercise

100
Q

Where does lateral femoral cutaneous nerve come from?

A

L2/3

101
Q

Where is lateral femoral cutaneous nerve prone to compression?

A

ASIS and it curves medially and inferiorly

102
Q

How does MTX work?

A

Antimetabolite inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

103
Q

MTX indications

A

Inflammatory arthritis
Psoriasis
ALL

104
Q

MTX side effects

A

Mucositis
Myelosuppression
Pneumonitis
Pulmonary fibrosis
Liver fibrosis

105
Q

MTX monitorint

A

FBC, U&E, LFT before starting, then weekly, then 2-3 monthly

106
Q

MTX interactions

A

Trimethoprim and cotrimoxazole- marrow aplasia
High dose aspirin- MTX toxicity

107
Q

Mixed connective tissue disease antibodies

A

Anti U1 ribonucleoprotein antibodies

108
Q

Investigating mixed CTD

A

Exclude other CTD/vasculitis
FBC- anaemia, leucopenia, thrombocytopenia
U&e- renal impairment
Raised CRP, ESR
ANA positive
Anti ds DNA and antiscl70 negative

109
Q

Managing mixed CTD

A

Immunosuppression/DMARD
CCB for Raynaud’s
PPI for reflux
Endothelin antagonist/prostacyclin analogue for pHTN

110
Q

CTD prognosis

A

1/3 remission
1/3 chronic symptoms
1/3 severe systemic involvement and premature death

111
Q

How does mycophenolate mofetil work?

A

Inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase
Inhibits purine synthesis
Reduces proliferation it T and B cells

112
Q

Causes of myopathies

A

Polymyositis
Duchenne, becker, myotonic dystrophy
Cushings
Thyrotoxicosis
Alcohol

113
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta genetics and pathology

A

Autosomal dominant
Decreased synthesis of pro alpha 1 or 2 collagen peptides
–> Type 1 collagen abnormality

114
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta features

A

Fractures after minor trauma
Blue sclera
Osteosclerosis
Dental imperfections
Normal ca, po4, PTH, ALP

115
Q

Causes of osteomalacia

A

Vit D deficiency (diet/malabsorption/sunlight)
CKD
Anticonvulsants
Hypophosphatemic tickets (inherited)
Liver disease
Coeliac

116
Q

Osteomalacia investigations

A

Low vit d
Low Ca, po4
Raised ALP
XR: translucent bands

117
Q

Risk factors for haematogenous osteomyelitis

A

Sickle cell
IVDU
Immunosuppression
Infective endocarditis

118
Q

Osteomyelitis most common organisms

A

Staph aureus
Salmonella most common in sickle cell

119
Q

What conditions predispose to osteoporosis?

A

Hyperthyroidism, hyperparathyroidism
Hypogonadism
GH deficiency
DM
Multiple myeloma, lymphoma
IBD, malabsorption, gastrectomy, liver disease
CKD
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Homocysteinuria

120
Q

Meds that may worsen osteoporosis

A

Glucocorticoids
SSRIs
Anti epileptics
PPI
glitazones
Heparin
Aromatase inhibitors

121
Q

T score

A

Based on young person bone mass
> - 1.0 normal
-1.0 - 2.5 osteopenia
< - 2.5 osteoporosis

122
Q

Z score

A

T score but adjusted for age, gender, ethnicity

123
Q

How much prednisolone do you need to take to significantly increase osteoporosis risk?

A

7.5mg OD for 3 months

124
Q

How to manage patients at risk of corticosteroid osteoporosis?

A

Offer bone protection immediately if > 65y or previous fragility #

DEXA if < 65y and no fragility #
Reassure if t > 0
Repeat DEXA if -1.5 < t < 0
Bone protection if t < -1.5

125
Q

Management of osteoporosis

A

Alendronate 1st line
Second line alternative bisphosphonates
3rd line strontium ranelate or raloxifene

126
Q

How does raloxifene work?

A

Selective oestrogen receptor modulator
Reduces risk of vertebral fractures

127
Q

Raloxifene adverse effects

A

May worsen menopausal symptoms
Increased risk VTE

128
Q

How does strontium ranelate work?

A

Increases differentiation from pre-osteoblasts to osteoblasts
Inhibits osteoclasts

129
Q

Strontium ranelate adverse effects

A

Cardiovascular events
VTE
Skin reactions eg sjs

130
Q

How does Teriparatide work?

A

Recombinant PTH
Increases bone density

131
Q

How does Paget’s disease present?

A

95% are asymptomatic
Bone pain (pelvis, lumbar, femur)
Bowing of tibia, bossing of skull

132
Q

Paget’s disease blood results

A

ALP raised
Normal calcium and po4

133
Q

Markers of bone turnover

A

PINP- pro collagen type 1 n terminal propeptide
CTx- serum c telopeptide
NTx- urinary N telopeptide
Urinary hydroxyproline

134
Q

Complications of pagets

A

Osteosarcoma
Fractures
Deafness
Skull thickening
High output cardiac failure

135
Q

What condition is polyarteritis nodosum associated with?

A

Hep B

136
Q

Features of polyarteritis nodosa?

A

Fever, malaise, arthralgia
Weight loss
HTN
Mononeuritis multiplex
Sensorimotor polyneuropathy
Testicular pain
Livedo reticularis
Haematuria, renal failure
20% ANCA

137
Q

Polymyalgia rheumatica investigations

A

ESR > 40
EMG and CK normal

138
Q

Polymyositis is mediated by what type of cells?

A

T cells

139
Q

Polymyositis is associated with what condition?

A

Malignancy

140
Q

Polymyositis features

A

Proximal weakness and tenderness
Raynaud’s
Resp muscle weakness
ILD
Dysphagia, dysphonia

141
Q

Polymyositis investigations

A

raised CK, LSH, AST, ALT
EMG
muscle biopsy
Anti Jo seen with lung involvement, Raynaud’s, fever

142
Q

Management of polymyositis

A

Corticosteroids
Azathioprine as steroid sparing agent

143
Q

Pseudogout risk factors

A

> 60y
Haemochromatosis
Hyperparathyroidism
Low mg, po4
Acromegaly
Wilsons

144
Q

Pseudogout XR

A

Chondrocalcinosis

145
Q

Pseudoxanthoma elasticum genetics

A

Usually autosomal recessive

146
Q

Features of pseudoxanthoma elasticum

A

Retinal angioid streaks
Plucked chicken skin appearance
Mitral prolapse
Increased risk IHD
GI haemorrhage

147
Q

Patterns of psoriatic arthritis

A

Symmetric polyarthritis
Asymmetrical oligoarthritis
Sacroiliitis
DIP joint disease
Arthritis mutilans

148
Q

Psoriatic arthritis treatment

A

NSAIDS for mild disease
MTX
ustrkinumab, secukinumab
Apremilast PDE4 inhibitor

149
Q

Secondary causes of Raynaud’s phenomenon

A

Scleroderma, RA, SLE
Leukaemia
Type 1 cryoglobulinemia
Cold agglutinins
Vibrating tools
OCP, ergot
Cervical rib

150
Q

Raynaud’s treatment

A

Refer if suspecting secondary Raynaud’s
Nifedipine
IV prostacyclin espoprostenol

151
Q

Organisms that cause reactive arthritis

A

Shigella flexneri
Salmonella typhi/enteridis
Yersinia enterocolitia
Campylobacter
Chlamydia trachomatis

152
Q

Features of relapsing polychondritis

A

Auricular chondritis, hearing loss, vertigo
Nasal chondritis, saddle nose
Resp tract, hoarse voice, aphonia, wheeze, inspiratory stridor
Episcleritis, scleritis, iritis, keratoconjunctivitis sicca
Arthralgia
Vascular regurgitation, CN palsies, peripheral neuropathies, renal dysfunction

153
Q

Relapsing polychondritis treatment

A

Steroids to induce remission
Azathioprine
MTX
Cyclosporine
Cyclophosphamide

154
Q

Felty syndrome

A

Rheumatoid arthritis+ splenomegaly + low WCC

155
Q

Sulfasalazine side effects

A

Rashes
Oligospermia
Heinz body anaemia
Interstitial lung disease

156
Q

Hydroxychloroquine side effects

A

Retinopathy
Corneal deposits

157
Q

What drug can cause cataracts?

A

Prednisolone

158
Q

Gold side effects

A

Proteinuria

159
Q

Penicillamine side effects

A

Proteinuria
Exacerbation of myasthenia gravis

160
Q

Etanercerpt side effects

A

Demyelination
TB reactication

161
Q

What drugs can cause reactivation of TB?

A

Etanercerpt
Infliximab
Adalimumab

162
Q

Rituximab side effects

A

Infusion reactions

163
Q

How does rheumatoid factor act?

A

Usually IgM
Reacts with Fc portion of IgG

164
Q

How can RF be detected?

A

Rose Waaler test (sheep red cell agglutination)
Latex agglutination (less specific)

165
Q

Conditions associated with positive RF

A

RA
Feltys
Sjogrens
Infective endocarditis
SLE
systemic sclerosis

166
Q

RA initial management

A

DMARD and bridging prednisolone

167
Q

When do you give a TNF inhibitor for RA?

A

Insufficient response to 2 DMARDs including MTX

168
Q

How does entacerpt work?

A

Recombinant human protein
Acts as decoy receptor for TNFalpha

169
Q

How does infliximab work?

A

Monoclonal antibody
Binds to TNF alpha
Prevents it from binding with TNF receptors

170
Q

What route of administration is entacerpt given?

A

SC

171
Q

What route of administration is infliximab given?

A

IV

172
Q

What route of administration is adalimumab given?

A

SC

173
Q

How does rituximab work and how is it given?

A

CD 20 monoclonal ab
B cell depletion
Two 1g IV infusions 2 weeks apart

174
Q

How does abtacept work?

A

Modulates signal required for T cell activation
Decreased T cell proliferation and cytokine production

175
Q

What RA drugs are safe in pregnancy?

A

Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Low dose steroids
NSAIDS up to 32weeks

176
Q

What rotator cuff muscle adducts arm?

A

Teres minor and subscapularis

177
Q

What rotator cuff muscle rotates arm laterally?

A

Infraspinatus
Teres minor

178
Q

What rotator cuff rotates arm medially?

A

Subscapularis

179
Q

Sjogrens is associated with an increased risk of what?

A

Lymphoid malignancy

180
Q

Investigating sjogrens

A

RF 50%
ANA 70%
Anti Ro 70%
Anti La 30%
Schirmers test (tears)
Histo (lymphocytic infiltration)
Hypergammaglobulinaemia
Low C4

181
Q

Features of stills disease

A

Arthralgia
High ferritin
Salmon pink maculopapular rash
Pyrexia (afternoon/evening)
Lymphadenopathy

182
Q

Stills disease RF and ANA

A

Negative

183
Q

When is sulfasalazine contraindicated?

A

G6PD deficiency
Aspirin/sulfonamide allergy

184
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is involved in SLE?

A

Type 3

185
Q

SLE is associated with what markers?

A

HLA B8
HLA DR2
HLA DR3
ANA positive
Anti dsDSNA
Anti Smith
Anti U1, Ro, La

186
Q

Complement levels in SLE active disease

A

C3, C4 low

187
Q

Neonatal SLE complications

A

Congenital heart block

188
Q

Anti centromere antibodies

A

Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis

189
Q

CREST syndrome

A

Calcinosis
Raynaud’s
oEsophageal dysmotility
Sclerodactyly
Telangiectasia

190
Q

Anti Scl 70

A

Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis

191
Q

What does tumour necrosis factor do?

A

Activates macrophages and neutrophils
Acts as costimulator for t cell activation
Mediates response to gram negative septicaemia
Anti tumour effect
Phospholipase activation

192
Q

TNF binds to what?

A

P55 and p75 receptors to induce apoptosis

193
Q

Systemic effects of TNF

A

Pyrexia
Increased acute phase proteins
Disordered metabolism, cachexia

194
Q

Examples of TNF inhibitors

A

Infliximab
Etanercerpt
Adalimumab
Golimumab

195
Q

How does rheumatoid factor work?

A

IgM against Fc of IgG

196
Q

What antibody does pANCA target?

A

MPO

197
Q

Drug induced lupus antibodies

A

ANA positive
dsDNA negative

Antihistone usually positive

198
Q

SLE antibodies associated with congenital heart block

A

Anti Ro

199
Q

Types of collagen and disorders

A

1: osteogenesis imperfecta
2: achondroplasia
3: ehlers danlos
4: alports, antiGBM
5: ehlers danlos

200
Q

Dermatomyositis antibodies

A

80% are ANA positive
Anti mi2

Rheumatology (2 decks)

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