Revision Checklist Topics Flashcards

1
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis - what antibodies are associated with this condition? What other blood tests may be raised?

What genetic mutations are associated with this condition?

A

Anti-Rheumatoid Factor and Anti-CCP antibodies. CRP, ESR and pV may also be raised. (NOTE - patients may still have RA and not have anti-CCP antibodies)

HLA-DR1 and HLA-DR4

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2
Q

Name some Rheumatoid deformities of the hands

A

Ulnar drift

Knuckle and wrist subluxation

Swan-necking

Boutonniere’s

Z-thumbing

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3
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis - what joints are typically affected and what time of day do they seem to be worst? How does activity affect these joints?

A

Hands - not DIPs

Feet

Sacral spine

C1/C2 - causing atlanto-axial subluxation

Less commonly, the shoulder and hip

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4
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis - other than pathology in the joints, where else might RA present?

A

Skin - rheumatoid nodules are commonly seen in areas of bony prominence e.g. eblows, heels, knuckles. Also may rarely see pyoderma gangrenosum, erythema nodosum, palmar erythema and atrophy of finger skin

Lungs - pulmonary fibrosis and pleural effusions

Heart and blood vessels - atherosclerosis, various forms of vasculitis, pericarditis, endocarditis, left ventricular failure etc.

Blood - anaemia

Kidneys

Eyes - episcleritis, scleritis

Liver - PBC, autoimmune hepatitis

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5
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis - investigations

A

Imaging

  • Xray
  • USS
  • MRI (gold standard but expensive)

Serology (remember, may be negative for antibodies but still have RA!)

  • Anti-rheumatoid factor, anti-CCP antibodies (best marker, co-relates with disease severity)
  • CRP, ESR and pV
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6
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis - what scoring tools exist to grade extent and progression of disease?

A

EULAR Rheumatoid Arthritis Scoring Criteria - grades amount of joint involvement in small and large joints

DAS28 - monitors progression of disease

  • >5.1 = active disease
  • 3.2-5.1 = moderate disease
  • 2.6-3.2 = mild disease
  • <2.6 = remission (target for rheumatologists)
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7
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis - treatment

A

MTD review required to agree treatment plan

DMARDs within 3 months to prevent deformity

  • methotrexate is first line - 15mg/week initially, scale up to 25mg/week
    • also need to give folic acid
    • risk of pneumonitis and teratogenicity
  • sulfasalazine
  • Hydroxychloroquine (HCL) - doesn’t prevent erosions!
  • Leflunomide
  • Gold injections, azathioprine and others

If Methotrexate is insufficient alone, combine with other DMARDs. If no response after MTX and 2 or more other DMARDs, can use steroids as an adjucnt, and then Biologics

  • prior to commencing Biologics, patients must be screened for TB!!!
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8
Q

Osteoarthritis - hallmark signs to look for on Xray

A

L - loss of joint space

O - osteophyte formation

S - subchondral sclerosis

S - subchondral cyst formation

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9
Q

Osteoarthritis - how do the symptoms of OA differ to those of RA?

What OA deformities may be seen on the hands, and how does this compare to the swelling seen in RA?

A

OA is gradual onset, taking months-years to develop

OA pain is mechanical, being worse on activity and at the end of the day, unlike RA which improves on activity.

OA also affects the DIPs

OA also causes morning stiffness (like RA), but this lasts less than an hour

Where swelling in RA is soft and boggy, in OA there is usually no joint swelling and instead hard bony swellings are seen

Deformities seen in OA

  • Bouchard’s nodes - bony lumps seen at the PIPs
  • Heberden’s nodes - bony lumps seen at the DIPs
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10
Q

Osteoarthritis - investigations

A

History and examination to exclude primary inflammatory arthritis

FBC

Xrays (remember, LOSS)

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11
Q

Osteoarthritis - treatment options

A

Non-pharmacological

  • education
  • physiotherapy
  • weight loss
  • appropriate footwear and walking aids

Pharmacological

  • analgesia
    • paracetamol
    • topical analgesics, compound analgesics
  • NSAIDs
  • pain modulators
    • tricyclics (amitriptyline), anti-convulsants (gabapentin)
  • Intra-articular steroids - ONLY for short term relief of symptoms

Surgery

  • arthroscopic joint washouts, soft tissue trimming and loose body removal
  • partial/total joint replacements
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12
Q

Paget’s Disease - most commonly affected areas

A

Pelvis

Femur

Lumbar vertebrae

Skull

(may rarely transform into a malignant bone cancer, however Paget’s itself does not spread from bone to bone)

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13
Q

Paget’s Disease - suspected causes and genetic associations

A

Viral triggers? RSV, Canine Distemper Virus, Measles

Genetic factors? SQSTM1, RANK, specific regions on chromosomes 5 and 6 implicated

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14
Q

Paget’s Disease - signs and symptoms

A

35% of patients are asymptomatic at time of diagnosis

Most common presentation is bone pain. Rarely, there may also be hearing and vision loss due to nerve compression

Associated conditions: osteoarthritis, heart failure (rare), kidney stones, raised ICP

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15
Q

Paget’s disease - what is usually the first clinical manifestation of the disease seen in bloods?

How is diagnosis confirmed?

A

Usually first clinical manifestation is raised Alk Phos, while calcium, phosphate, PTH and aminotransferase are typically normal

Imaging is done to confirm diagnosis - Pagetic bone has a characteristic appearance on Xray, and bone scans may be useful in determing severity and extent of the disease

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16
Q

Paget’s Disease - treatment

A

MTD required

Medication (purpose is to relieve bone pain and prevent progression of disease)

  • Bisphosphonates
    • Alendronic acid
  • Calcitonin

Surgery may be required

Diet and exercise also seem to play a role

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17
Q

PMR - what condition is commonly associated with Polymyalgia Rheumatica?

A

GCA (temporal arteritis) is often seen alongside PMR

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18
Q

PMR - signs and symptoms

A

Wide ranging, typically seen in older patients

Proximal myalgia and stiffness of the hip and shoulder girdles, especially in the morning, lasts for more than an hour and tends to improve as the day goes on

Constant fatigue, weakness and sometimes exhaustion

Lack of appetite, anaemia and a general, non-specifc flu-like illness may be seen

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19
Q

PMR - investigations

A

No specific test to diagnose PMR, need to exclude other conditions

CRP, ESR and pV may be raised

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20
Q

PMR - treatment

A

Patients typically respond very dramatically to low-dose steroids (e.g. prednisolone, 15mg/day), suddenly patients feel much better

This can be used as a diagnostic test!

Gradually reduce pred. dose over 18 months

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21
Q

Systemic sclerosis - what are the two classifications of this disease and what antibody is each associated with?

A

Limited - skin involvement tends to be confined to face, hands, forearms and feet. Organ involvement tends to occur later on

Diffuse Cutaneous- skin changes occur more rapidly and tend to involve the trunk. There is early significant organ involvement

Limited - anti-centromere antibody

Diffuse - anti-Scl-70 antibody, anti-topoisomerase, anti-RNA III polymerase

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22
Q

Diffuse Cutaneous Systemic sclerosis sees much earlier organ involvement than Limited, how might this present?

A

ILD

Renal crisis due to pulmonary hypertension

GI problems - dysphagia, malabsorption and bacterial overgrowth of small bowel

Inflammatory arthritis and myositis

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23
Q

What did Limited Systemic Sclerosis used to be known as?

What is a common complication of Limited SSc?

A

Used to be called CREST - calcinosis, Raynaud’s (seen in 90% of patients), Oesophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, Telangiectasia

Pulmonary hypertension is a common complication

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24
Q

Systemic Sclerosis - treatment

A

No one overall treatment, need to manage the symptoms and complications

Raynaud’s/digital ulcers - CCBs (amlodipine, diltiazem, verapamil), iloprost, bosentan

If renal involvement - ACE inhibitors (-prils)

If GI involvement - PPIs (e.g. omeprazole), H2 receptor antagonists

If ILD - immunosuppression, usually w/ cyclophosphamide.

Need tight control of BP and regular monitoring and screening of organ function

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25
Q

SLE - what is it and who tends to get it more?

A

Systemic autoimmune disease, can affect any part of the body. Immune system attacks the body’s cells and tissues, antibody-immune complexes form and precipitate, causing further immune response

Who gets it?

  • women more than men - 9:1
  • higher prevalence in asians, afro-americans, afro-caribbeans and hispanic-americans
  • uncommon in african blacks
  • genetic factors
    • increased incidence amongst relatives
  • hormonal factors
    • higher incidence in those with increased oestrogen exposure - early menarche, oestrogen-containing contraceptives and HRT
  • environmental
    • viruses e.g. EBV
    • UV light
    • Silica dust (cigarettes, cleaning powders, cement)
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26
Q

What important complication needs to be screened for in people with SLE?

A

Renal disease

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27
Q

SLE has a very varied clinical presentation. What are some of the features that may be seen, and what classification criteria exists to help diagnose SLE?

A

SLICC Classification Criteria for SLE - require 4 or more of the following (at least one clinical and one laboratory)

Clinical

  • acute cutaneous lupus
  • chronic cutaneous lupus
  • oral or nasal ulcers
  • non-scarring alopecia
  • arthritis
  • serositis
  • renal complications
  • neurological complications
  • haemolytic anaemia
  • leukopenia
  • thrombocytopenia

Laboratory

  • ANA
  • Anti-DNA
  • Anti-Sm
  • Antiphospholipid antibody
  • low complement
  • Direct Coombs’ test
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28
Q

SLE - what are some of the general constitutional symptoms that may be experienced?

A

Fever

Malaise

Weight loss and poor appetite

Fatigue

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29
Q

SLE - what are some of the mucocutaneous and musculoskeletal signs associated with SLE?

A

Mucocutaneous

  • Malar rash
  • Alopecia
  • photosensitivity
  • discoid/subcutaneous lupus
  • oral/nasal ulceration
  • Raynaud’s

Musculoskeletal

  • arthralgia
  • myalgia
  • inflammatory arthritis
  • AVN of femoral head (related to steroid use?)
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30
Q

SLE - what are some of the renal, respiratory and cardiac symptoms associated with SLE?

A

Renal

  • Lupus nephritis

Respiratory

  • Pleurisy
  • Pleural effusion
  • Pneumonitis
  • ILD
  • Pulmonary embolism/Pulmonary hypertension

Cardiac

  • Pericarditis
  • Pericardial effusion
  • sterile (non-infective) endocarditis
  • accelerated ischaemic heart disease
31
Q

SLE - investigations

A

Again, no one specific test

FBC may show anaemia, leukopenia and thrombocytopenia

Immunology

  • anti-nuclear antibody (ANA) - positive in 95% of SLE but non-specific
  • anti-dsDNA antibody - specific and varies with disease intensity
  • anti-Sm - specific but low sensitivity
  • C3/C4 levels may be low during active disease

Urinalysis to screen for glomerulonephritis

32
Q

SLE - treatment

A

Dependent on manifestations, but requires MTD

Skin disease and arthralgia - HCL, topical steroids and NSAIDs

If inflammatory arthritis/organ involvement then immunosuppression via azathioprine or mycophenolate mofetil

Steroids may be used at a moderate dose as well, over the short term

Monitor for complications

33
Q

Sjogren’s syndrome - what is it? Who gets it? What antibodies are associated?

A

Chronic autoimmune inflammatory disorder, characterised by diminished lacrimal and salivary gland function

Most commonly seen in women in their 50s and 60s

Associated with Anti-Ro and Anti-La

34
Q

What potentially serious syndrome is associated with autoimmune diseases, in particular SLE?

How does it present clinically?

What immunological testing can be done to detect it? (3 specific markers)

A

Anti-phospholipid syndrome - venous and arterial thrombosis

Presents clinically with livido reticularis, prolonged APTT, thrombocytopenia and recurrent miscarriages

Can be screened for using antiphospholipid antibodies

  • Anti-cardiolipin antibody
  • Lupus anticoagulant
  • Anti-beta 2 glycoprotein
35
Q

Sjogren’s syndrome - how does it present clinically and how can it be diagnosed?

A

Typically causes sicca symptoms (dry mouth, dry eyes, vaginal dryness)

May also cause swelling of the parotid gland. Other symptoms include arthralgia and fatigue

Diagnosis is done via Schirmer’s Test (tests ocular dryness) and antibody testing for Anti-Ro and Anti-La antibodies

36
Q

Sjogren’s syndrome - treatment

A

No specific treatment, management largely revolves around treating symptoms

Lubricating eye drops and saliva replacement products

Regular dental care is important as there is a high risk of dental microbial colonisation

Hydroxychloroquine (HCL, DMARD) can sometimes be useful in treating symptoms of arthralgia and fatigue

37
Q

What is the treatment for anti-phospholipid syndrome?

A

Anticoagulation is the mainstay of treatment for those with an episode of thrombosis

LMWH can be used in patients with recurrent loss of pregnancy (NB - warfarin is teratogenic!!!)

38
Q

What connective tissue disease are anti-RNP antibodies associated with?

What is the treatment?

A

Mixed Connective Tissue Disease - defined condition with features of various other connective tissue diseases

As with other CTDs, management varies with presentation - CCBs may help with Raynaud’s, and immunosuppression may be required if there is significant muscle or lung disease

39
Q

Fibromyalgia - what is it and who most commonly gets it?

A

Unexplained condition causing widespread muscle pain and fatigue. Thought to be the result of a disorder in central pain processing or a syndrome of central pain sensitivity. Patients tend to have a lower threshold to pain and of other stimuli (temp., smells, noises etc.)

May be a primary condition, or associated with other autoimmune conditions (25% of patients have RA, 50% have SLE)

Most commonly seen in young to middle-aged women, although it can affect anyone

40
Q

Fibromyalgia - signs and symptoms

A

Persistent, widespread pain, typically at specific points on the body (pain points can be used in diagnosis)

Fatigue, disrupted and unrefreshing sleep

Cognitive difficulties

Multiple other unexplained symptoms - depression, anxiety, functional impairments etc.

41
Q

Fibromyalgia - investigations and management

A

No specific tests to diagnose fibromyalgia, instead need to exclude other conditions. Fibromyalgia diagnosis made on clinical basis

Mainstay of treatment is for the patient to learn how best to self-manage their condition, and also important to validate the patient’s concerns, express empathy and give advice regarding graded excercise and activity pacing

Atypical analgesia including tricyclics (amitriptyline) and gabapentin/pregabalin may be of some use

42
Q

What are some of the signs and symptoms of Giant Cell Arteritis? How is it treated?

A

Symptoms

  • Visual disturbances
  • Headache
  • Thickening non-pulsatile temporal artery
  • Jaw claudication
  • Scalp tenderness
  • Consitutional symptoms

Treatment

  • if no visual disturbances - 40mg Prednisolone
  • if visual disturbances - 60mg Prednisolone ASAP!
  • doses are gradually tapered over 2 years - most patients will have resolved
43
Q

Polymyosititis and Dermatomyositis - what are they and who gets it?

A

Poly - idiopathic inflammatory arthropathy causing symmetrical proximal muscle weakness

Derm - clinically similar to the above, but with associated cutaneous features

Both are more common in women (2:1) and usually seen in 20+ year olds. Peak is between 40-65

44
Q

Poly/Dermatomyositis - signs and symptoms

A

Both

  • symmetrical proximal muscle weakness in upper and lower limbs
  • insidious onset
  • some patients complain of myalgia
  • dysphagia seen in approx 1/3rd of patients
  • ILD seen in 5-30% of patients

Specifically Derm

  • shawl-like rash over shoulders
  • Gottron’s papules on the hands over MCPs and PIPs
  • Heliotrope rash seen on the face
  • also a risk of malignancy (seen in 25% of patients)
45
Q

Poly/Dermatomyositis - investigations

A

Inflammatory markers often raised, as is serum CK

Autoantibodies - ANA, Anti-Jo-1 antibodies, Anti-SRP

MRI may be useful

Muscle biopsy is crucial to exclude other rarer muscle diseases

46
Q

Name some seronegative inflammatory arthropathies. What HLA type are patients with these conditions typically positive in?

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

Psoriatic arthritis

Reactive arthritis

Enteropathic arthritis

Patients are usually HLA-B27 positive

47
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis - what is it and who gets it?

A

Chronic inflammatory condition if the spine and sacroiliac joints. Leads to eventual fusion of the intervertebral joints and SI joints (bamboo spine)

Males more commonly affected (3:1), typically between 20 and 40 yrs old

48
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis - signs and symptoms

A

Typically patients complain of spinal pain and stiffness. There may also be a development of knee/hip arthritis

Stiffness is worse in the morning and improves with exercise

Over time, there is a loss of lumbar lordosis and increased thoracic kyphosis, resulting in a question mark spine

Associated conditions: anterior uveitis, aortitis, pulmonary fibrosis and amyloidosis

49
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis - investigations

A

Lumbar flexion can be assessed using Schober’s Test

X rays may show sclerosis, fusion of the SI joints and bony spurs from the vertebral bodies, bridging the intervertebral discs resulting in bamboo spine appearance

90% of patients will be HLA-B27 positive

50
Q

Ankylosing Spondylitis - treatment

A

Physiotherapy and exercise

NSAIDs - either non-selective (Ibuprofen, naproxen) or COX-2 inhibitors (diclofenac). COX-2 selective are apparently safer for the upper GI tract

Anti-TNFalpha therapy for more aggressive disease

DMARDs - typically have no effect on spinal disease but may be useful for treating secondary joint problems

51
Q

Psoriatic arthritis - what additional signs may be seen in a patient with this condition, other than standard arthritic symptoms?

A

Patients usually have nail changes - pitting, onycholysis (lifting of nail from nail bed)

5% of patients develop a particularly severe and destructive form of the disease known as arthritis mutilans

52
Q

Psoriatic arthritis - treatment

A

Similar to RA - methotrexate is first line, and continue to add DMARDs until Biologics become necessary

53
Q

Enteropathic arthritis - how does this come about?

A

Inflammatory arthritis invoving peripheral joints and sometimes the spine. Affects patients suffering from inflammatory bowel disease (e.g. Crohn’s and UC)

10-20% of patients with IBD suffer from some kind of joint pain

54
Q

Reactive arthritis - how does it come about and what is the triad of symptoms exhibited by some patients?

A

Inflammation of large joints 1-3 weeks following infection, typically a genitourinary infection (chlamydia, gonorrhoea etc.) or GI infection

Reiter’s syndrome

  • Urethritis
  • Uveitis
  • Conjunctivitis
55
Q

Reactive arthritis - management

A

Typically self-limiting but chronic and frequent relapses are seen in 15-30% of cases

Treatment is aimed at the underlying infectious organisms and symptomatic relief. DMARDs may be used in chronic cases

56
Q

Seronegative inflammatory arthropathies - typical presentation common to diseases in this group

A

Inflammation/arthritic disease of the spine (spondyloarthropathy)

Asymmetric oligoarthitis

Sacroiliitis, uveitis, dactylitis (inflammation of fingers) and enthesopathies (inflammation of tendonous insertions into bone e.g. achilles)

Raised CRP and ESR, and HLA-B27 positive

57
Q

Gout - how is it caused?

A

Deposition of urate crystals within a joint, usually with high amounts of hyperuricaemia (either due to undersecretion or overproduction).

Uric acid is the final compound in the breakdown of purines in DNA metabolism

(Hypoxanthine > Xanthine > Uric acid)

(Xanthine oxidase is involved in both of the above conversions)

58
Q

Gout - signs and symptoms

What is the number one differential when Gout is possible?

A

Classically presents with a red, hot, swollen and intensely painful joint, usually occuring during the night and lasting for 7-10 days

Can affect any joint, but is typically seen in the first MTP

Gouty tophi may also rarely appear - painless accumulation of uric acid in lumpy nodules on the hands.

Number one differential that MUST be excluded is SEPTIC ARTHRITIS!

59
Q

Gout - investigations

A

Definitively done through analysing a sample of fluid from the affected joint, taken via arthrocentesis.

Uric acid crystals appear under polarised microscopy as needle-like with a strong NEGATIVE birefringence

Blood tests to assess for hyperuricaemia may also be useful, but uric acid levels in blood can be raised and a patient may still never develop gout

60
Q

Gout - treatment (acute and longer term)

A

Acute attack - NSAIDs (colchicine for patients that cannot tolerate NSAIDs), corticosteroids, opioid analgesics

Longer term - allopurinol targets xanthine oxidase and can prevent attacks, however should only be started after an acute attack has settled as it may result in another flare of the disease

61
Q

Pseudogout - what causes it and who is it more commonly seen in?

A

Caused by accumulation of calcium pyrophosphate crystals in cartilage and other soft tissues (chondrocalcinosis)

Exact cause is unknown

While Gout is typically seen in people (more commonly men) in their middle ages, Pseudogout typically affects older people

62
Q

Pseudogout - treatment

A

Management is the same as with Gout (NSAIDs/Colchicine, steroids and opioid analgesics), however Allopurinol won’t do anything as the Xanthine pathway is not involved in Pseudogout.

63
Q

Name some benign bone tumours (7)

Which ones are painful?

A

Osteochondroma - most common, produce bony outgrowth covered by cartilaginous cap. Most commonly around epiphysis of long bones, especially the knees

Enchondroma - intramedullary and usually metaphyseal cartilaginous tumour. Usually asymptomatic but may cause pathological fracture and classically occur in small tubular bones of the hands and feet

Simple bone cyst - unicystic fluid-filled neoplasm, likely due to a growth defect in the physis. Seen around the metaphysis of long bones. Like encondromas, typically asymptomatic but may cause pathological fractures

Aneurysmal bone cyst - in contrast to above, contains lots of chambers filled with blood or serum. Locally aggressive causing cortical expansion and destruciton. USUALLY PAINFUL

Giant cell tumour - locally aggressive, predilection for metaphyses. Most commonly seen in knee and distal radius. ALSO PAINFUL, and may cause pathological fractures

Fibrous Dysplasia - usually occurs in adolescence, genetic mutation results in lesions of fibrous bone tissue and immature bone. Can affect any bone, but head and neck most common. Involvement of head of femur can result in Shepherd’s Crook deformity

Osteoid Osteoma - small area of immature bone surrounded by intense sclerotic halo. Most commonly at head of femur, diaphysis of long bones and veretbrae during adolescence. INTENSE, CONSTANT PAIN, worse at night

64
Q

Name that benign bone tumour!

“Most common, produce bony outgrowth covered by cartilaginous cap. Most commonly around epiphysis of long bones, especially the knees”

A

Osteochondroma

65
Q

Name that benign bone tumour!

“Intramedullary and usually metaphyseal cartilaginous tumour. Usually asymptomatic but may cause pathological fracture and classically occur in small tubular bones of the hands and feet”

A

Enchondroma

66
Q

Main clinical difference between Simple bone cysts and Aneurysmal bone cysts?

A

Aneurysmal bone cysts are painful

67
Q

Name that benign bone tumour!

“Locally aggressive, predilection for metaphyses. Locally destructive, destroying the cortex of bone. Most commonly seen in knee and distal radius. PAINFUL, and may cause pathological fractures. Characteristic “soap bubble” appearance on Xray”

A

Giant cell tumour

68
Q

Name that benign bone tumour!

“Usually occurs in adolescence, genetic mutation results in lesions of fibrous bone tissue and immature bone. Can affect any bone, but head and neck most common. Involvement of head of femur can result in “Shepherd’s Crook” deformity. Patients with this condition usually also have other significant problems e.g .endocrine disorders”

A

Fibrous Dysplasia

69
Q

Name that benign bone tumour!

“Small area of immature bone surrounded by intense sclerotic halo. Most commonly at head of femur, diaphysis of long bones and veretbrae during adolescence. INTENSE, CONSTANT PAIN, worse at night “

A

Osteoid osteoma

70
Q

Name some malignant bone tumours (4)

These are very rare - which group more commonly gets them?

A

Osteosarcoma - most common PBT, malignant tumout that produces bone. Majority of cases associated with the tumour suppressor Retinoblastoma gene

Chondrosarcoma - cartilage-producing PBT, typically found in the pelvis and proximal femur. Tends to occur more in OLDER age groups

Fibrosarcoma

Ewing’s Sarcoma - often seen in teens and tend to occur in long bones, especially femur. Radiologically desrcibed as onion-skin pattern, and associated with t11;22 transolcation involving the Ewing Sarcoma gene (EWS)

Younger age groups get PBTs more commonly. Not uncommon in adults, but usually the result of metastatic spread from elsewhere

71
Q

Name that malignant bone tumour!

“most common PBT, malignant tumout that produces bone. Majority of cases associated with the tumour suppressor Retinoblastoma gene

A

Osteosarcoma

72
Q

Name that malignant bone tumour!

“cartilage-producing PBT, typically found in the pelvis and proximal femur. Tends to occur more in OLDER age groups “

A

Chondrosarcoma

73
Q

Name that malignant bone tumour!

“often seen in teens and tend to occur in long bones, especially femur. Radiologically desrcibed as onion-skin pattern, and associated with t11;22 transolcation involving the Ewing Sarcoma gene (EWS)”

A

Ewing’s Sarcoma