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Year 3 Exams: Renal > Revision Questions 2 > Flashcards

Revision Questions 2 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What is the commonest mode of presentation for prostate cancer?
    a. Frank haematuria
    b. Asymptomatic (i.e. incidentally noted)
    c. Acute urinary retention
    d. Symptoms of benign prostatic enlargement and obstruction
    e. Bone pain
A

b. Asymptomatic (i.e. incidentally noted)

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2
Q
  1. The following are reasonable treatment options for low-risk localised prostate cancer except:
    a. External beam radiotherapy
    b. Active surveillance
    c. Brachytherapy
    d. Radical prostatectomy
    e. Radical chemotherapy
A

e. Radical chemotherapy

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3
Q

The following statements about screening for prostate cancer are true except:

a. PSA is the best available screening test
b. Compared with ad-hoc opportunistic PSA testing, screening for prostate cancer is beneficial because it saves lives
c. If screening is advocated, it should be performed for men at risk of prostate cancer rather than the entire male population
d. Screening for prostate cancer is not currently advocated
e. For suspicious cases detected by screening, there is a need to undergo a definitive test to confirm or exclude presence of prostate cancer
A

b. Compared with ad-hoc opportunistic PSA testing, screening for prostate cancer is beneficial because it saves lives

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4
Q

An A&E doctor sees a man with right loin/ groin pain and suspects a Urinary tract stone.
What is the most sensitive imaging modality to detect a stone in the kidney or ureter?

 A. Abdominal X-ray
 B. Plain KUB X-ray 
C. Ultrasound of the Renal Tract/Abdomen/Pelvis 
D. CT KUB 
E.  MAG3 Renography
A

D. CT KUB

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5
Q

What is the risk of renal cancer in a patient who presents with frank haematuria?

a. 0-0.5%
b. 0.5-1.0%
c. 5-10%
d. 10-20%
e. 20-25%

A

b. 0.5-1.0%

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6
Q

For testicular cancer, the main lymphatic spread to regional lymph nodes occurs in which group of lymph nodes?

a. Scrotal lymph nodes
b. Inguinal lymph nodes
c. Pelvic lymph nodes (i.e. internal iliac chain)
d. Mediastinal lymph nodes
e. Para-aortic lymph nodes

A

e. Para-aortic lymph nodes

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7
Q

What is the best imaging modality to diagnoses renal tract stones

a) Plain films
b) US
c) CT
d) MR
e) Pyelography

A

CT

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8
Q

What imaging modality of choice in staging of renal tumours

a) US
b) CT
c) MR
d) PET-CT

A

US

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9
Q

What is the ‘gold standard’ investigation for renal colic?

a. Renal ultrasound scan
b. MRI of renal tract 
c. IVU
    d. CT-KUB
e. Plain KUB X-ray
A

d. CT-KUB

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10
Q

The following are common types of renal tract stones except:

a. Calcium phosphate
b. Calcium oxalate
c. Calcium bicarbonate
d. Uric acid (urate)
e. Magnesium ammonium phosphate (struvite)

A

b. Calcium oxalate

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11
Q

First line treatment for 50 year old man with moderate lower urinary tract symptoms, slightly enlarged prostate (25cc) and poor urinary flow?

A

Alpha blockers

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12
Q

Treatment for 64 year old man with 2nd episode of acute urinary retention. He is already on an alpha blocker?

A

TURP

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13
Q

35 year old lady with temperature 40°C and Right loin and flank pain. CT-KUB has shown a 10mm stone at upper Right ureter causing severe hydronephrosis. Most appropriate treatment option?

A

Nephrostomy

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14
Q

Average Size of Prostate in Men Age 25-30?

A

40cc

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15
Q

What is the definition of proteinuria?

a. Presence of protein in urine
b. Presence of albumin in urine
c. Urinary protein excretion >1mg/day
d. Urinary protein excretion >150mg/day
e. Urinary protein excretion >15g/day

A

d. Urinary protein excretion >150mg/day

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16
Q

In clinical practice, how many types of haematuria are there?

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
e. Five

A

c. Three

17
Q

The definition of microscopic haematuria is:

a. ≥1 red blood cells per high power field
b. ≥2 red blood cells per high power field
c. ≥3 red blood cells per high power field
d. ≥4 red blood cells per high power field
e. ≥5 red blood cells per high power field

A

c. ≥3 red blood cells per high power field

18
Q

What is the risk of bladder cancer in a patient who presents with visible haematuria?

a. 10-15%
b. 15-20%
c. 20-25%
d. 25-30%
e. 30-35%

A

d. 25-30%

19
Q 
The following blood gas values were seen in a patient. Which simple Acid/Base Disturbance has he got?
pH = 7.32, [HCO-3]= 15 mM, PCO2  = 30mmHg (4kPa)
• Metabolic Acidosis
• Metabolic Alkalosis
• Respiratory Acidosis (acute)
• Respiratory Acidosis (chronic)
• Respiratory Alkalosis (acute)
- Respiratory Alkalosis (chronic)
A

• Metabolic Acidosis

20
Q 
The following blood gas values were seen in a patient. Which simple Acid/Base Disturbance has he got?
pH = 7.32, [HCO-3]= 33 mM, PCO2  = 60mmHg (8kPa)
• Metabolic Acidosis
• Metabolic Alkalosis
• Respiratory Acidosis (acute)
• Respiratory Acidosis (chronic)
• Respiratory Alkalosis (acute)
• Respiratory Alkalosis (chronic)
A

• Respiratory Acidosis (acute)

21
Q 
The following blood gas values were seen in a patient. Which simple Acid/Base Disturbance has he got?
pH = 7.45, [HCO-3] = 42 mM, PCO2  = 50mmHg (6.7kPa)
• Metabolic Acidosis
• Metabolic Alkalosis
• Respiratory Acidosis (acute)
• Respiratory Acidosis (chronic)
• Respiratory Alkalosis (acute)
Respiratory Alkalosis (chronic)
A

• Metabolic Alkalosis

22
Q 
The following blood gas values were seen in a patient. Which simple Acid/Base Disturbance has he got?
pH = 7.45, [HCO-3]= 21 mM, PCO2  = 30mmHg (4kPa)
1. Metabolic Acidosis
2. Metabolic Alkalosis
3. Respiratory Acidosis (acute)
4. Respiratory Acidosis (chronic)
5. Respiratory Alkalosis (acute)
- Respiratory Alkalosis (chronic)
A
  1. Respiratory Alkalosis (acute)
23
Q

A 75 year old man has the following blood gas values:
pH = 7.31, PCO2 = 7.7.kPa, (58mmHg), [HCO3-] =36mmoles/l.
• 1. It is likely that he has renal disease.
• 2. He may have an acute respiratory infection.
• 3. It is possible that he may have chronic bronchitis.
• 4. There will be a decrease in his excretion of ammonium ions.
• 5. His plasma potassium will be reduced.

A

• 3. It is possible that he may have chronic bronchitis.

24
Q

The following acid/base values were obtained:
pH = 7.25, [HCO3-] = 12mmoles/l, PCO2 = 3.3kPa (25mmHg)
• They are indicative of a respiratory acidosis
• The reduction in Pco2 is a result of under-breathing
• The subject has probably been taking bicarbonate of soda
• It could be related to impaired renal function
- The subject may have been vomiting very badly

A

• It could be related to impaired renal function

25
Q

What is the definition of proteinuria?

a. Presence of protein in urine
b. Presence of albumin in urine
c. Urinary protein excretion >1mg/day
d. Urinary protein excretion >150mg/day
e. Urinary protein excretion >15g/day

A

d. Urinary protein excretion >150mg/day

26
Q

In clinical practice, how many types of haematuria are there?

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
e. Five

A

c. Three

27
Q

The definition of microscopic haematuria is:

a. ≥1 red blood cells per high power field
b. ≥2 red blood cells per high power field
c. ≥3 red blood cells per high power field
d. ≥4 red blood cells per high power field
e. ≥5 red blood cells per high power field

A

c. ≥3 red blood cells per high power field

28
Q
  1. The following are absolute indications for surgical intervention in patients with benign prostatic obstruction except:
    a. refractory acute urinary retention
    b. refractory chronic urinary retention
    c. renal failure
    d. recurrent UTI
    e. bladder stones
A

b. refractory chronic urinary retention

29
Q
  1. The following are causes of acute urinary retention in men except:
    a. spinal cord compression
    b. urinary tract infection
    c. constipation
    d. pain from laparotomy wound
    e. cystoscopy under local anaesthetic
A

e. cystoscopy under local anaesthetic

30
Q

Short-term urethral catheters (e.g. latex-based ones) should not be left in-situ for longer than:

a. 1 week
b. 4 weeks
c. 8 weeks
d. 12 weeks
e. 16 weeks

A

b. 4 weeks

31
Q

Long-term urethral catheters (e.g. silicone-based ones) should not be left in-situ for longer than:

a. 1 week
b. 4 weeks
c. 8 weeks
d. 12 weeks
e. 16 weeks

A

d. 12 weeks

Year 3 Exams: Renal (2 decks)

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